AR 95-1 Study

Question 1

When can an aviator deviate from AR 95-1?

Answer 1

Individuals may deviate from provisions of this regulation during emergencies.

Question 2

To who and how quickly must a deviation from AR95-1, Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) regulations, or host
country regulations be reported?

Answer 2

Report deviations with the details of the incident directly to the unit commander.

Report incidents within 24 hours after they occur.

Question 3

Are you allowed to fly Army aircraft while on leave?

Answer 3

Military aviators in an authorized leave status are prohibited performing aircrew duties.

Question 4

T/F

The publications and forms required by DA Pam 738–751 are not required to be on each aircraft

Answer 4

False

The publications and forms required by DA Pam 738–751 will be on each aircraft.

Question 5

T/F

Operator and crewmember checklists will be used for preflight through before leaving aircraft checks.

Answer 5

True

While airborne, when time does not permit the utilization of the checklist or when use may cause a safety hazard, requires checks may be accomplished from memory

Operator and crewmember checklists will be used for preflight through before leaving aircraft checks.

Question 6

An entry will be made on ____________ (Army Aviator’s Flight Record) for each flight in aircraft and flight simulators
by all crewmembers indicating duties performed, mission, and flight condition.

Answer 6

An entry will be made on DA Form 2408–12 (Army Aviator’s Flight Record) for each flight in aircraft and flight simulators
by all crewmembers indicating duties performed, mission, and flight condition.

Question 7

Can someone designated PC of a flight sit in the back of the aircraft?

Answer 7

No. The PC will be designated on the DA Form 5484, and occupy a position with access to the
flight controls.

Question 8

When will (W) be logged on the 2408-12?

Answer 8

(W) Weather - Actual weather conditions that do not permit visual contact with the natural horizon or the earth’s
surface. Aircraft attitude must be determined and controlled using aircraft instruments.

(W) will be used in the
simulator when simulated weather conditions do not permit visual contact with the simulated horizon or earth’s surface. will be used in the
simulator when simulated weather conditions do not permit visual contact with the simulated horizon or earth’s surface.

Question 9

When will (N) be logged on the 2408-12?

Answer 9

Between the hours of official sunset and sunrise.

Question 10

When does flight time start for FW aviators?

When does flying time end?

Answer 10

(Manned) Flying time starts when an airplane begins to move forward on the takeoff roll

Flying time ends when the aircraft has landed and the engines are stopped (or the flying crew changes)

Question 11

Who is responsible for ensuring individual flight records folder (IFRF) and individual aircrew training folder (IATF) arrives to your next unit?

Answer 11

Aviation personnel will hand carry their individual flight records folder (IFRF) and individual aircrew training folder (IATF) between assignments.

Question 12

At a minimum, the unit flight records custodian will complete a synchronization with the CAFRS central database for all rated and nonrated personnel no later than _________________.

Answer 12

At a minimum, the unit flight records custodian will complete a synchronization with the Centralized Aviation Flight Records System (CAFRS) central database for all rated and nonrated personnel no later than the 15th of each month.

Question 13

Individuals will present their records to the unit assigned or attached for ATP purposes
within____________________

Answer 13

14 calendar days after reporting for duty

Question 14

T/F

The PC should report unexpected airport fees to the chain of command.

Answer 14

True

The PC should report unexpected airport fees to the chain of command.

Question 15

(Manned) Traffic pattern altitudes at Army airfields for airplanes should be _____ feet above ground level (AGL).

Answer 15

(Manned) Traffic pattern altitudes at Army airfields for airplanes should be 1,500 feet above ground level (AGL).

Question 16

What regulation sets Army policy and procedures for handling special use airspace matters?

Answer 16

AR 95–2 sets Army policy and procedures for handling special use airspace matters.

Question 17

What is the Army’s Aircraft lighting requirements in a foreign country?

Answer 17

Army aircraft shall be illuminated to at least the minimum standards required by the country in which the flight operation occur.

Question 18

When will position lights be on ? (Nav light, red and green)

Answer 18

Position lights will be on bright between official sunset and sunrise.

Question 19

Are anti-collision lights (beacon) always required when engines are running?

Answer 19

Not when aircrew may experience vertigo due to the lights, otherwise anti-collision lights are always required when the engine is running.

Question 20

Is a DA Form 2696 (Operational Hazard Report) normally used to report a flight violation?

Answer 20

No.

To report an alleged violation, use a letter or memorandum format.

DA Form 2696 (Opera-
tional Hazard Report) is not normally used to report flight violations.

Question 21

When a flight violation is under investigation, can an ATP have the accused aviator discuss the violation with a guest from the FAA during Academics to use it as a learning point so it does not happen again?

Answer 21

No.

Names of flight crew involved in actual or alleged violations will be treated as restricted information and not be released to the public or any agency outside the DOD except by proper authority. Any person receiving requests for names of flight crews of Army aircraft should direct such inquiries to the Commander, USAASA.

