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Ujklkuwrbe > CQ 24 > Flashcards

CQ 24 Flashcards

1
Q

When should you expect engine damage in case of engine failure (6)?

FM 2.70.16

A

SHOVER

  1. Stall - Repeated or uncontrollable engine stalls
  2. Hydraulics - Hydraulic system loss
  3. Oil - Indication that oil is leaking (quantity decreasing)
  4. Vibrations - Significant increase in aircraft vibrations and/or buffeting
  5. EGT - Rapid increase of EGT above redline
  6. Rotation- Significant mismatch of rotor speeds, or absence of rotation

FM 2.70.16

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2
Q

What conditions require contacting dispatch, prior to takeoff, when assigned a CDR (5)?

QRG.10.11

A

“TIME - TERRAIN - FUEL - DISTANCE”

    1. CCO- < 45 in between est. takeoff time and CCO
  2. Fuel - FOB not sufficient for new route
  3. Terrain- Terrain considerations along new route
  4. Time - 15 min or more increase in flight time
  5. Distance - New route > 100nm lateral offset from original route

QRG.10.11

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3
Q

1-2-3 Alternate Rule

FOM 4.30.2

A

Select at least one alternate for each destination in the Dispatch Release when:

For at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts to include conditional terms (TEMP, PROB) or any combination of them indicate the:

- ceiling < 2000 ft
- visibility < 3 miles

FOM 4.30.2

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4
Q

1-1-2 Alternate Rule
(Exemption 8653)

FOM 4.30.2

A

Select at least one alternate for each destination in the Dispatch Release when:

For at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts to include conditional terms (TEMP, PROB) or any combination of them indicate the:

- ceiling < 1000 ft
- visibility < 2 miles

Destination airport has a suitable and available CAT II or CAT III approach and aircraft CAT II/III capable

FOM 4.30.2

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5
Q

Are we allowed to go TA only in DEN?

A

No

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6
Q

Is there an airport where we can still select TA only?

Under what conditions

If during the approach you end up going around, what must you do?

A

Yes, SFO

VMC, Day or Night, and only for runways 28L and 28R.
Established on final approach course

Put your TCAS back into TA/RA mode.

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7
Q

Can you ever ignore a TCAS RA?

A

No, never. Always fly the RA.

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8
Q

He showed us a slide with the Mexico City DARAN 2A arrival. Your instructions are “Cleared direct ALMIS, descend and maintain 11,000ft.” ALMIS on the plate has a hard altitude of 14K.
Are you legal to descend to 11K?

A

No. Just like Canada, we need to comply with all published altitude restrictions even if they clear you lower. You need to cross ALMIS at 14K.

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9
Q

He went over the near disaster involving Rednose 4311 in Paris. What wrong altimeter setting would put you lower than you should be on an approach?

A

If your altimeter is set higher than actual. (If I remember right the phrase is “High to Low, look out below.”).

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10
Q

As Pilot Flying you should never touch the Box below what altitude?

A

18,000ft

FM 3.60.3

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11
Q

What Threats do you see on CQLOE flight?

Personal
Environmental
Technical

A

Personal
- checking event

Environmental
- TOW parameters showing planned wet with Anti-Ice On
- Deicing operations

Technical
- Manual engine start

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12
Q

If you deice at the gate, do you need to have the Preflight checklist completed first?

A

No

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13
Q

As the captain, can you prevent FFDO from bringing their gun?

A

No

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14
Q

At what temperature should you turn ON the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT while at the gate with the engines off and precipitation present?

When would you put it back to AUTO?

A

2°C or less

After the engines are started

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15
Q

He showed us a slide of FOM 7.20.5. There is 1/8 inch of wet snow on the runway. What Clutter level is that?

A

It’s not clutter. You can simply pull up WET runway numbers.

FOM 7.20.6

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16
Q

When are you required to perform 50% N1 engine runups?

How often?

A

When OAT is 10°C or below with
visible moisture present.

15 minute intervals (accomplish first run-up as soon as practical, but not more than 15 minutes after first engine start)

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17
Q

Does FG and/or BR with vis < 1 mile count as visible moisture?

A

Yes

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18
Q

What is N1 min % you would use for engine runups on the NEO?

A

60% N1 every 30 minutes

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19
Q

How often must you do the runups?

What are the intervals after that?

A

319/320: 15 minute intervals
NEO: 30 minute intervals

FM 5.10.5

20
Q

What precautions should you take during runups?

Will you do anything differently on takeoff?

A

If possible, accomplish run-ups while stopped. Use toe brakes to retain the most directional control.

Yes. A static run-up holding the brakes, just prior to takeoff roll

FM 5.10.6
FM 5.10.9

21
Q

How to accomplish static runup just prior to takeoff

A
  1. Run both engines up to 50% N1 (319/320) 60% N1 (NEO)
  2. Check all primary engine instruments for normal operation
  3. If engine indications are normal, release the brakes and initiate the takeoff

FM 5.10.9

22
Q

If freezing precipitation has occurred since the aircraft was determined to be clean what must you do?

A

Nose Check

FM 7.30.5

23
Q

What are the 3 situations where a Wing Check is required?

