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Systems Flashcards

1
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does PTU operate in AUTO position?

A

When pressure difference between Green and Yellow system is > 500 psi

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2
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the RAT automatically deploy?

FM 8.130.10.3

A

Loss of AC buses 1 and 2 and speed is above 100kts

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3
Q

HYDRAULICS

ENG 1(2) PUMP FAULT light

A
  1. Pump pressure low
    Resevoir:
  2. Level low
  3. Overheat
  4. Air pressure low
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4
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the blue electric pump operate with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?

A
  1. On ground when one engine running and AC power available
  2. In air
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5
Q

HYDRAULICS

Blue/Yellow ELEC PUMP FAULT light

A

Pump:
1. pressure low
2. overheats
Resevoir:
3. level low
4. overheats
5. air pressure low

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6
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the Yellow ELEC PUMP operate automatically, regardless of switch position?

FM 8.130.10.2

A

When either the forward or aft cargo door lever is operated

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7
Q

HYDRAULICS

During cargo door operation, all other system users are not pressurized except for

A
  1. ENG 2 TR
  2. Yellow system braking (alternate brakes, parking brake, brake accumulator)
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8
Q

HYDRAULICS

What do the hydraulic priority valves do?

What does GREEN priority valve shut off hydraulic power to?

FM 8.130.10.5

A

If the system pressure drops below a predetermined level, they shut off hyrdaulic power to heavy users (flaps/slats, ldg gear, NWS, emerg gen) to ensure hydraulic pressure is available to flight controls, brakes, spoilers, and TRs

GREEN priority valve shuts off power to:
1. NWS
2. Gear
3. Slats/Flaps

BLUE priority valve shuts off power to:
1. Emerg Gen
2. Slats

YELLOW priority valve shuts off power to:
1. Flaps

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9
Q

HYDRAULICS

PTU FAULT light

A

GREEN or YELLOW system:
1. Overheat
2. Low level
3. Low air pressure

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10
Q

HYDRAULICS

When is the PTU inhibited?

FM 8.130.10.3

A
  1. PTU switch is OFF
  2. Parking Brake on and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
  3. NWS disconnect pin installed and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON
  4. When cargo door being operated (and for 40 seconds after cargo door op)
  5. When pressure in failed hydraulic system is not recovered after 6 seconds. In this case, the logic assumed a fluid loss in the failed system
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11
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

How many spoilers on each wing?
Which are used for ground spoilers?
Which assist in roll control?
Which are used as speed brakes?

A

How many spoilers on each wing?
5

Which are used for ground spoilers?
All 5

Which assist in roll control?
Four outboard operate with the ailerons to assist in roll control

Which are used as speed brakes?
Three middle panels

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12
Q

Engine Start Sequence

FM 3.50.4 Normals

A

ENG MODE … IGN/START

verify bleed pressure
ENG MASTER … ON

Start valve opens
Bleed pressure in the green
N2 increases
Oil pressure increases
w/in 30 secs:
Ignition
Fuel flow
w/in 20 sec of fuel flow:
EGT increases
Prior to 34% N2 (48% NEO)
N1 increases
At 43% N2 (55% NEO)
start valve closes
ignition off
EGT peaks, then decreases

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13
Q

Which cargo compartment is heated and ventilated?

A

Aft Cargo Compartment

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14
Q

Are cargo compartments pressurized?

A

Yes, both aft and forward cargo compartments are pressurized

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15
Q

A320 Dimensions

Tail Height
Wing Span
Length
Wheel Span

A

Tail Height: 38’ 7”
Wing Span: 111’ 10”
Length: 123’ 3”
Wheel Span: 24’ 11”

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16
Q

Minimum pavement width for 180° turn

A

75’ 2”

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17
Q

How long will Emergency Lighting System be powered when normal aircraft electrical power is lost (i.e. when Evac Checklist accomplished and engines shut down)?

A

At least 12 minutes

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18
Q

When do NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT and EXIT signs illuminate automatically, regardless of switch position?

A

When cabin altitude > 11,300 ft

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19
Q

Strobe Light AUTO position

A

Strobe light will flash whenever aircraft is in flight

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20
Q

In ARM position, when do EMER EXIT LT lights come on?

A

Proximity emergency escape path marking system and exit signs come on when:
1. Normal electrical aircraft power is lost
or
2. DC SHED ESS BUS is lost

Overhead emergency lights, exit signs and proximity system come on when:
1. DC SHED ESS BUS fails
or
2. AC BUS 1 fails

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21
Q

What does Arming the door do?

A

Connects slide girt bar to floor brackets on both sides of the door

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22
Q

How many over wing emergency exits does 319/320 have over each wing?

A

319 - 1 over each wing
320 - 2 over each wing

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23
Q

Where is the crew HP oxygen cylinder located?

A

In the avionics compartment

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24
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

What does the pneumatic system supply air for?

A
  1. Air conditioning
  2. Engine Starting
  3. Wing anti-icing
  4. Water system pressurization
  5. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
  6. Cargo heating
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25
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Sources of high pressure bleed air

A
  1. Engine bleed
  2. APU bleed
  3. HP ground connection
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26
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

How many Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) are there?

Normal configuration?

If one fails?

A

2

Normal configuration
- BMC 1 controls left side and BMC 2 controls right side

If one fails?
- The other BMC takes over most of the monitoring functions of the failed one

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27
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

When does the high pressure (HP) valve open?

