Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RC12X Study Guide > ATM (31JAN22) Study Guide > Flashcards

ATM (31JAN22) Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Are RC-12N/X considered similar aircraft?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can NRCMs may maintain aircraft currency in similar aircraft?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are your Semi-Annual Flying Hour Requirements for RC12X aircrew FAC 1 aviators?

A

55 Total
1 Night
3 Weather/Hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

There is no provision for FAC 3 Fixed Wing aviators

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F
During an operational
deployment, O-6 Commanders and State Army Aviation Officers are authorized unit
waiver approval for Synthetic Flight Training Systems (SFTS) requirements.

A

True

IAW AR 95-1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of simulator recurrent training?

A

provide fixed wing aviators the
training necessary to enhance their ability to perform in adverse weather, environmental
conditions, complete simulator only tasks and correctly respond to emergency situations
that cannot or should not be attempted in the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is it is recommended that units schedule aviators attending recurrent training to be crewed with another Army Aviator?

A

This allows RCMs to implement the crew
coordination elements, basic qualities, and objectives as found in the Army Aircrew
Coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Foundational Knowledge?

A

This knowledge forms the foundation of all professional aviation knowledge.
Application of knowledge learned in this domain will be evaluated during RL progression, annual unit academics, and on the annual written exam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Operational Knowledge?

A

This knowledge is specific to the mission and unit mission essential task list (METL),
addressing both tactical and technical subjects and includes the application of Foundational Knowledge topics. It is
knowledge required to train, fight and win in all phases of Unified Land Operations (ULO), Large Scale Combat
Operations against peer/near-peer, and emerging threats. Each crewmember should continue to increase competence in all the subject areas below. These topics will be evaluated for designation to RL1 as well as on the annual APART evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FW aviators serving in RC-12 assignments will complete an approved FS refresher/recurrent training within____________ after completing the RC-12 Aircraft Qualification Course (AQC).

A

12 to 18 months

12 months max per IINSCOM memo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the P* is responsible for in the aircraft?

A

Fly the aircraft. If the AP is coupled, the P* is responsible
for ensuring that the AP correctly captures and maintains selected altitudes and courses. Unless required by a
safety consideration, the P* shall avoid tasks that distract from the primary responsibility of flying the aircraft by directing the P to accomplish these tasks. As a general rule, if the P can do it, the P should do it, particularly during the departure and arrival phases. It is the P*’s responsibility to manage the workload by tasking the P during periods of high cockpit workload.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is The P is responsible for?

A

The P is responsible for cross-monitoring the P* and for accomplishingtasks that may
distract the P* from his or her duties. The primary duty of the P is to keep the P* free to simply fly the aircraft.
Basic P duties include thefollowing:
(1) Radio communications.
(2) Change NAVAID and communications radio frequencies.
(3) Change transponder codes.
(4) Prepare and review copy clearances, local weather broadcast, automated terminal information services,
and other flight information.
(5) Read and complete CL items asrequired.
(6) Set/adjust pages, switches, and systems as required.
(7) Operate the FMS/GPS/on-board navigational system at the direction of theP.
(8) Change the aircraft configuration at the direction of the P, suchas—
(a) Power and propeller settings.
(b) Flap selection.
(9) Operate the weather avoidance equipment.
(10) Set and arm the altitude on the altitude pre-selector (if installed) and cabincontroller.
(11) During IFR operations—
(a) Note takeoff time.
(b) Calculate and monitor times for holding and approaches.
(c) When on approach, watch for the runway environment.
(d) Be prepared to direct and assist the P* with the missed approach procedure, if required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In normal flight situations, only the P* should disengage

the AP and announce _________________________________

A

“AUTOPILOT ENGAGED or AUTOPILOT DISENGAGED”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F

When flight is conducted with the AP engaged, the P* may select or direct the P to select FD modes and NAV sources.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F

When manually flying the aircraft the P* should select the FD modes and NAV sources whenever possible.

A

False
the P* should direct the P select FD
modes and NAV sources whenever possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F
The underlined items are “DO” items followed by verification with the CL, when time and
altitude permits.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Critical Action Coordination?

A

Flight critical/irreversible actions should always be confirmed by two
crewmembers. These actions include, but are not limited to, pulling the engine fire pull handle or moving a
propeller or condition lever. The crewmember performing the action points to the affected switch/handle
and verbally seeks confirmation from an opposite crewmember (for example “CONFIRM No.1 PROP LEVER”). The crewmember confirming the action looks at the affected switch/handle and acknowledges
“No.1 PROP LEVER CONFIRMED”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F
The term “STANDARD BRIEF” may be used during the departure briefingto indicate
crew duties and callouts remain the same IAW the unit SOP.