A
  1. Nose check was inconclusive
  2. Holdover time will be exceeded prior to takeoff
  3. Holdover times are uncertain due to changing conditions

FOM 7.30.5

24
Q

How close to the takeoff roll must the wing check be accomplished?

A

within 5 minutes

FOM 7.30.6

25
Q

After being deiced/anti-iced, why do we delay lowering the flaps to the takeoff config?

A

To prevent fluid runoff from the leading and trailing edge devices.

26
Q

If you configure flaps immediately after deicing/anti-icing what is the penalty to the holdover time that you must apply?

A

24% reduction in holdover allowance

FOM 7.30.16

27
Q

For anti-icing, why do they give you the start time of the procedure?

A

To calculate holdover time.

28
Q

When should you pull up Misc AH if this is what you are forced to use?

A

After de-icing is
complete.

29
Q

What is the first thing both pilots should do when an upset is suspected?

What is the next step?

Then what?

A

Recognize and confirm
the upset by cross-checking the instruments.

Either pilot yells “Upset!”

PF clicks Autopilot and Autothrust off.

30
Q

What does Medlink provide you with?

A

An emergency room physician who is specifically trained in treating passengers in an aircraft environment.

31
Q

If you have an ill or injured passenger, are you required to contact Medlink?

What are the exceptions?

A

Yes, but there are exceptions.

If it’s operationally prudent not to do so such as a busy workload associated
with Descent phase.

32
Q

When does the PTU automatically start working?

A

When the differential pump pressure between the Green and Yellow hydraulic systems is >500psi.

He showed us a slide of the Hydraulic page on the SD. Is the PTU currently running? No.
PTU line was amber and the failure showed Green Reservoir Low Level. Any Reservoir problem automatically inhibits the PTU.

33
Q

Does the PTU transfer fluid between systems G and Y?

So why does the ECAM tell us to turn OFF the PTU if it’s inhibited?

A

No

Because it could cause an overheat and therefore fail the other hydraulic system.

34
Q

When would the PTU FAULT light illuminate?

A
  1. Reservoir overheats.
  2. Reservoir low air pressure.
  3. Reservoir low fluid level.
35
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  1. Parking brake ON and only one ENG MASTER switch ON.
  2. NWS disconnect pin installed and only one ENG MASTER switch ON.
  3. Cargo doors are operating.
  4. PTU switch is OFF.
  5. When pressure in the failed hydraulic system is not recovered after 6 seconds. (Logic assumes a fluid loss in the failed system).
36
Q

Stablized Approach Criteria

A

Plan
Not later than 1500 AGL/RA:
- Landing gear down
- Airspeed no greater than 180 KIAS

Report
Not later than 100 feet:
- Final Landing configuration / Landing Checklist complete
- Airspeed within +15 or -5 KIAS of target speed
- On vertical and lateral profile and sustained vertical speed <= 1200 fpm
(At 1000 ft, PM will annouce deviations from configuration, speed, descent rate from plan)

Reject
At 500 feet:
- PF 500’ callout: “Stable” or “Unstable, going around”

(except for momentary airspeed and descent rate deviations, when at or below 500 feet and if any parameters are not met, the PM will direct a go-around by announcing “Go-Around” followed by out-of-tolerance parameter)

37
Q

What’s new with regard to the Stabilized Approach criteria?

So what is the first gate?

A

The first gate no longer includes the FAF.

Not later than 1500 ft AGL/RA:
Gear down.
Airspeed no greater than 180 kts.

38
Q

When are medium autobrakes required?

A

When braking action is reported as less than good

FM 6.40.3 (Short Field or Contaminated Runway Landing Procedure)

39
Q

When are full flaps required?

A

For short or contaminated runways

FM 6.40.3 (Short Field or Contaminated Runway Landing Procedure)

40
Q

The braking action for the runway you are landing on is 3/2/2. Which column are you going to use on your Landing Perf printout?

A

The Poor column. (Always use the worst reading).

QRG.10.42 Braking Action Table

41
Q

During the Parking checklist do you need to turn OFF the IRS mode selectors if you are doing a quick turn?

A

Yes.

Turn the IRSs to OFF unless:
1. (319/320) Slats/flaps are extended any amount
2. The IRSs failed the after landing check
3. An unreported MAINT (Class II) message is displayed

FM 3.220.5

42
Q

Are there any situations when you would leave the IRSs on?

What are those situations?

A

Yes.

  1. Slats/Flaps are still extended (Hot wx ops with temps at 30°C or greater).
  2. The IRSs failed the after landing check.
  3. A Class II MX Msg is displayed.
43
Q

What is the new min O2 in the flight deck for all aircraft now?

A

1250 psi. If below this number reference the table in the limits chapter page 1.30.2.

44
Q

What is the new min oil quantity before start?

A

14 quarts

45
Q

What do the three turns of gravity extension handle accomplish during the gravity gear extension procedure?

A
  1. Shuts off hydraulic pressure
  2. opens the doors (which remain open)
  3. Unlocks the gear

FM 8.140.10.5

46
Q

Indications of engine stall

A
  1. Varying degree of abnormal engine noises
  2. fluctuating performance parameters
  3. sluggish or no thrust response
  4. high EGT or rapid EGT rise when thrust lever advanced

FM 2.70.52

Ujklkuwrbe (15 decks)

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