A

When intermediate stage (IP) pressure, which normally supplies air to the Pneumatic system, is low, due to low pressure stage for example

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28
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Where are the bleed air leak detection loops located?

Which location has a double leak detection loop?

A
  1. Fuselage
  2. Pylons
  3. Wings (double leak detection loops)
  4. APU Duct
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29
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Which Pack controller regulates the cockpit temperature?

Two cabin zone temperatures?

A

Cockpit - Pack Controller 1
Two Cabin Zones - Pack Controller 2

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30
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Where are the Packs located?

A

Just forward of the MLG in the unpressurized belly area

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31
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

RAM AIR - when is the emergency ram air inlet used?

A

Used to supply cabin with external air for smoke removal or when both PACKs fail

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32
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

PACK FLOW - regardless of switch position, when will system deliver HI flow?

A
  1. Single Pack operation
  2. When APU supplying bleed air
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33
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

What does selecting ENG BLEED pushbutton to OFF do?

A
  1. Engine bleed valve closes
  2. HP valve (if open) closes
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34
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

ENG BLEED pb FAULT

A
  1. Bleed overpressure
  2. Bleed overheat
  3. Wing or pylon pneumatic leak
  4. Engine bleed valve not closed:
    - During engine start
    - APU bleed pb switch ON

** FAULT light remains illuminated with pb ON even if condition returns to within limits

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35
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

APU BLEED pb

ON
OFF
FAULT

A

ON
- APU valve opens if APU speed > 95%

OFF
- APU bleed valve closes

FAULT
- APU bleed leak detected (ECAM caution appears)
(FAULT lt remains when condition returns to normal if APU BLEED still ON)

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36
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

X BLEED AUTO logic

A

APU BLEED ON
1. APU bleed valve open
2. crossfeed valve open
3. Both engine bleed valves close

APU BLEED OFF
1. APU bleed valve close
2. crossfeed valve close
3. Both engine bleed valves open (if engines running and ENG BLEED pb ON)

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37
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Avionics Equiptment Ventilation System (AEVS)

Open-circuit configuration
Closed-circuit configuration
Intermediate configuration

A

Open- circuit configuration
Conditions:
- On ground, skin temp > approx. 12°C

Operation
- Inlet and Extract valves open
- Outside air drawn in by blower fan and hot air discharged overboard by extract fan

Closed-circuit configuration
Conditions:
- On ground, when skin temp < approx. 12°C
- Thrust levers set to takeoff power
- Aircraft is in flight

Operation:
- Extracted avionics air cooled by skin heat exchanger, then recirculated through the Avionics Ventilation System
- Skin air inlet and extract valves closed

Intermediate configuration
Conditions
- In flight, skin temp > 35°C

Operation:
- Similar to closed-circuit config, except that, due to high skin temp, some of extracted air is discharged overboard in the skin air extract valve

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38
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Avionics Smoke Configuration

Condition
Operation

A

Condition:
- Avionics smoke detector detects smoke, both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb switches indicate FAULT

Operation
- Select BLOWER and EXTRACT pb switches to OVRD
- Blower fan stops, extract fan continues to run
- Air conditioning inlet valve opens, allowing air-conditioned air into the system
- All other valves close except small flap in skin air extract valve, allowing contaminated air to be exhausted overboard

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39
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

Zone temperature selectors
COLD position approx. temp setting
12 o’clock position approx. temp setting
HOT position approx. temp setting

A

COLD - ~ 64°F
12 o’clock - - ~ 76°F
HOT - ~ 86°F

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40
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

PACK FLOW

LO
NORM
HI

When is HI automatically selected regardless of switch position

A

LO - 80% flow for light pax loads
NORM - 100% flow
HI - 120% flow
- automatically selected regardless of switch position when
1. Only APU bleed supply
2. One pack operation

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41
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

When at cruise, what cabin altitude is maintained?

A

Higher of:
1. Max cabin differential of 8.06 psi or
2. landing field elevation

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42
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

What does pushing the DITCHING pb do?

When should you use caution when pressing this pb on the ground?

A

Closes:
1. Outflow valve (when pressurization in automatic mode)
2. Avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves
3. emergency ram air inlet
4. pack flow control valves

Use caution on ground - it pb pressed while low pressure ground cart connected and all doors closed, differential pressure will build up

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43
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

How do you switch from one CPC (cabin pressure controller)?

A

Select MODE SEL to MAN for at least 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

Verify results on CAB PRESS System page (SYS 1 vs SYS 2 displays)

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44
Q

AIR SYSTEMS

What does moving MAN V/S CTL toggle sw to UP position do?

Moving it to DN position?

A

UP
- Moves outflow valve toward opened position
- Causes cabin altitude to climb

DN
- Moves outflow valve toward closed position
- Causes cabin altitude to descend

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45
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

What slats are heated with wing anti-ice on?

A

Outboard 3 slats

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46
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

What happens when ENG ANTI ICE pb is selected ON?

A
  1. Engine anti-ice valve opens
  2. ENG A.ICE ECAM
  3. Continuous ignition
  4. EPR limit automatically reduced
  5. If necessary, idle EPR increased to provide necessary pressure
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47
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

Engine anti-ice valve position
1. If bleed air not available
2. If electric power fails

A
  1. If bleed air not available
    - closes automatically
  2. If electric power fails
    - opens automatically
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48
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

When does the wing anti-ice valve close automatically?