A

True.
The term “STANDARD BRIEF” may be used during the departure briefingto indicate
crew duties and callouts remain the same IAW the unit SOP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During the takeoff roll, what does the, “Normal” call mean?

A

Sixty-five-knot check on the takeoff roll indicating the airspeed indicators are alive,
autofeather lights are illuminated, and instrument indications are within limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Statement that the P* is taking positive action to correct an out of tolerance flight
parameter; for example, drift, altitude, etc.

A

“Correcting”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Either pilot will announce what when Primary focus of attention is inside the aircraft.

A

“Inside”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F
Climb, cruise, and descent (table 3-3). If passing the 1,000-foot prior point and ATC communications is
preventing the callout, either crew member may indicate the 1,000-foot prior point by raising the index finger
in the view of the other crew member.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F
Task 1215 Perform Precision Approach, while the aircraft is being operated single-engine, must be evaluated by an IP during the standardization evaluation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F

If a high cockpit workload exists, essential cockpit procedures may be performed from memory.

A

True

Crew will prioritize tasks and verify with the CL as time/crew workload permit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Final approach Descent rates greater than ____ FPM are prohibited unless briefed and concurred by each
crewmember.

A

Final approach Descent rates greater than 1,000 FPM are prohibited unless briefed and concurred by each
crewmember.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the common standards for Taxi operations.?

A

(1) Comply with taxi clearance.
(2) Follow taxi lines with minimum deviation.
(3) Maintain a safe taxi speed commensurate with conditions.
(4) Correctly use controls as required for wind conditions.
(5) Appropriate airport diagrams out and available.
(6) Complicated or unexpected clearances shall be written down.
(7) No intersection will be entered without clearing in all directions.
(8) Traversing runways and hotspots requires extra vigilance. Completing checklists (CLs) is prohibited in these areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the appropriate common standards for In Flight?

A

(1) Maintain heading ±10 degrees.
(2) Maintain altitude ±100 feet.
(3) Maintain airspeed ±10 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS).
(4) Maintain rate of climb or descent ±100 feet per minute (FPM).
(5) Maintain the aircraft in trim ±1/4 ball width.
(6) Maintain ±1 nautical mile (NM) when tracking distance measuring equipment (DME) arcs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the The PC responsible for IAW the ATM?

A

PC is responsible for the conduct of the mission, and for operating, securing, and servicing the aircraft
he or she commands.

29
Q

T/F
The PC may not delegate the passenger briefing to
another crewmember.

A

False.
Units will use the approved passenger briefing CL and modify it as necessary to meet unit requirements. The PC will ensure the briefing is conducted. The PC may delegate the briefing to
another crewmember.

30
Q

T/F
Although the use of computer flight planning programs are authorized, The crew should verify the information with applicable charts before using the computer generated one.

A

True

31
Q

For planning a IFR or VFR flight, what are your distance, TAS, and Estimated Time Enroute standards?

A

Distance within ±5 miles, true airspeed within 10 knots(KTS) and estimated time en route (ETE) within ±3 minutes for each leg of the flight.

32
Q

For planning IFR flights, Is the use of computer flight planning programs authorized?

A

Yes, but the crew should verify the information with applicable charts before using.

33
Q

When must you Re-compute GR/CS TOLD card data?

A

Re-compute GR/CS TOLD card data if conditions increase by 1,000 feet pressure altitude (PA), 10 degrees Celsius or 500 pounds gross weight(GWT).

34
Q

If the takeoff WT cannot be reduced because of mission requirements to meet
single-engine performance during takeoff, what is recommended?

A

If the takeoff WT cannot be reduced because of mission requirements to meet
single-engine performance during takeoff, then selecting a runway that meets
Accelerate−Stop is recommended.

35
Q

Define Net Takeoff Flight Path – First Segment (%).

A

This segment begins at V.R. and ends after
obtaining V2 and the gear is fully retracted. It is a high drag segment and a positive rate of climb is highly recommended.

36
Q

Define Net Takeoff Flight Path – Second Segment (%).

A

The second segment begins from the point the gear is fully retracted. Ends at 400 feet above ground level (AGL) (or clear obstacles), and is flown at V2. Standard climb gradient for IFR operation is 3.3%. A climb gradient of greater than 3.3% may be required for departures with other than standard takeoff/departure procedures.

37
Q

Define Net Takeoff Flight Path – Third Segment (%).

