3rd MI ABOS Flashcards
“Will, shall, must” indicate a ______ requirement
Mandatory
“Should” is used to indicate a non-mandatory but _____ method of accomplishment
Preferred
“May” or “can” indicate an _____ method of accomplishment
Acceptable
The ___ will ensure appropriate Flight Information Publication (FLIP) and mission products are onboard the aircraft IAW 95-1. Pilots are authorized to substitute paper FLIP products with approved _____
PC
EFB
The following items are not all DOD FLIPs, they should be the minimum required publicaitons and mission products for routine training
FLIPs IAW para 9-47
Local Procedure guide (if required)
Pubs required by DA PAM 738-751
Appropriate aircraft operator manual and checklist
Aircraft Notebook laptop (ACN)
DOD Form 365-4 adjusted for current configuration
SF 44 / AvCards
A PC’s primary method for retrieving notice to air missions (NOTAMS) is through the DOD_________ website
Department of Defense Aeronautical Information System website
Aircrew members will immediately inform their ______ or aeromedical physician assistant (APA) when they have received treatment for which flying restrictions may be appropriate
This includes any treatment or procedure performed by a non-flight surgeon listed in AR 40-8.
flight surgeon (FS)
The 501st MI BDE Commander has determined all 3rd MI BN (AE) crewmembers will be designated Flight Activity Category (FAC) ____ in their primary aircraft
FAC 1
Crewmembers identified for standby duty on the flight schedule are on call starting at the earliest scheduled ______ time for the mission
Battalion Operations Center (BOC)
Standby duty will end after____% of the mission(s).
50%
Standby crews must be available for telephonic recall and report within ______ hour(s) of notification
1 hour
All RL1 crewmembers are responsible for completing their APART requirements during the ______ month period prior to the last day of the individual’s birth month.
three-month period
Semiannual Flying Hour Requirements
Total:
Hood/ Weather:
Night:
55
3
1
When returning from a non-flying period of ____ days or more (TDY, leave, etc.), the aviator will fly a minimum of one flight with a unit PC, UT, or IP prior to performing duties as a PC.
30
Crewmembers will be notified no earlier than____ hours and no later than ____ hour(s) prior to flightno notice evaluations
24
1
Each evaluator should perform at least ____ no-notice evaluation during each of their semi-annual periods.
2
At a minimum, ____ % of the aircrew members will receive one (1) no-notice evaluation per year outside of their APART period.
30
The primary purpose of recurrent training is to receive intensive training on aircraft systems and a thorough review and training of emergency and abnormal procedures, some of which are ____ from being performed in the aircraft.
restricted
3rd MI BN defines multi-aircraft operations as two or more aircraft departing within a _____ minute separation period and have a common ______ and/or mission
10 minute
destination
T/F
Formation flight is authorized
FALSE
Formation flight is not authorized
AMCs will be designated for each GRCS mission involving ____ or more aircraft and______ ______ of multiple aircraft.
two
self-deployment
T/F
Effective AMC training occurs at all levels and should not exclude leaders who have not achieved PC status.
TRUE
T/F
Risk management (RM) is only about the sheet of paper being finished, it is about the process and understanding the risk involved with the mission or training being conducted
FALSE
Risk management (RM) is not about the sheet of paper being finished, it is about the process and understanding the risk involved with the mission or training being conducted
3rd Mi BN uses the current guidance from _______ Supplement to AR 95-1 for the risk assessment worksheet. (DA 5484)
INSCOM
Which level of risk may MBOs brief?
Briefing Officers may brief at any risk level and must be a current PC and qualified in the mission
T/F
MBOs that are also a Final Mission Approval Authority (FMAA) can brief and approve the same mission.
FALSE
MBOs that are also a Final Mission Approval Authority (FMAA) will not brief and approve the same mission
Do you need an MBO and FMAA if you are only doing engine starts?
Mission approval is required any time an engine is started on an aircraft.
•EXTREMELY HIGH Risk Approval Authority
• HIGH Risk Approval Authority: ______
• MODERATE Risk Approval Authority:
• LOW Risk Approval Authority: ______
EH: INSCOM Commander
H: 501st Brigade Commander
M: Battalion Commander
L: ATP Company Commander for their specific aircraft
Who are the only authorized self-approval authorities?
When can the BN XO / S3 self approve?
3rd MI Battalion Commander
Alpha Company Commander
Bravo Company Commander
________________________________________________
Only when on battalion assumption of command orders the BN XO / BN S-3 can self- approve, if the overall risk is at or below the approval authorities risk assumption authority as annotated on the MBO/FMAA policy memo.
T/F
During bonafide absences, battalion and brigade commanders may authorize their field grade deputy commander (O–5), executive officer, S–3, or air ambulance company commander (O–4) to accept the risk and approve the operation on their behalf provided they are trained and notify the commander as soon as possible
TRUE
Define Bonafide absence
Periods of time the commander is unavailable and a decision is required before they are reached.
Multiple attempts by all means necessary will be made prior to seeking approval from another approval authority.
Every attempt should be made to contact the ATP commander for a Low risk approval prior to contacting the________ for approval.