A
  1. Bleed leak detected
  2. Electrical power supply fails
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49
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

With PROBE/WINDOW HEAT in AUTO, when does window heat operate?

A

ON automatically when:
1. On ground, with one engine running
2. In Flight

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50
Q

ANTI-ICE AND RAIN

Max speed for windshield wiper usage

A

230 kts

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51
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What does EXPED pb do -

  1. when FCU set to higher altitude?
  2. when FCU set to lower altitude?
A
  1. when FCU set to higher altitude?
    - Climb at Green Dot
    (best Lift-to-Drag ratio speed)
  2. when FCU set to lower altitude?
    - 340kts/.80M
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52
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When does pitch bar on PFD display?

When does roll bar on PFD display?

A

Pitch bar - when takeoff thrust applied

Roll bar - soon after liftoff

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53
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What happens to the AP if both FDs are turned off?

A

AP remains engaged in the active modes

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54
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What happens to A/THR if both FDs turned off with AP off?

A

A/THR reverts to or remains in SPEED mode

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55
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What is the indication that the glideslope/localizer signal is lost during an approach?

A

Pitch and/or roll bards will flash continuously

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56
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When can both AP be engaged?

What happens in the event of a go around if both AP are engaged?

A

After APPR pb selected

In a go around, AP2 automatically disengages and AP1 will remain engaged

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57
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When disconnecting the AP usin gthe AP disconnect pb, what does pressing the pb a second time do?

A

Immediately extinguishes all aural and visual warnings

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58
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

On takeoff, what indicated the A/THR is armed?

A

Blue A/THR on FMA

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59
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When Autoland performed, the A/THR automatically sets idle thrust at approximately 40ft RA. Why does pilot still need to move TL to IDLE?

A

Moving TL to IDLE

  1. to confirm thrust reduction
  2. allows A/THR to disarm on touchdown
  3. prepares for selection of reverse thrust
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60
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

Three ways to disconnect A/THR?

What do you need to be careful of when pressing A/THR instinctive disconnect on TLs?

A
  1. Setting both TLs to IDLE
  2. Press A/THR instinctive disconnect on TLs
    - If pressed for more than 15 sec, the A/THR system is disconnected for remainder of flight
  3. Press A/THR pb on FCU
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61
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

How do you disconnect A/THR system for remainder of flight?

A

Press A/THR instinctive disconnect pb on TLs for more than 15 sec

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62
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What happens when you disconnect A/THR using A/THR pb on FCU?

A

It simulates a failure of A/THR

  1. AUTO FLT A/THR OFF ECAM displays
  2. THR LK message displays on FMA
    - thrust is locked in current setting until pilot takes manual control and moves them out of CLB detent
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63
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When does managed NAV engage, if armed on the ground before takeoff?

If NAV not engaged before takeoff, what displays instead?

A

30 ft RA

RWY TRK displays if NAV not armed prior to takeoff
- Guides aircraft along departure track the aircraft was flying at 30ft RA after lift-off

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64
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What may cause the aircraft to deviate from managed vertical profile?

A
  1. unexpected wind conditions
  2. if anti-ice is turned on (if idle thrust is increased)
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65
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When does TOO STEEP PATH message on MCDU display?

A

If the desecent segment between two constraints is predicted to be impossible to satisfy with one-half speed brakes extended

All predictions between the two points where the message displays will not be shown

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66
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What does SRS (Speed Reference System) do?

When does it engage?

When does it disengage?

What is the maximum pitch / minimum vertical speed commanded?

A

Controls aircraft pitch after takeoff to maintain:
- V2 + 10 (both engines operating)
- Greater of V2 or current speed (engine failure)

Engages automatically when TLs set to takeoff position (either TOGA or FLEX)

Disengages when:
- another vertical mode engages
- aircraft reaches acceleration altitude or FCU altitude, whichever is lower

Max pitch limited to 18° and minimum V/S is 120ft/min

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67
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When does land mode engage?

What does this indicate?

How can LAND mode be disengaged?

A

400 ft RA FMA indicates LAND

Localizer and Glideslope are locked
- Any selection on FCU has no effect

Can only be disengaged by engaging go-around mode

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68
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When does FD FINAL APP mode and AP remain functional until?

A

Until the coded Missed Approach Point

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69
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What is the purpose of mini GS

A

Takes advantage of aircraft inertia to ensure the aircraft is flown at a safe margin above the stall in gusty or potential shear conditions. Target speed may be increased to maintain a minimum groundspeed

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70
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

How is mini GS determined?

A

FMGC determine a minimum groundspeed based on VAPP, minus the magnetic winds entered on the PERF APPR page

If the headwind is less than 10kts, the FMGC uses a default headwind of 10kts

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71
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

How is mini GS calculated?

What is the min / max of the calculated target speed?

A

With MCDU entered headwind component > 10kts:

Magenta Target Speed = VAPP + (Actual HW Comp - MCDU entered HW component)

Magenta Target Speed can never be less than VAPP with an upper limit of VMAX

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72
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

When is GA mode engaged?

What FMAs displays?

A

When TLs set to TOGA and:

  1. Flaps set to at least 1
  2. Aircraft in flight or on the ground less than 30 sec

FMAS: SRS GA TRK

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73
Q

AUTOFLIGHT

What speed and lateral track does SRS guidance in GA mode

When is SRS mode disengaged?