A

Third segment begins after the acceleration and flaps retraction segment ends by obtaining VENR. while maintaining takeoff power until reaching VENR. or 5 minutes and then reduce power to MAX continuous. The takeoff path ends at 1,500 feet AGL and clear of obstacles.

38
Q

Takeoff WT considerations. The takeoff WT may be limited by the most restrictive of?

A

(1) MAX certified takeoff WT (structural).
(2) MAX takeoff WT permitted by takeoff field length.
(3) MAX takeoff WT to achieve a positive climb at lift-off.
(4) Accelerate ‒ Go distance over 50-footobstacle.
(5) Net takeoff flight path – Secondsegment

39
Q

What is the formula to figure out your Climb Percent Gradient?

A

(Climb Gradient) / (60.76)
(300Ft/NM) / (60.76) = 4.9%
(200Ft/NM) / (60.76) = 3.3%

40
Q

What are the standards for Verifying the Weight & Balance

A
  1. Verify the DD Form 365-4 iscurrent.
  2. Verify that center of gravity (CG) and GWT remain within aircraft limits for the duration of theflight.
  3. Ensure DD Form 365-4 has been completed in accordance with AR 95-1.
  4. Identify all mission or flight limitations imposed by WT or CG.
41
Q

Are Single pilot taxi and run-up operations authorized?

A

Yes.
Single pilot taxi and run-up operations are authorized. During single pilot taxi and run-up operations, the pilot will occupy the left seat and must continuously monitor the aircraft for movement during run-up operations.

42
Q

During mountainous or high-temp operations, If ice vanes are used during ground operations, what must be closely monitored.

A

Oil TEMPs must be monitored closely.

43
Q

When responding to emergency procedures, must the P* verbally call out the underlined items in the procedure while dealing with an emergency?

A

No.
Underlined emergency items in the operator’s manual will be committed to memory. This
should not be construed to mean the P* must verbally call out the underlined items in the procedure while dealing with an emergency. The underlined items are DO items followed by verification with the current CL, when time and altitude permits.

44
Q

During normal takeoff, Obtain computed static takeoff power prior to reaching ___?

A

Obtain computed static takeoff power prior to reaching 65 KTS.

45
Q

Static takeoffs are only required when?

A

Static takeoffs are only required when limited by accelerate-stop distance and runway length or
first flight of the day.

46
Q

When does the P* relinquish control of the power levers to the P during the takeoff roll?

A

The P* does not relinquish control of the power levers to the P until the takeoff decision speed (V1) callout

47
Q

En route climb. The P* may maintain ___ KIAS until _____ AGL.

A

En route climb. The P* may maintain 160 KIAS until 10,000 AGL.

48
Q

What are the standards for a steep turn?

A
  1. Maintain angle of bank within 45 to 60degrees.
  2. Roll out on the desired heading ±10degrees.
  3. Roll into a coordinated turn of 180 or 360 degrees with a bank of at least 45 degrees and MAX of 60 degrees.
  4. Apply smooth coordinated pitch, bank, and power to maintain altitude and airspeed.
  5. Avoid any indication of an approaching stall, abnormal flight attitude, or exceeding any structural or operating limitation during any part of the maneuver.
49
Q

What are the standards for slow flight?

A
  1. Stabilize and maintain the airspeed at VREF +5/-0 KTS, no lower than VMCA.
  2. Avoid any indication of an approaching stall.
  3. Select an altitude that will allow the task to be completed no lower than 4,000 feet AGL.
50
Q

When performing a normal landing, what is the standard for touchdown?

A

Touchdown on the first 3,000 feet of the runway beginning at the threshold or the first third of the runway (on runways shorter than 9000 feet) and roll out with desired runway track between the main landing gear.

51
Q

While performing an approach, what speed must you maintain inbound from the FAF?

A

Maintain a speed of VREF +20 (±10) KIAS final approach fix inbound.

52
Q

During precision approach radar (PAR) approaches, maintain headings ±__ degrees and make immediate heading and altitude corrections as issued by ATC.

A

During precision approach radar (PAR) approaches, maintain headings ±5 degrees and make immediate
heading and altitude corrections as issued by ATC.

53
Q

At the end of the briefing, the approach plate, if only one is available, should be positioned in view of the P. The following items should be retained in memory by the P*

A

(1) Final inbound course.
(2) Glide slope intercept altitude.
(3) Decision altitude.
(4) The initial missed approach climb, including heading/course, and altitude.

54
Q

When must crewmembers complete the before-landing check during an approach?

A

Complete before-landing check before final approach fix inbound.