Question 22

What three-step mission approval process must be completed before mission execution?

Answer 22

Initial mission approval authority

Mission Briefing Officer

Final mission approval authority

Question 23

Who selects final mission approval authorities from the chain of command and designates them in writing along with the level of risk (low, moderate, high, extremely high) they are authorized to approve?

Answer 23

Commanders in the grade of O–5 and above will select final mission approval authorities from the chain of command and designate them in writing along with the level of risk (low, moderate, high, extremely high) they are
authorized to approve.

Question 24

When can battalion and brigade commanders authorize their field grade deputy commander (O–5), executive officer, S–3, or air ambulance company commander (O–4) to accept the risk and approve the operation on their behalf?

Answer 24

During bonafide absences, battalion and brigade commanders may authorize their field grade deputy commander (O–5), executive officer, S–3, or air ambulance company commander (O–4) to accept the risk and approve the operation on their behalf provided they are trained and notify the commander as soon as possible.

Question 25

For the Mission Briefing Officer, is self-briefing possible?

Answer 25

Yes, but self-briefing is not permitted unless approved by the first officer in the grade of O–5 or above in the chain of command.

Question 26

When must the AMC or PC get rebriefed for missional reapproval?

Answer 26

If a crewmember changes or a mission parameter change increases the resultant risk, the PC/AC or AMC will be re-briefed, and the mission reapproved as required.

Question 27

Can pilots remove their shoulder harness during level flight?

Answer 27

Crewmembers will wear a properly adjusted seat belt and shoulder harness while performing crew duties.

Question 28

When operating in noise sensitive areas, unless required by the mission, all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of _____ feet above the surface of the following: national parks, monuments, recreation areas and scenic river ways administered by the National Parks Service; National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, or Wildlife Ranges operated by
the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; and wilderness and primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service.

Answer 28

When operating in noise sensitive areas, unless required by the mission, all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of 2,000 feet above the surface of the following: national parks, monuments, recreation areas and scenic river ways administered by the National Parks Service; National Wildlife Refuges, Big Game Refuges, or Wildlife Ranges operated by
the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service; and wilderness and primitive areas administered by the U.S. Forest Service.

Question 29

Operational use of military aircraft includes those missions required to accomplish the Army’s mission and to maintain the combat readiness of aviation and ground units. Operational use missions include:

Answer 29

a. Actual or simulated tactical and combat operations.
b. Aircrew/crewmember training.
c. Intelligence.
d. Counter-narcotics activities (CNA).
e. Search and rescue.
f. Transporting prisoners.
g. Use of defense attaché controlled aircraft.
h. Research and development.
i. Maintenance flights/FCFs.
j. Flight tests.
k. Repositioning or reassignment of aircraft.
l. Transport of troops and/or equipment (non-medical evacuation).
m. Special use (Defense Support of Civilian Authorities/intelligence related activities, humanitarian, disaster relief, and
deployments) .
n. Aeromedical evacuation by aeromedical units.

Question 30

Can Army units use a training flight to bring one of its Soldiers to their leave location?

Answer 30

Army aircraft will not be used to conduct flights for personal use. They will not be used for transportation of person-nel or equipment to any place or event in an unofficial capacity.

Question 31

What form do we use to report operational hazards?

Answer 31

DA Form 2696 will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army aircraft or
related personnel and equipment.

Question 32

When differences exist between other Army aviation publications and AR95-1, which regulation has precedence?

Answer 32

AR 95-1

Question 33

T/F
Individual ATP requirements include flying hour, SFTS requirements, task iteration, and evaluation requirements including RL progression requirements and the APART.

Answer 33

True

Individual ATP requirements include flying hour, SFTS requirements, task iteration, and evaluation requirements including RL progression requirements and the APART.

Question 34

The conduct of training in emergency procedures is per what document?

Answer 34

The ATM

Question 35

Complete engine stoppage and/or shutdown (propeller or turbine stopped) will be in visual flight rule (VFR) con-
ditions at least _____ feet AGL

Answer 35

Complete engine stoppage and/or shutdown (propeller or turbine stopped) will be in visual flight rule (VFR) conditions at least 4,000 feet AGL and limited to not more than one engine at any one time.

Question 36

The usable length of the runway used for landing must be at least ________________.

Answer 36

The usable length of the runway used for landing must be at least 4,000 feet long, corrected for runway conditions based on the aircraft performance.

Question 37

How long must the Runway be to perform touch and go landings with an IP?

Answer 37

Runway used must meet accelerate-stop distance requirements plus 2,000 feet. (You must be with an IP)

Question 38

Failure to meet the aircrew training program requirements

When ATP requirements, other than the PC requirements, are not fulfilled the commander will suspend the crew-member and investigate.

How long can the investigation take?

Answer 38

This investigation will take no longer than 14 days from the date of notification.