When does GA TRK mode disengage?

A

Maintains higher of VAPP or speed at time of GA engagement

GA TRK follows track the aircraft had at time of engagement

SRS disengages when:
- Another vertical mode engages
- At GA/ACCEL alt
- MA altitude captured

GA TRK mode disengages when
- another lateral mode engaged

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74
Q

COMMUNICATIONS

What does the CVR record?

A

Records last 2 hours of:
1. All crew member conversations
2. All cockpit aural warnings
3. All radio communications
4. PAs if selected ON on 3rd ACP

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75
Q

COMMUNICATIONS

With the GND CTRL switch in the AUTO position, when is the CVR energized?

When is it denergized?

A

Energized:
1. Only during the first 5 minutes after electrical power has been supplied to the aircraft
2. When at least one engine is running
3. All times during flight

De-energized 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down

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76
Q

COMMUNICATIONS

CVR ERASE erases the tape completely under what conditions?

A

Pressing the button for 2 seconds when:
- A/C on ground
- Park brake set

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77
Q

ELECTRICAL

Priority Order for Electrical Power Sources

A
  1. Engine generators
  2. External power
  3. APU generator
  4. Emergency generator
  5. DC batteries
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78
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the significance of green CBs

A

They are monitored by the ECAM and C/B TRIPPED warning appears if pulled/tripped for more than 1 min

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79
Q

ELECTRICAL

With GALLEY pb in AUTO (lights out), when are Main/Secondary galleys supplied and when are Main galleys shed?

A

Main and secondary galleys are supplied when:
- Engine generators 1 + 2 operating
- APU GEN supplying power
- EXT PWR supplying power

Main galleys shed when:
- Only one engine generator powering system

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80
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is MAINT BUS switch used for?

A

Used to power only the Electrical Systems used for ground servicing, without powering the entire aircraft Electrical System

With the EXT PWR switch indicating AVAIL, the MAINT BUS switch when selected ON, will be magnetically held in the ON position, until ground power is removed

In the ON position, only the AC and DC GND / FLT BUSSES have power, which will supply:
- cabin, cargo hold, and landing gear compartment lights
- cockpit flood lights
- vacuum sockets
- refueling panel
- ground call
- navigation lights

81
Q

ELECTRICAL

IDG pb - should not be held longer than _____, to prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism

A

3 sec

Also, do not press pb when engine is not running, or is windmilling, as the IDG will be damaged when the engine is started

82
Q

ELECTRICAL

When will the IDG oil temp on the ELEC page turn amber?

A

If the IDG outlet oil is above 185°C

83
Q

ELECTRICAL

What BUS normally powers AC ESS BUS?

What happens in the event of a failure of AC BUS 1?

How can you manually supply AC ESS BUS from AC BUS 2?

A

What BUS normally powers AC ESS BUS?
- AC BUS 1

What happens in the event of a failure of AC BUS 1?
- AC BUS 2 will automatically supply AC ESS BUS

How can you manually supply AC ESS BUS from AC BUS 2?
- By manually selected AC ESS FEED pb

84
Q

ELECTRICAL

What supplies power for the AC ESS SHED BUS?

When does this BUS shed automatically?

A

What supplies power for the AC ESS SHED BUS?
- AC ESS BUS

When does this BUS shed automatically?
- Shed automatically if only battery power if available, in order to reduce load on the electrical system

85
Q

ELECTRICAL

When does the RAT automatically extend?

A
  1. Loss of both AC BUS 1 + 2
  2. Above 100 kts
86
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the minimum airspeed required to provide sufficient blue hydraulic pressure to operate the emergency generator?

A

140 knots

87
Q

ELECTRICAL

What happens when RAT stalls, or when on the ground with speed < 100 knots?

A

** Aircraft will be on battery power only **

The emergency generator will no longer provide electrical power and the emerg electr syst will transfer to batteries and static inverter

88
Q

ELECTRICAL

When do the batteries power the Emergency Generation Network?

A
  1. During RAT extension (approx. 8 sec)
  2. After landing
89
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the difference between pressing the MAN ON guarded pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel and the RAT MAN ON guarded pb on the HYD panel?

A

Pressing HYD RAT MAN ON will not energize the EMER GEN (it is dedicated to only the Blue hydraulic system)

90
Q

ELECTRICAL

What are the main steps in the avionics smoke procedure?

A
  1. GEN 1 LINE pb switch is selected OFF - opens GEN 1 line contactor but GEN 1 continues to run and supplies one fuel pump in each wing tank
  2. Extend the RAT to connect the EMER GEN
  3. Once EMER GEN available, select APU GEN and GEN 2 OFF
    - this sheds about 75% of all electrical equipment, in an attempt to isolate the smoke source
91
Q

ELECTRICAL

How can you tell RAT is extended from the flight deck?

How can you tell the emergency generator is running?

A

RAT OUT on ECAM memo section

EMER GEN on ECAM memo section

92
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the battery endurance in flight?

FM 8.60.10.2

A

Approx. 22 minutes

93
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What type of engines on A320

How much thrust

A

IAE V2527-A5
- high bypass turbofan
- 26,500 lbs thrust

94
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What type of engines on A320

How much thrust

A

IAE V2522-A5
- high bypass turbofan
- 22,000 lbs thrust

95
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Which is the low-speed rotor - N1 or N2?

What stages are there?