Battalion Commander
BN S3 and BN XO are authorized to approve a final risk approve for Low / Moderate risk missions during bona fide absences of the BN Commander
What does VOCO stand for?
Verbal orders of commanding officer (VOCO)
If an approval authority cannot be physically present to sign the RAW, then the term ______will be entered in the appropriate FMAA block with an entry made in the mission log that a _____ approval was received for the mission.
VOCO (Verbal orders of commanding officer)
3rd MI BN academic training will take place the first _____ of every month from 1500-1630 local time
Monday
If make-up training is not completed by the end of the month, the crewmember’s reading file card will be turned “Red”, and that person will be _______ from flight duties until complete
restricted
How many survival radios will be carried onboard the aircraft in a standardized location accessible to all crewmembers.
2
Are survival vests required to be worn by crewmembers?
No
How many survival vests will be carried onboard on all flights?
One vest per crewmember will be carried onboard on all flights.
When will Mustang suits be readily available?
Operating and aircraft overwater outside of “all engine-out” glide range
and
the ambient water temperature is 60F or below.
Uniforms and protective clothing will be IAW ______ with the exception of flight helmets and gloves.
AR 95-1
When mission dictates that the flight uniform is not to be worn. Exception to wearing the uniform is when flying to Japan, crews are authorized to dress in business casual clothing for these training support flights. (Khakis, Slacks etc.., No Shorts and the shirt must have a collar)
When flying to Japan, crews are authorized to dress in ___ ___ clothing for these training support flights. (Khakis, Slacks etc.., No Shorts and the shirt must have a collar
business casual
What is the clean aircraft concept?
No aircraft will take off with ice, snow or frost adhered to any of the following surfaces:
windshield, wings, stabilizers, control surfaces, pitot and stall probe systems, engine nacelles, intakes or pylons.
In a deployed AOR, due to possible lack of deice capability aircrews will not depart during any freezing precipitation if the departure airfield or destination airfield does not have ______ ______
deicing capabilities
Aircraft will not depart or land on a runway with the Braking Action reported as ____ or _____ without the appropriate risk commander’s approval
“Poor”
“Nil”
Are physically or mentally fatigued personnel allowed to perform flight or mission support duties?
NO
Physically or mentally fatigued personnel will not perform flight or mission support duties.
(IAW INSCOM Supplement to AR 95-1 section F-6 paragraph G)
When must a crewmember update their fighter management tracker?
When is it recommended to update fighter management to effectively track fighter management?
The BN fighter management tracker will be updated prior to flight
it is recommended to update individual trackers every 72 hours.
If an individual is not flying, it is recommended to update individual trackers every _____ hours In order to effectively track fighter management
72 hours
What form will extensions be annotated on?
DA Form 5484
Define: Duty Day
The duty day starts with arrival at work and ends with release from duty.
Any transportation to/from a remote work location will be included as part of the crewmember’s duty day.
Define: Rest Periods
The 12 hours after release from duty until the start of the next duty day
When has a rest period been considered interrupted?
An interruption is when an individual is required to perform/report for an obligating duty
A phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (<30 minutes) during other than garrison operations is not considered an interruption
If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has two options.
1) Restart the individual’s rest period. (If new rest period is less than 12 hours, ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of continuous rest received prior to start of duty day).
2) Begin the individual’s duty day at the moment of interruption. Ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of rest received prior to interruption.
What are the command’s two options if a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes?
1) Restart the individual’s rest period. (If new rest period is less than 12 hours, ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of continuous rest received prior to start of duty day).
2) Begin the individual’s duty day at the moment of interruption. Ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for the amount of rest received prior to interruption
Define: Rest Day.
how often should they by provided and will they be provided?
A period of 24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed
A 24-hour rest period should be provided every 7 days for each crewmember
A 24-hour rest period will be provided every 14 consecutive days worked
8-14 consecutive days worked is assessed on the RAW as a moderate risk
8-14 consecutive days worked is assessed on the RAW as a ______ risk.
Moderate
Aircrew members newly assigned to Eighth Army and those returning from leave or temporary duty (TDY) after transitioning more than 5 time zones shall not be scheduled for flight within ____ hours of arrival in-country
96
This requirement may be waived down to 72 hours by the first aviation commander Lieutenant Colonel (O-5) or above in the individuals’ chain of command based upon the recommendation of the unit flight surgeon.
Define: Duty Day Shift
A shift in an individual duty day cycle by either four (4) or more hours to the left or six (6) or more hours to the right from the previous duty start time.
Define: Reverse Cycle
Aircrew members should be provided a ___hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle
A duty cycle that requires an adjustment of the normal circadian rhythm
Reverse cycle occurs when an aircrew member is required to alter the start of a duty period by 8 hours or more
24 hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle. Less than a 24-hour rest period prior to beginning a reverse cycle will be assessed as a moderate risk on the RAW
Aircrew members should be provided a ___ hour reset prior to beginning a Reverse Cycle
Less than a _____ hour rest period prior to beginning a reverse cycle will be assessed as a moderate risk on the RAW
24, 24
“Should” is not mandatory according to the front of the ABOS. but less than a 24 hour reset required a moderate risk