Question 39

Failure to meet the aircrew training program requirements

At the completion of an investigation, the commander must take one of the following actions:

Answer 39

(a) Authorize an extension up to 30 days to complete the requirements. The 30-day extension will start after the commander completes his investigation. Commanders are not permitted to grant themselves an extension.
(b) Request a waiver of requirements.
(c) Recommend or convene a flying evaluation board per AR 600–105 for rated officer.

Question 40

(Manned) To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight once every __ days.

Answer 40

(Manned) To be considered current in the aircraft, individuals must take part in flight once every 60 days. If 60 days have elapsed since the last flight, the crew member WILL be administered a PFE

Question 41

Is the Flight Surgeon a rated officer that must perform duties aboard an aircraft that are essential to specific flight missions?

Answer 41

Yes. The FS is a rated officer that must perform duties aboard an aircraft that are essential to specific flight missions.

Question 42

Are we allowed to use commercial and/or non-U.S. Government instrument procedures in Army aircraft?

Answer 42

Use of commercial and/or non-U.S. Government instrument procedures in Army aircraft is dependent on the source of the procedure and the necessity for a compliance review.

Question 43

Who conducts the compliance review for airfields not in government FLIP?

Answer 43

U.S. Army Aeronautical Services Agency, 9325 Gunston Road, Suite
N319, Fort Belvoir, VA 22060–5582

Consult the current HNAL
for exceptions. The unit commander or the designated risk approval authority will submit compliance reviews to USAASA at least 10 days in advance. The request will include the name and location of the airfield, name and identification of the
procedure, and the date required.

Question 44

T/F

Aircraft must be bonded or grounded during fueling, de-fueling, arming, de-arming, oxygen servicing, and loading
or unloading of flammable or explosive cargo.

Answer 44

True

Aircraft must be bonded or grounded during fueling, de-fueling, arming, de-arming, oxygen servicing, and loading
or unloading of flammable or explosive cargo.

Question 45

Smoking or open flames are prohibited in, or within __ feet of, Army aircraft.

Answer 45

Smoking or open flames are prohibited in, or within 50 feet of, Army aircraft.

Question 46

How do we convert published minimums between RVR and miles or metric equivalent?

Answer 46

When published minimums require conversion between runway visual range (RVR) and miles or metric equivalent,
the conversion table in DOD and/or U.S. Government FLIP will be used.

Question 47

T/F

The RVR is NOT the controlling visibility factor when published and reported for a runway.

Answer 47

False

The RVR is the controlling visibility factor when
published and reported for a runway.

Question 48

Are you required to check vendor NOTAMs before each flight if using a commercial database?

Answer 48

If using a commercial database, the vendor’s NOTAMs will be verified before flight.

Pilots will also check GPS NOTAMs and/or Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) via the FAA NOTAM website https://www.notams.faa.gov/dinsqueryweb/, an FAA flight service station, or other approved NOTAM source. For
GPS operations OCONUS, information on how to obtain predictive RAIM may be obtained from the USAASA website.

Question 49

Are manual waypoints authorized to be manually added on an arrival procedure?

Answer 49

No.

The RNAV/RNP departure, arrival, en route, and terminal procedures will only be flown using way points retrieved
from an approved non-corruptible database. The system must be able to retrieve the procedure by name from the aircraft navigation database. Manual entry or update of the navigation database other than storing user defined data is not authorized (except for approved emergency GPS procedures).

Question 50

At takeoff, aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserve of.

Answer 50

Fixed wing.

(a) VFR (day), 30 minutes at cruise.
(b) VFR (night), 45 minutes at cruise.
(c) IFR, 45 minutes at cruise.

Question 51

When two or more aircraft are operating as one flight, the unit concert will designate one rated aviator of the flight as the ____ ____ ____

Answer 51

Air mission commander AMC

Question 52

Aircraft will not be flown into known or forecasted _____ icing conditions

Answer 52

Severe

Question 53

For weight and balance, the will ensure
1) accuracy of computations on the Form _______
2) that a completed form is ____ the aircraft
3) the CG will be within allowable limits for the ______ flight

Answer 53

1) 365-4
2) Aboard
3) Entire

Question 54

T / F

All aviators will comply with published non-standard IFR takeoff minimum, departure procedures, and ODPs in FLIPs

Answer 54

True

Question 55

The aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff who has logged ____ hours or more of actual weather time as PC has no army take off minimums

Answer 55

Otherwise minimums are:
200 feet ceiling
1/2 mi vis
2400 RVR

Question 56

What are the takeoff minimums for U.S. Army Fixed-Wing aircraft?

Answer 56

200’ ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility RVR 2,400 or metric equivalent

No takeoff minimums as a PC with 50 or more hours of actual weather time

Question 57

All army aircraft that are instrumented for IFR flights and are flown by instrument rated pilots will operate on IFR flight plans except for when

Answer 57

1) flight is primarily for VFR training

2) time will not permit mission completion under IFR

3) mission can only be accomplished under VFR

4) excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered

5) hazardous weather conditions must be avoided