A

N1
- Single stage front fan
- 4 stage LP compressor - supercharges inner portion of airflow
- 5 stage LP turbine

96
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Which is the low-speed rotor - N1 or N2?

What stages are there?

A

N2
- 10 stage HP compressor driven by 2 stage HP turbine
- Compression is progressive as air passes through successive stages of the compressor blades

97
Q

ENGINES AND APU

How many fuel nozzles in the combustion chamber?
Igniters?

A

20 fuel nozzles
2 ignitors

98
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Where is accessory gearbox located?

A

Below the fan case

99
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What drives the accessory gearbox?

A

N2 rotor through a system of gears and shafts

100
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What does the accessory gearbox provide mechanical power to?

A

SHIFF
1. Starter
2. Hydraulic pump
3. IDG
4. Fuel pump
5. FADEC Generator

101
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What does the drain mast located at the bottom of the engine cowling do?

A

Discharges waste fluid and vapors from areas around the engine that may leak.
- some fluids are discharged immediately, while others are contained in a holding tank and discharged in flight

102
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What are the two aspects that the FADEC primarily controls?

A
  1. Manages engine thrust
  2. Controls start sequence
103
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What does the APU MASTER SW pb do?

What does the APU START pb do?

A

APU MASTER SW
1. Control electrical power supply for APU operation
2. Fault protection
3. Controls start and shutdown sequences

APU START
1. Initiates APU start procedure

104
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Time limit for Takeoff and Go Around thrust

A

5 min

(Single Engine - 10 min)

105
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Max EGT Starting

A

635°C

106
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Max EGT Takeoff and Go Around

A

635°C

107
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Max EGT MCT

A

610°C

108
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Max continuous oil temp

A

155°C

109
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Max continuous oil temp (15 min max)

A

156°C - 165°C

110
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Minimum starting oil temp

A

-40°C

111
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Minimum oil temp prior to exceeding idle RPM

A

-10°C

112
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Minimum oil temp prior to takeoff

A

50°C

113
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Minimum oil pressure

A

60 psi

114
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Minimum oil quantity before start
Minimum oil quantity at idle RPM

A

17 qts
12 qts

115
Q

ENGINES AND APU

For timing purposes, what is considered a start attempt?

A

From start valve opening until start valve closing

116
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Do not engage the starter when N2 is greater than _ _ on the ground and _ _in flight

A

10% on the ground
18% in flight

117
Q

ENGINES AND APU

On takeoff, when is A/THR __armed__?

A

Armed when:
1. Thrust levers set to FLEX or TOGA
2. At least on FD is engaged
(green light illuminates on A/THR pb and blue “A/THR” on FMA)

Becomes active when:
1. TLs set to CL detent (with both engines operating) or MCT detent (one engine op)
(A/THR message on FMA turns white)

118
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What is EPR a function of?

A

Lower Pressure Turbine Exhaust Pressure (P5) over the Engine Inlet Pressure (P2)

119
Q

ENGINES AND APU

If loss of sensed or computed EPR, what does FADEC revert to?

FADEC now determines N1 power setting based on ________________

What is lost in this mode?

A

Reverts to N1 rated mode

Determines N1 power setting based on:
1. TLA
2. Altitude and
3. Engine inlet total temp (T2)

Loss of:
1. A/THR control
2. Alpha Floor Protection

120
Q

ENGINES AND APU

When does FADEC revert to unrated N1 Mode?

FADEC now determines N1 power setting based on ________________

What is lost in this mode?

A

Loss of computed EPR due to loss of T2 (engine inlet total air temperature) or ambient pressure engine sensor

Determines N1 power setting based on:
1. TLA only

Loss of:
1. A/THR control
2. Alpha Floor Protection
(same as N1 rated mode)

121
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What happens if A/THR insinctive disconnect pushbuttons are held for more than 15 seconds?

A

Autothrust system is disconnected for remainder of flight

122
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What happens when autothrust is disconnected using the A/THR pb on FCU?

A
  1. Amber “THR LK” message flashes on FMA
  2. Thrust locked at current EPR until thrust levers moved our of CL detent
123
Q

ENGINES AND APU

FADEC provides for three idle mode schedules - modulated IDLE, Approach IDLE, Reverse IDLE

When is modulated IDLE selected?

A
  1. In flight when the flaps are retracted
  2. On the ground (when reverse not selected)

Varies idle depending on bleed system demands and ambient temperatures

124
Q

ENGINES AND APU

FADEC provides for three idle mode schedules - modulated IDLE, Approach IDLE, Reverse IDLE

When is Approach IDLE selected?

What is the benefit of Approach IDLE?

A

Selected in flight when flaps are extended

  • regulated according to altitude, regardless of bleed system demand

Benefit:
- Allows for faster engine spool up should a go-around be necessary

125
Q

ENGINES AND APU

FADEC provides for three idle mode schedules - modulated IDLE, Approach IDLE, Reverse IDLE

When is Reverse IDLE selected?

What is difference between Reverse and Forward IDLE?

A

When TL in REV IDLE position
- provides slightly higher than forward idle thrust

126
Q

ENGINES AND APU

How is FADEC powered?

  1. When aircraft first powered up
  2. During engine start
A
  1. Supplied by aircraft system power for 5 min., performs self test, and then shuts down
  2. During engine start:
    - When start switch is selected to Ignition, FADEC is powered by aircraft electrical system
    - When N2 reaches 15%, FADEC is supplied directly by its own dedicated electrical generator mounted on accessory gearbox
127
Q

ENGINES AND APU

During automatic start, when is ignition come on? When does it cut off?

How many igniters fire during automatic start?

A

ON - N2 = 16%
OFF - N2 = 43%

1 starter (alternates each start)

128
Q

ENGINES AND APU

During manual start, when do both igniters fire? When do they stop firing?

A

On - When Master Switch ON
OFF - N2 = 43%

129
Q

ENGINES AND APU

When is continuous ignition automatically selected?

A

When engine is running and any of following occur:
1. ENG ANTI ICE pb switch is selected ON
2. Approach idle selected
3. Engine Master sw is cycled ON to OFF then back to ON
4. Max takeoff thrust selected (EPR or Rated N1 mode)
5. FLEX take-off thrust is selected (EPR mode)
6. EIU data has failed (Ignition and/or Bleed Config Data)
7. In flight unscheduled sub idle or surge

130
Q

ENGINES AND APU

During automatic engine start, below what N2 will FADEC automatically abort the start?

A

N2 below 50%

Above 50% N2, the FADEC no longer monitors start parameters and will not abort the start. Start fault messages are generated to the ECAM

131
Q

ENGINES AND APU

During an inflight engine start, will the FADEC automatically abort a non-normal start?

A

No

A fault warning is generated, but crew must move the master switch to OFF

132
Q

ENGINES AND APU

How does a crew interrupt a manual start before MASTER sw is placed ON?

A

Before MASTER sw is placed on:
1. MAN START pb to OFF

After MASTER sw is placed on:
1. MAN START pb to OFF
2. MASTER SW to OFF

133
Q

ENGINES AND APU

What is the purpose of dry cranking?

A

Allows crew to ventilate the engine to remove fuel vapors after an unsuccessful start attemp

134
Q

ENGINES AND APU

How do you start dry cranking?

How do you stop?

A

To start dry cranking:
1. ENG MODE SEL to CRANK
2. MAN START pb to ON

To stop dry cranking:
1. MAN START pb to OFF

135
Q

ENGINES AND APU

From which side is fuel usually supplied from for the APU?

A

Left side

136
Q

ENGINES AND APU

When is APU fuel supply shut off (4)?

A

Shut off if:
1. APU MASTER pb switch OFF
2. APU FIRE pb is pushed
3. APU SHUT OFF pb on interphone panel is pushed
4. Automatic shutdown caused by a fault

137
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Which bleed system has priority - APU or engine?

A

APU

138
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Which bleed valves open/close when APU BLEED sw is pressed ON?

A
  1. Opens APU bleed valve
  2. Opens crossbleed valve
  3. Closes engine bleed valves
139
Q

ENGINES AND APU

Does the APU ECAM page automatically display if APU started using batteries?

A

No

140
Q

ENGINES AND APU

How long after AVAIL light illuminates will the APU generator come on line?

A

10 seconds

141
Q

ENGINES AND APU

If external power is not available, why do you need to wait 2 minutes after APU AVAIL light extinguishes before turning off the batteries?

A

Allows closure of APU flap
- Turning off batteries before the flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight

142
Q

ENGINES AND APU

When does “LOW OIL LEVEL” on APU page display?

For how long after is APU operation still allowed?

A

While aircraft is on the ground and when APU is not running

APU operation is allowed for further 10 hours

143
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

How many fire detection loops are there?

In normal operation, how many loops have to detect a fire / overheat condition to generate a fire warning?

How is a fire warning triggered if one loop is inoperative?

A

Two - Loop A and B

Two - this prevents spurious or false fire warnings

If one loop is inop, other loop operates independently and will generate fire warning when remaining loop detects fire / overheat

144
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What happens if a fault is detected within both loops within a 5 sec period?

A

Fire warning is generated
(in case where both loops simultaneously burned through)

145
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What is the difference between the A320 and A319 Fire Suppression System

A

A320 equipped with Dual Bottle Fire Suppression System (b/c capable of being ETOPS certified) and A319 equipped with Single Bottle Fire Suppression System

146
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

The Avionics Smoke Detection System is designed as a secondary Smoke Detection System used to confirm there is smoke in the avionics compartment. What is the primary system?

A

The pilot’s own sense of smell

147
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What does releasing the ENG FIRE pb do?
(7 items)

A

Sound - Fuel - Bleed - Hydraulics - Fire - FADEC - Generator

    1. Silences aural warning
  2. Closes LP fuel shutoff valve
  3. Closes engine bleed and pack flow valves
  4. De-energizes generator
  5. Closes green/yellow hydraulic shutoff valve
  6. Arms fire extinguisher squips and lluminates SQUIB lights
  7. Cuts off the FADEC power supply, closing the IDG fuel return valve
148
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

When APU fire detected on the ground, will APU auto shutdown?

A

Yes

  • 3 sec after fire detected
  • APU extinguishing bottle auto discharged
  • On external panel, APU FIRE light illuminates and horn sounds (pressing guarded APU FIRE SHUT OFF pb silences horn)
149
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

When APU fire detected in flight, will APU auto shutdown?

A

No - crew manually initiates shutdown sequence with APU FIRE pb

150
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What does releasing the APU FIRE pb do?
(7 items)

A
  1. Cancels aural warning
  2. APU shuts down
  3. Closes LP shut off valve
  4. De-energizes APU generator
  5. Closes APU bleed valve
  6. Closes crossbleed valve (if in AUTO mode)
  7. Arms fire extinguishing squib and illuminated SQUIB light
151
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What does pressing and holding the FIRE TEST pb do?
(4 items)

A
  1. Tests the electrical continuity of the firing circuitry
  2. tests the LP warning of the fire extinguisher bottle
  3. Checks the condition of the fire detection loops A and B
  4. Checks the integrity of the FDU (Fire Dection Unit)
152
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

When smoke is detected in lavatory, SDCU transmits signals to both the ____ and to the ____

A

CIDS (Centralized Intercommunication Data System), ECAM

153
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What are cockpit indications of lavatory smoke detected?

A
  1. MASTER WARN
  2. CRC
  3. smoke warning in upper ECAM
  • portable fire extingushing equiptment must be used to extinguish fire
154
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

Does the lavatory waste bin halon extinguisher bottle need electrical power to operate?

A

No

Automatically discharges halon gas through one or both heat activated nozzles whenever the temperature rises sufficiently to melt the nozzle tipsf

155
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

After discharging AGENT 1 into the fwd / aft cargo compartment, when will DISCH 1 display?

When does DISCH AGENT 2 appear?

Does the 319 have a second fire bottle?

A

Within 60 seconds

60 minutes after bottle one discharged
- required in order to maintain required extinguishant concentration if the flight duration exceeds 60 min
- Bottle 2 is discharged within approximately 90 min controlled by flow metering system, to ensure sufficient agent concentration for 205 min

No - 319 only has one fire bottle which can be discharged into either the forward or aft cargo compartments

156
Q

FIRE PROTECTION

What does pressing the TEST button on Cargo Smoke System panel do?

What are the cockpit indications when TEST button pressed for at least 3 sec?

A

Simulates smoke and bottle discharge conditions

Cockpit indications:
1. FWD and AFT SMOKE and DISCH lights illuminate
2. MASTER WARN illuminates
3. CRC
4. CARGO SMOKE warning displayed on ECAM

157
Q

HYDRAULICS

In case of an emergency, a pump driven by the RAT will pressurize the Blue System to a pressure of ___________

A

2,500 psi

158
Q

HYDRAULICS

When the yellow electric pump is activated by ground handling for cargo door operation, all other Yellow System functions are inhibited except __________________

A

alternate braking

159
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the PTU operate automatically?

A

When the pressure difference between the Green and Yellow Systems is greater than 500 psi.

159
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the RAT automatically deploy

A

Loss of AC Bus 1 and 2
Airspeed greater than 140kts

160
Q

HYDRAULICS

In the AUTO position, when will the blue electric pump operate?

On the Ground
In the Air

A

On the Ground:
With one engine running and AC power available

In Flight:
With AC power available, the blue electric pump will operate if the engines are running or shutdown

161
Q

HYDRAULICS

When will a hydraulic pump FAULT light remain illuminated, even when switch is selected OFF?

A

Reservoir or pump (Blue system), for as long as the condition exists

162
Q

HYDRAULICS

When does the Yellow Electric Pump automatically come on, regardless of if its in the OFF (lights out) position?

A

When a cargo door lever is set to OPEN or CLOSE

163
Q

HYDRAULIC

When is the PTU inhibited (5)?

A
  1. PTU switch is OFF
  2. Cargo doors being operated (and continues for approx 40 seconds after cargo door op)
  3. PARK BRK is ON and only one ENG MASTER sw is ON
  4. NWS disconnect pin installed and only one ENG MASTER switch on
  5. During first engine start (automatically tested during second engine start)
164
Q

LANDING GEAR

During a rejected takeoff, when are the MAX autobrakes applied?

A

Greater than 72 kts and thrust levers selected to IDLE
- ground spoilers will also automatically deploy

165
Q

LANDING GEAR

When does the DECEL light illuminate on the AUTO/BRK panel?

A

when the actual aircraft deceleration rate is at least 80 % of the programmed rate

166
Q

LANDING GEAR

Above what speed is NWS from the rudder pedals not available?

A

> 130 kts

167
Q

LANDING GEAR

What is indicated on the BRAKES and ACCU/PRESS indicator?

A
  1. Pressure in the yellow systems accumulators
  2. Indicates when yellow pressure is delivered to the Brake System
168
Q

LANDING GEAR

With the PARK BRK ON, do not set EPR above ____ on both engines

A

1.18

169
Q

LANDING GEAR

During brake check, what do you want to check on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESS indicator?

A

Yellow brake pressure should be zero (to ensure that green hydraulic system has taken over)

170
Q

LANDING GEAR

Recommended taxi speed for straight ahead

For turns greater than 45°

A

Recommended taxi speed for straight ahead: 25 kts

For turns greater than 45°: 10 kts

171
Q

Normally, when should you apply pressure to rudder pedals to disengage autobrakes on landing

A

Before 50 kts

172
Q

LANDING GEAR

What happens when A/SKID NOSE WHEEL is switched to OFF?

A
  1. Green system is shut off
  2. Yellow system supplies brakes
  3. NWS is deactivated
173
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

Which two flight controls are mechanically linked to the cockpit controls, to provide means of controlling the aircraft should a temporary, complete loss of electrical power occur?

A
  1. Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer, or THS
  2. rudder (in addition to electrical control)
174
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

In what flap configuration will speed brakes not extend, or retract if extended?

A

Flaps FULL

175
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

When are speed brakes inhibited (6)?

A
  1. SEC 1 + 3 faults
  2. Elevator fault (spoilers 3 + 4)
  3. Alpha floor active
  4. AOA prot active
  5. Thrust > MCT
  6. Flaps FULL
176
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What do the 3 ELACs controls?

A

Elevator, stabilizer and ailerons

177
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What do 3 SECs normally control?
Standby control?

A

Normal: Spoiler control
Standby: elevator and stabilizer

178
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What do the two FACs control?

A

electrical rudder control

179
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

During which flight conditions should speed brakes not be extended more than half to prevent activation of the high angle of attack protection?

A

High altitude and slow speeds (above FL310 and less than Mach .75

180
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

During a rejected takeoff, when will the ground spoilers deploy if armed?

When will they deploy if not armed?

A

If armed:
>72kts and both TLs selected to IDLE

Not armed:
one thrust lever is selected to reverse and the other at idle.

181
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

On landing, when will the ground spoilers deploy if armed?

When will they deploy if not armed?

A

Armed:
- both main Landing Gear touch down, and the thrust levers are set to idle

Not armed:
- both main gear have touched down, when at least one engine is selected to reverse and the other is at idle

182
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

On landing, when will ground spoilers partially deploy

A

ground spoilers will partially extend when reverse is selected on at least one engine, and only one main Landing Gear strut is compressed

For example, in a crosswind landing, if the upwind gear touches down first, and reverse is selected, the ground spoilers will partially extend to ease the other Landing Gear onto the runway. Subsequently, full ground spoiler extension will occur.

183
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

After takeoff, with Config 1 + F, when will the flaps automatically retract?

A

210 kts, to prevent exceeding max flap extension speed of 215kts
- slats remain extended

184
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What is the purpose of Alpha Lock?

A

Prevents slat retraction (from position 1 to 0) at high AOAs and slow speeds, to guard against stalls

185
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

Up to what bank angle is automatic pitch trim active (pilot does not have to hold back pressure)?

What is the maximum bank angle in normal law?

If the sidesick is released, what bank angle will aircraft return to and maintain?

A

33°

67°
33° (unless high speed prot is active, then returns to wings level)

186
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

When is the THS automatically reset to 0°?

A

5 sec after touchdown

187
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

In normal law, load factor is limited to +____g’s to -____g’s with the flaps retracted

and

+____g’s to -____g’s with the flaps

A

Flaps retracted:
+2.5g’s to -1g’s

Flaps extended:
+2g’s to 0g’s

188
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

When the A320 reaches an Angle Of Attack defined as alpha protection or alpha prot, the side stick, rather than demanding a load factor, switches to a protection mode in which it directly demands _________________

A

AOA

189
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What happens when aircraft reaches Alpha Floor (somewhere between Alpha Prot and Alpha Max)?

A

Autothrust will command TOGA thrust, regardless of thrust lever position

190
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

What is VLS? How is it depicted on the speed tape?

A

Lowest Selectable Speed that can be selected by the pilot with the speed select knob on the FCU, and represents 1.28 times V stall in the clean configuration
- top of solid black line on speed tape
- The autopilot pitch channel, or the Autothrust, whichever is controlling speed at the time, will not allow speed to fall below VLS, thus providing a buffer against reaching high Angles Of Attack when the autopilot and Autothrust are in use

191
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

When does the High Speed Protection System become active and what does it do?

It will not allow the aircraft to exceed it’s design limit speed of ___ kts/Mach ___

A

At VMO, Max Operating Speed in level flight + 6 kts, or MMO + .01 the autopilot disconnects, and a nose-up load factor demand is introduced to allow the aircraft to return to the normal speed envelope.

The High Speed Protection System will not allow the aircraft to exceed it’s design limit speed of 383 kts / Mach .89

192
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

When is the Low Energy Warning available?
When is Low Energy Warning tirggered?
What aural warning is heard?

A
  1. Between 2000-100ft, Flaps 2,3, FULL
  2. if the aircraft speed drops below a threshold where power must be increased to maintain the flight profile.
    1. “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”
193
Q

FLIGHT CONTROLS

In direct law, turn coordination is not available, therefore, yaw must be controlled with

A

rudder input

194
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS AND DISPLAYS

With the RCDR GND CTL in AUTO, when is the DFDR energized/de-energized?

A

on the ground:
- only during the first 5 min after electrical power has been supplied to the aircraft, or
- when at least one engine is running

in flight:
powered at all times

After landing:
- de-energized 5 min after the last engine is shutdown.

195
Q

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS AND DISPLAYS

How long does the standby attitude indicator remain available after total electrical failure?

A

5 min

196
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT AND NAVIGATION

What indication will you get if an FMGC fails and Single Mode has occurred

A

“OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” message on MCDU scratchpad
and
SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE message on ND (if both NDs not set to same range/mode)

197
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT AND NAVIGATION

What data does the IR section of each ADIRU supply to the various aircraft computers (GAAFHAAT)?

A

Groundspeed
Acceleration
Angular Rates
FPV
Heading
Attitude
Aircraft position
Track

198
Q

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT AND NAVIGATION

What data does the ADR section of each ADIRU supply to the various aircraft computers (BAMATO)?

A

Barometric
Airspeed
Mach
AOA
Temperature
Overspeed Warnings

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