55
Q

Announcing “____, ____, _____, _____.” is highly encouraged, but should not be construed to mean the P* must verbally call out the procedure while performing unusual attitude recovery.

A

Announcing “PUSH, ROLL, POWER, STABILIZE” is highly encouraged, but should not be construed to mean the P* must verbally call out the procedure while performing unusual attitude recovery.

56
Q

T/F
Do not attempt to roll through during an upset in order to achieve wings level
more quickly.

A

True
Do not attempt to roll through during an upset in order to achieve wings level
more quickly. Roll in the shortest direction to wings level.

57
Q

During a circling approach, The angle of bank will not exceed __ degrees.

A

The angle of bank will not exceed 30 degrees.

58
Q

Several common reasons to

reject a takeoff are?

A 
Several common reasons to
reject a takeoff are:
(1) Engine malfunction.
(2) Flat tire.
(3) Chip detector.
(4) Fire light illuminates.
(5) Oil pressure light illuminates.
(6) Smoke/smell in the cockpit.
(7) Abnormal flight control inputs required or feedback in controls.
(8) Loss of directional control.
59
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the aircraft is secured and that the FPLN is closed?

A

The PC

60
Q

What were the two new Aircrew Catalogue of Academic Topics added to the new 31JAN22 ATM update for “Aircraft emergency procedures and malfunction analysis”?

A
  • Drift down altitudes and speeds.

- Computing equal time points (engine or pressurization failure).

61
Q

What are some of the new ACAT for AMS Threat?

A
  • Radio Frequency (RF) threat systems.
  • Infrared (IR) / Ultraviolet (UV) threat systems.
  • LASER threat systems.
  • Direct Fire threat systems.
  • Electro-optical (EO) threat systems.
  • Air to Air (A2A) threat systems.
  • Cyber Electromagnetic Activity (CEMA)
  • Denied, Degraded, and Disrupted Space Operational Environment (D3SOE).
  • Threat Tactics, Techniques and Procedures (TTPs).
  • Anti-Access Area Denial (A2/AD)
  • Integrated Air Defense System (IADS) employment.*
62
Q

What is Task 2900?

A

Perform Classified Reactionary Evasive Maneuvers

63
Q

Define “Critical action coordination”.

A

Flight critical/irreversible actions should always be confirmed by two crewmembers. These actions include, but are not limited to, closing the firewall shutoff valve, or moving a propeller or condition lever. The crewmember performing the action points to the affected switch/handle and verbally seeks confirmation from an opposite crewmember (for example “CONFIRM No.1 PROP LEVER”). The crewmember confirming the action looks at the affected switch/handle and acknowledges “No.1 PROP LEVER CONFIRMED”.

64
Q

T/F
At Night, an ILS glideslope or VASI/PAPI, when available, is the most accurate and reliable means of approach angle indication and should be used to maintain a safe glide path. If an ILS glideslope or VASI/PAPI is not available, the obstruction lights and the threshold lights should be used to establish a sight picture during the approach. The apparent distance between runway lights can also be used as an aid in establishing the flare-out point.

A

True

65
Q

Extreme caution must be used while performing this check since the aircraft is operating close to a stall. If any unusual flight characteristics are encountered, the maneuver will be _________. If unexpected yawing moments are encountered at low power settings, immediately _______ the maneuver as this could be indications of faulty rigging. If the stall warning horn does not sound in the designated speed range, terminate the maneuver and return the aircraft to maintenance for further adjustments and/or maintenance actions.

A

Terminated, Terminate.

Extreme caution must be used while performing this check since the aircraft is operating close to a stall. If any unusual flight characteristics are encountered, the maneuver will be terminated. If unexpected yawing moments are encountered at low power settings, immediately terminate the maneuver as this could be indications of faulty rigging. If the stall warning horn does not sound in the designated speed range, terminate the maneuver and return the aircraft to maintenance for further adjustments and/or maintenance actions.

66
Q

For an ILS approach, remain within _________ of the CDI. On final approach, maintain a glideslope indicator and CDI within _________

A

1 full scale deflection

67
Q

Complete before landing checks before the ____ _____ _____ inbound

A

Final approach fix

68
Q

If descending on the glideslope prior to glide slope intercept, the before landing check should be completed approximately ____ miles from the final approach fix

A

2 miles

69
Q

When are crews authorized to disregard a TCAS RA

A

When VMC, flight crews are authorized to disregard an RA if, and only if, both crewmembers have absolutely identified, beyond any doubt, the traffic that caused the RA.

If either crew member has any doubt, then respond to the RA

RC12X Study Guide (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions