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Ujklkuwrbe > Operational / Misc > Flashcards

Operational / Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Turbulence PA Commands
Unexpected Moderate + Turbulence
Impending Moderate + Turbulence
When Turbulence Threat Has Passed

A

Unexpected Moderate + Turbulence:
“Flight attendants, be seated immediately, be seated immediately”

Impending Moderate + Turbulence:
“Flight attendants, take your jumpseats”

When Turbulence Threat Has Passed:
“Flight attendents, check in”

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2
Q

When a Microburst Alert is issued or “shears of 30 knots” or greater reported for landing runway, what must crew do?

A
  • Flights must not takeoff or continue below 1000 feet AGL to a runway where ATC has reported a Microburst Alert
  • If below 1000 feet AGL on the approach, when ATC issues a Microburst Alert for the landing runway, a go around must be executed

Both Microburst and Windshear Alerts are runway specific

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3
Q

When should a Field Condition (FICON) Report be obtained?

How do you obtain one?

A

When braking action is < GOOD

ACARS > WEATHER REQUESTS > AIRPORT CONDITIONS

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4
Q

When may you accept LAHSO clearance?

A
  • LAHSO procedure provided in 10-7 page
  • LAHSO clearance given > 1000 AGL on final approach
  • No MEL items exist that affect stoppin capability
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5
Q

What to report when entering hold

A

Waypoint
Altitude
Time

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6
Q

The Before Push Checklist must be accomplished before ______

A

releasing the parking brake

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7
Q

Approximate thrust setting on approach fully configured

A

80% N2

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8
Q

Terrain Escape Maneuver

A

TAPS

In response to a GPWS Warning at night / IMC
(“TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP”, “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE, PULL UP”, “TOO LOW TERRAIN”)

“TOGA thrust, stow speed brakes”
TOGA thrust
A/P - OFF
Pitch - Full Aft (Alpha Max) & roll wings level
Speed brake - check stowed

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9
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria

A

1500’ or FAF (Plan Gate):
* Gear Down
* 180 Max

1000’ (Report Gate):
* Landing Checklist Complete
* On profile
* +15 to -5kts
* Max 1200 fpm

500’ (Reject Gate):
* except for momentary A/S or V/S deviations, requires a Go Around

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10
Q

On an approach, when must you be in SPD mode?

How can you get into SPD mode?

A

Below 1000’

4 methods:
1. Capture vertical path (G/S or FINAL APP)
2. Spin FCU altitude up thru current altitude
3. Select V/S or FPA
4. Turn off both FDs

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11
Q

Touchdown zone

A

First third of runway, not to exceed 3000 feet

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12
Q

By how much can you increase VAPP?

A

Up to VLS+15

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13
Q

AOA Technique for autoflight engagement

A

A/P - ON
Open Climb/Descent (pull the Alt knob)
A/THR - On, CL detent & check speed
- check FDs on and FMAs

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14
Q

What should PM be looking at on takeoff with “Check thrust” callout?

A
  1. Confirm FLX or TOGA FMA - if blank, callout “Go TOGA”
  2. Confirm thrust stabilizes at takeoff EPR
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15
Q

RTO Briefing

A

Prior to 100 kts, I’ll reject for any ECAM that we cannot resolve*

After 100kts and prior to V1, I’ll reject for:
* Eng failure - recognized by large rudder inputs, confirmed by EPR
* Any Master Caution or Master Warning
* Any Fire indication
* PWS
* Unsafe/unable to fly

If I reject:
* confirm reversers, brakes, spoilers
* call 80 knots
* notify tower
* and make a PA announcement “Remain seated, remain seated”

If not on fire, I’ll call for the QRC RTO checklist

  • ECAMS that can be resolved:
    ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET
    BRAKES HOT
    CONFIG PARK BRK ON
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16
Q

V1 Cut Briefing

A

If we lose an engine after V1:
* I’ll smoothly rotate to about 12°
* positive rate - gear up, center beta target, then AP ON
* At engine out acceleration altitude, I’ll pull for open climb, clean up on schedule and select MCT at green dot
* No turns below 1500’ AGL
* We will run the ECAM, reference the FM and plan to land back here

Brief 10-7 pages, if applicable

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17
Q

What are considered Critical System Controls that require concurrence of both pilots before being moved during a non-normal procedure?

A
  • All red (or red-guarded) controls and switched
  • IR selectors
  • ADR pushbuttons
  • Thrust lever
  • ENG MASTERs
  • IDG buttons
  • Fuel pumps

FM 0.30.2

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18
Q

ALPHA FLOOR recovery

A
  1. Match TL position -> TOGA
  2. Reduce AOA/bank angle
  3. At TOGA LK, disconnect A/THR using Instinctive Disconnect pb
  4. Re-automate as necessary (AOA)
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19
Q

First Officer Duties during Evacuation

A
  1. Proceed to cabin
  2. Ensure all usable forward and overwing exits are open and escape slides activated
  3. When all possible assistance has been given, leave the aircraft and assist in assembling passengers outside
  4. Assemble passengers a safe distance upwind, keeping in mind fire threat and approaching rescue vehicles. Provide first aid and comfort as necessary

FM 2.05.19

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20
Q

ISA Correction

A

2 degrees per 1000 ft

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21
Q

What is the OPT FL?

A

Displayed on the MCDU, it is the cruise altitude for minimum cost when ECON MACH is flown and should be followed whenever possible.

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22
Q

What is REC MAX FL?

What is it based upon?

A

It reflects the present engine and wing performance and does not take into account the cost aspect. It provides 0.3g buffet margin

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23
Q

Engine Warm Up Before Takeoff

Engine Cool Down After Landing

A

Shut down > 2 hours:
5 minutes

< 2 hours:
2 minutes (to ensure center tank pump complete)

After Landing:
3 minutes
(2 min after exiting rwy if only used rev idle)

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24
Q
  1. When should you begin deceleration from 250kts to 180?
  2. What is deceleration from 210 kts?
  3. What is already on GS?
A
  1. 4nm from GS* or CDP
  2. 2nm from GS* or CDP
  3. 20nm from rwy
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25
Q

Normal Flare Height on Landing

What are some situations where an earlier flare may be required?

A

30 feet
(AOM p.570)

May require earlier flare:
1. Steeper than 3 degree approach slope
2. Increasing runway slope (visual perception of being high and late radio altitude callout)
Higher groundspeed and therefore descent rate due tp:
3. High airport elevation (b/c higher ground speed during approach)
4. Tailwind

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26
Q

319 Seating Config
320 Seating Config
Required number of Flight Attendants

A

319 Seating Config:
12/114

320 Seating Config:
12/138

Required number of Flight Attendants:
3

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27
Q

3-1 Rule

Speed reduction Rule

A

3 NM to descend 1,000 feet

~1nm for each 10kt speed reduction

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28
Q

What are the critical first steps in any non-normal procedure?

A

Fly the Aircraft
Silence the Warning
Confirm the Emergency

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29
Q

No critical system control will be moved during non-normal procedures with the concurrence of both pilots. The following items are considered flight critical:

A
  1. All red (or red-guarded) controls and switches
  2. IR selectors
  3. ADR pushbuttons
  4. Thrust lever
  5. ENG MASTERs
  6. IDG buttons
  7. FUEL pumps
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30
Q

Potential situations where pilot plan to land at nearest suitable airport

A
  1. LAND ASAP in non-normal procedure
  2. Fire - fire or smoke continues
  3. Electrical - only one generator remains operative
  4. Engine - an engine fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage
  5. Hydraulic - only one system remains operative
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31
Q

If there are any conflicts between the QRC and the Flight Manual, which takes priority?

A

Flight Manual

FM 0.30.4

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32
Q

Procedure Priority - Non-normal Situations

A
  1. Immediate Actions Items
  2. QRC
  3. ECAM
  4. FM/QRH

FM 0.30.6

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33
Q

After receiving Final Weight Manifest, in what cases must you contact Dispatch?

A
  1. Actual Takeoff Gross Weight > Flight Plan TOW +2000 lbs
  2. Actual Takeoff Gross Weight > M1 Enroute ATOG (if planned Method 1)
  3. CALL DD displayed on Final Weight Manifest

FM 3.80.3

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34
Q

What should you do if the aircraft starts to move with the PARK BRK handle ON (due to parking brake failure)?

A

Press brake pedals to immediately restore braking

If the aircraft is unresponsive to brake pedal application:
1. Release the pedals
2. Select YELLOW ELEC PUMP ON
3. Reapply brake pedal pressure

FM 3.220.3

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35
Q

When shouldn’t you turn off all IRUs simultaneously?

What is the procedure to realign IRUs in this case?

A

When slats/flaps are extended*

  1. Realign IRUs 1 and 2 first
  2. When alignment is complete on 1 and 2, align IRU 3

FM 3.220.5

  • The Rudder Travel Limit Unit (RTLU) may be damaged when all IRUs are off simultaneously with slats/flaps extended
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36
Q

Why is the APU BLEED turned off during single engine taxi?

A

To avoid ingestion of engine exhaust gases

FM 3.50.5

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37
Q

Why do you turn the YELLOW ELEC PUMP off before starting ENG 2 during delayed engine start procedure?

A

To permit an automatic PTU test during engine 2 start

FM 3.70.5

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38
Q

During initial preflight flow, what should you ensure before moving flaps lever, if it as a position other than 0?

A
  1. Ensure that maintenance is not being performed
  2. Visual inspect that ground personnel and equipment are clear
  3. REFUELG memo not displayed
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39
Q

When is a reduced thrust takeoff not allowed?

A
  1. Probability of windshear exists
  2. Takeoff runway is contaminated or cluttered
  3. MEL/CDL prohibits its used
  4. MRD displays a message stating MAX THRUST TAKEOFF DUE
  5. When OAT within 5° of FLEX temp, a TOGA takeoff is recommended (PB #23-141)

Takeoff Module “319/320 Sabre Flight Planning System Review”

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40
Q

If Runway Data message shows ANTI-ICE OFF but anti-ice ON is required, what should you do?

A

Decrease ASSMD TMP by 5 knots and use the V-speeds for ANTI-ICE OFF

Takeoff Module “319/320 Sabre Flight Planning System Review”

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41
Q

Can reduced thrust be used with a wet runway?

Contaminated runway?

A

Wet runway - YES
Contaminated runway - NO

Takeoff Module “319/320 Sabre Flight Planning System Review”

A wet runway poses a stopping problem, while a cluttered runway poses an acceleration problem. May still be better to use full thrust takeoff on wet runway to utilize lower V1 speed

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42
Q

When requesting runway data and a T/O NOT POSSIBLE message is returned, what should you do?

A

Manually request a Bleeds OFF takeoff (Sabre will not automatically compute it)

Takeoff Module “319/320 Sabre Flight Planning System Review”

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43
Q

How can landing performance data be acquired if need to divert to an airport other than the planned destination?

A

Need to contact dispatch to request data

Takeoff Module “319/320 Sabre Flight Planning System Review”

44
Q

DIFRIPPS
Data

When is the changeover time to a new database cycle?

A

0901 UTC on the first day of the database cycle

FM 5.30.34

45
Q

Why is engine 1 normally started first?

A

Because it pressurizes the green hydraulic system without using the PTU

FM 3.50.1

46
Q

When should flaps not be retracted fully up after landing?

A
  1. If ice accretion is suspected, do not retract flaps until cleared to do so following an inspection by ground personnel
  2. If OAT is warmer than 30°C, and the aircraft will operate again in under approx. 2 hours, retract flaps to 1 to prevent a false AIR L(R) WING LEAK on the outbound leg. Flaps down refueling is authorized. It is not necessary to retract flaps to 0 before setting takeoff flaps on next leg.

FM 3.210.3

47
Q

When must landing distance be checked?

A

Non-normals
1. Landing at other than planned destination
2. Non-normal aircraft condition affecting stopping distance

Runway Conditions
3. Available runway < 8000 ft
4. Reported braking action less than dry (less than Runway Code 6)
5. Landing with a tailwind

FM 3.130.3

48
Q

Required Dispatch Reports

A

Following events must be reported to Dispatch as soon as practical:

  1. Actual ETA will exceed planned by > 15 min, or > 5min from previously reported estimate
  2. Cruise alt varies from flight plan by > 4000 feet
  3. Lateral deviation from planned route > 100nm
  4. Enroute failure of fuel quantity indicator
  5. If it becomes apparent that part of reserve fuel will be burned
  6. Moderate or greater turbulence encountered, or wx significantly different than forecast
  7. Assigned holding
  8. Unplanned or sustained use of deicing or anti-icing systems
  9. Assigned a CDR (Coded Departure Route)
  10. ATC initiated callsign change occurs
49
Q

Boarded Fuel Verification

A
  1. Fuel totalizer = Plan Gate Fuel +/- 1000lbs
  2. Fuel totalizer >= MIN T/O + TAXI

FOM 8.10

50
Q

6 C’s for Reroutes

A

Copy: both pilots copy ammended clearance / reroute

Comply: comply with initial heading or direct to portion of clearance. Then the remainder of the FMGC work may be accomplished

Create: Any new routing that contains a segment that is not already in the flight plan (i.e. to add a new jet route, find waypoint along route to act as anchor point)

Clear: Once new jet route/STAR inserted, clear from top (1L) until valid FROM/TO relationship exists. Ask “How does that look?” before inserting.

Connect: Clear an unneeded waypoints and discontinuities. Verify entire route is correct

Command NAV: Ensure NAV mode armed or engaged

Additionally:
1. Re-wind the flight plan
2. Check fuel
3. Contact dispatch (if required)

Qual Syllabus Day 9, p. 17

51
Q

What should you do if see this ECAM on Takeoff?

ENG THR LEVERS NOT SET

A

THR LEVERS -> TOGA

52
Q

When is a new MRD required?

A
  1. New defect or service request reported
  2. Any items were fixed
  3. An ETOPS flight (n/a 320 acft)

320 Qual Training Material p. 311 / FOM 5.40

53
Q

Energy Management
What are the primary drag inducers?

What’s the best config if you reduce VLS when using speed brakes?

What config allows for the best altitude loss per distance?

A

Speed brakes and landing gear

Flaps 1: approach idle offsets drag, but it allows slower airspeed by reducing the high VLS caused by speed brakes

Flaps 3, AP Off, gear down and full speed brakes @ 170 knots (1000’/nm)

54
Q

Flight deck indications of severe windshear

A

G/S: +/-1 dot
Pitch: +/- 5°
Airspeed: +/- 15kts
V/S: +/- 500 FPM
Thrust: lengthy or unusual autothrust performance

FOM 5.10.25

55
Q

What V speed is bugged for takeoff?

A

V2

56
Q

What speed does SRS command (2 engines operating)?

A

V2+10

57
Q

What speed does SRS command (1 engine operating)?

A

Speed existing at time of failure, no lower than V2

58
Q

First Officer < 100hrs Minimums

A

QRG 10.6

Visibility > 3/4sm
Xwind < 15 knots
Braking action - Good or better
No rwy clutter
no reported windshear
no special qualification airport

59
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?
How close to the departure airport does it need to be

A

If the weather is below landing minimums

400nm

60
Q

When is a destination alternate required?
1-2-3 Rule
1-1-2- Rule
1-1-3 Rule

A

1-2-3 Rule
Within +/- 1 hr of ETA, the forecast ceiling is < 2000 ft or visibility < 3 sm

1-1-2- Rule
Within +/- 1 hr of ETA, the forecast ceiling is < 1000 ft or visibility < 2 sm
- must have suitable and available CAT II/III approach

1-1-3 Rule
Within +/- 1 hr of ETA, the forecast ceiling is < 1000 ft or visibility < 3 sm
- must have suitable and available CAT I approach

61
Q

What TOW increase requires a call to DD?

A

2000 lbs

62
Q

Domestic Holding Speeds and Leg Time

ICAO Holding Speeds

A

Domestic
- 0-6000: 200 / 1 min (be aware of FMGC speeding up in hold in MNG Speed)
- 6-14000: 230 / 1 min
- >14000: 265 / 1.5 min

ICAO
- 0-14000: 230 / 1 min
- 14-20000: 240 / 1.5 min
- 20-34000: 265 / 1.5 min
- >34000: .83M / 1.5 min

63
Q

Minimum Fuel vs. Emergency Fuel

A

Minimum Fuel
- If there is any change to your existing clearance, it may result in you landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel
- Not an emergency and does not imply need for traffic priority
- State “[call sign] minimum fuel”

Emergency Fuel
- When calculate fuel on landing at nearest airport will be < 30 min
- Declare “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY - FUEL” And state fuel in hours/minutes

Qual Guide p.375

64
Q

What will the enroute MTOG be limited to for Method 1 dispatch? Method 2?

A

Method 1:
MTOG limited at takeoff. Must be able to clear obstacles within 5sm by 1000 feet

Method 2:
Assume fly directly to enroute alternate. Must be able to clear obstacles 5sm either side by 2000 feet

Qual Guide p.312

65
Q

What defines Class II Navigation?

A

Not Class 1
Any flight where position cannot be reliably fixed within 1 hr flight time (typically 725nm between ground based nav facilities)

Qual Guide p.312

66
Q

What fuel is required for Flag Dispatch?
B043 Dispatch?
B343 Dispatch?
A012 Dispatch?

PBCF replaces what fuel planning requirements?

A

Basic Flag:
Burn + Alt + 30 min + 10%

B043:
Burn +Alt + 45 min + 10% time in class 2

B343 (with PBCF dispatch):
Burn + Alt (if required) + 30 minutes + PBCF

B343 (with PBCF dispatch):
Burn + Alt (if required) + 30 minutes + 5% of flight time

In all cases, no less than 75 minutes

PDCF Authorizes International/Flag flights to substitute the traditional 10% or 5% regulatory fuel requirement with data driven fuel planning similar to ACF

67
Q

How can you tell if an airport is a Special Qual airport?

What is required for the Captain to operate into or out of Special Qual airports?

A
  • Listed in the FOM (14.30.1)
  • fdps.ual.com
  • CCS > Flight Planning > Airport Database > AIrport Authorization
  • Airport 10-7 pg

Requirements to operate into and out of:
Meet at least one of the following requirements:
- Capt or FO has been to airport in last 12 months
- Captain reviews 19-01 or 29-01 Airport Qual pages
- Meet certain ceiling and visibility requirements

68
Q

What is the minimum altitude when on a 100nm or 162nm deviation route?

A

FL250

69
Q

What’s the difference between THR LK, TOGA LK, and ALPHA LOCK?

A

THR LK - failure of autothrust system (or FCU A/THR bttn being deselected)

TOGA LK
- after exiting Alpha Floor condition
- TO/GA still engaged
- Autothrust must be disengaged to recover thrust control

ALPHA LOCK
- prevents initiation of slat retraction from position 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack or low airspeed

70
Q

Is the wing anti-ice used primarily for de-icing (after some accumulation) or anti-icing (to prevent ice accretion)?

A

Used to prevent ice accretion
Must be used if indication of ice accretion on the visual indication or other surfaces

71
Q

Captain Takeoff and Landing Minimums

First Officer Takeoff and Landing minimums

A

Captain Takeoff and Landing Minimums
(FOM 6.40, 14.10)
- Use appropriate takeoff minimums published on the Jepp charts for a given runway (10-9a, 20-9a) unless they are superceded by higher minimums included in the departure procedure

Landing minimums:
- if high mins, see QRG
- CAT III

First Officer Takeoff and Landing Minimums
Takeoff:
- 1000 RVR
- if high mins, see QRG

Landing minimums:
- 1800 RVR or 1/2sm

72
Q

Per DOT rules, how is a lengthy tarmac delay (LTD) defined?

When does the clock start?

When does clock stop?

What are the communication requirements

A

3 hours for domestic
4 hours international

Clock starts:
Departure - when main cabin door closes
Arrivals and diversions - when ON time is generated

Clock stops:
Departures -
1. Airborne
2. Request made to ATC to return to disembarkation point

Arrivals/Diversions - when PAX offered egress

Communication requirements
- PAX must be updated every 30 minutes

73
Q

When does Dispatch need to be notified if the TOGW increases?

A

2000 lbs from flight planned TOW
The Method 1 enroute ATOG is exceeded

74
Q

Alternate Aiport Weather Minimums

A

1 Approach Facility - 400/1
- Add 400 ft to MDA or DA and 1 mile to the charted visibility

2+ Approach Facilities - 200/ 1/2
- Add 200 to higher charted MDA or DA and 1/2sm to higher charted visibility

Airports with CAT II/III Approaches:
- Cat II: 300 - 3/4 (RVR 4000)
- Cat III: 200 - 1/2 (RVR1800)

75
Q

W/S Precautions on Takeoff

W/S Landing Precautions

A

Takeoff
* Use TOGA thrust
* Longest suitable runway
* Flaps 2
* 1500 AFE THR RED/ACC Alt
* Increase Rotation speed to VR Max (“V1”, “VR”, “ROTATE”)

Landing
* Flaps 3
* VLS+15 (if landing distance allows)
* Stabilized by 1000 ft
* Use managed speed
* Use AP and ATHR
* 1500 AFE THR RED/ACC Alt

FM 5.10.25

76
Q

What are the Alternate Weather minimums if the alternate has a CAT II approach and 2 ILS facilities serving different runways?

What are the Alternate Weather minimums if the alternate has a CAT III approach and 2 ILS facilities serving different runways?

A

CAT II
300’ / 4000 RVR (or 3/4sm)

CAT III
200’ / 1800 RVR (or 1/2sm)

77
Q

Lowest Allowable Takeoff RVR (Captain)

A

500 RVR

QRG 10.6

78
Q

Turbulence Action Guide

  1. Announcement when moderate or great turbulence is reported or impending
  2. Unexpected moderate or greater turbulence
  3. Turbulence improves/subsides
A
  1. “Flight attendants, take your jumpseats” (if within 5 min) OR
    “Flight Attendants, take your jumpseats in X minutes” (if < 5 min)
  2. “Flight attendants be seated immediately, be seated immediately.”
  3. “Flight attendants check in”

QRG Turbulence Action Guide

79
Q

Where to find table of when IOR report required

A

FOM 12.30.2
Communication - Verbal and Written Reports

80
Q

Breakaway Procedure

A

If aircraft inadvertently detaches from tug, driver will immediately say:
“breakaway breakaway”
(or STOP handle signal if not headsets)

Captain immediately and gently applies brakes, setting Park Brake once stopped and awaits further instruction from ground crew

81
Q

What is the difference between THR RED altitude and ACC altitude?

A

THR RED indicates where thrust should be reduced from TO/GA or FLX to CL detent (LVR CLB flashing FMA).

ACC is the acceleration altitude (altitude where the climb phase is activated)

82
Q

Runway Change

A

Reverse Z

F-PLN
- Change runway/SID/transition

RAD NAV
- tune required navaids for departure / EO procedure

PROG
- confirm CRZ altitude

PERF - TAKEOFF
- confirm runways
- V-speeds
- flap setting
- flex temp
- ENG OUT ACC

FM 5.30.60 (Accessed from FM Quick Reference)

83
Q

Forward CG Performance Corrections
1. When do you need to apply corrections?
2. Where can you find the procedure?
3. Correction to Takeoff Weight
4. Landing Speed

A
  1. CG < 25.0 on FUEL PRED page with final weights loaded and one engine started
  2. FM Performance - Fwd CG Perf Corrections
  3. Add 4000 lbs to actual aircraft weight
    • use flaps, FLEX temp and V-Speeds for that weight
  4. +2kts to VAPP (if CG still < 25%)
84
Q

Checklists Included in QRC

A

Checklists with Immediate Action Items
1. Flight Deck Emergency Access Alarm
2. NAV ADR 1+2 and 1+3 and 2+3 (Triple Double) (Special)
3. Unreliable Speed Indication
4. Loss of Braking
5. Smoke/Fumes
6. Emergency Descent

Others:
7. Rejected Takeoff
8. Evacuation
9. Driftdown
10. Smoke/Fumes
11. Removal or Smoke/Fumes
11. Dual Engine Failure (At Altitude)
12. Emergency Landing - All Engine Failure

85
Q

Windshear Precautions
Takeoff
Landing

A

Takeoff
1. TOGA Thrust
2. Longest suitable runways
3. Consider Flaps 2
4. V-Speeds: Takeoff using max thrust with reduce thrust v-speeds
5. Increase rotation speed - use VR MAX
6. Use 1500 AFE for THR RED/ACC

Landing
1. Use Flaps 3
2. Consider higher VAPP (up to VLS+15)
3. Use 1500 AFE for THR RED/ACC
4. Stabilized Approach by 1000 AGL
5. Use Managed Speed to provide GSmini
6. Use AP, ATHR, and FDs
7. Avoid large manual thrust reductions in response to sudden airspeed increases
8. Closely monitor vertical flight path
9. Touchdown within normal TDZ, don’t allow aircraft to float

86
Q

Minimum BRAKES and ACCU PRESS

Procedure if ACCU PRESS is low

A

With Parking Brake ON
BRAKES: 1000 psi
ACCU PRESS: 2000 psi

Low ACCU PRESS procedure
PTU … OFF (prevent pressurizing green system)
Yellow elec pump … ON
Yellow elec pump … OFF (after accum. recharged)
PTU … AUTO

FM 3.20.6

87
Q

Coded Departure Routes

  1. What are CDRs used for
  2. Where are they found?
  3. What must pilots consider before accepting new route?
  4. When are you required to contact dispatch prior to takeoff?
  5. What should message to dispatch include?

FOM 3.49.7-8 Operating Information - Flight Planning

A
  1. Intended to shorten the ATC coordination process for weather reroutes
  2. NOTAM / Flight Leg Information section of OFP
  3. Fuel requirements, terrain considerations and crew legality
  4. Required to contact dispatch prior to takeoff when
    - < 45 minutes between estimated takeoff time and CCO
    - >= 15 min increase in flight time
    - New route > 100nm lateral offset from original route
    - Fuel onboard not sufficient for new route
    - Terrain/Driftdown considerations along new route
  5. Message to dispatch should include:
    - CDR code
    - Request for new release
    - request for new CCO
88
Q

An early departure of ____ minutes or greater must be coordinated and approved in advance with Station Ops and NOC. Station Ops will contact NOC for approval authority

FOM 3.50.1 Operation Information - Departure Procedures

A

10

89
Q

Which Class II messages are normal to see after IRSs are OFF, and therefore should not be reported to mx?

If Class II mx message is displayed, should IRs be turned off?

FM 3.220.5 Normals - Parking

A

F/CTL and SFCS

No, if a defect report is sent for a Class II message, the IRSs should be left in NAV, to allow MX personal to record and troubleshoot

90
Q

When should the PM make all FMGC entries?

FOM

A

Below FL180, regardless of the status of the AP

If entries are made by the PF, transfer for aircraft control should be made to the PM

91
Q

Pressure altitude correction

FM 7.100.2 Performance - Advisory

A
  1. Set altimeter to 29.92 and read the indicated altitude
  2. 10 ft of altitude change for each .01 in of Hg difference from 29.92
    ex. altimeter 29.82 = +100 ft altitude adjustment
    30.91 = -1000 altitude adjustment
92
Q

ENG FAIL
When should you suspect engine damage?

FM 2.70.18 - Non-Normals ENG 1(2) FAIL

A
  1. Rapid increase in EGT above red line
  2. Significant mismatch in rotor speeds, or absence of rotation
  3. Significant increase in aircraft vibration or buffeting
  4. Hydraulic system loss
  5. Repeated or uncontrollable engine stalls
  6. Indication that oil is leaking (quantity is decreasing)
93
Q

When are medium autobrakes required?

A

When braking action is reported as less than good

FM 6.40.3

94
Q

Engine Start Sequence

FM 3.50.4 Normals

A

ENG MODE … IGN/START
- verify bleed pressure

ENG MASTER … ON
1. Start valve opens
2. Bleed pressure in the green
3. N2 increases
4. Oil pressure increases
5. w/in 30 secs:
- Ignition
- Fuel flow
6. w/in 20 sec of fuel flow:
- EGT increases
7. Prior to 34% N2 (48% NEO)
- N1 increases
8. At 43% N2 (55% NEO)
- start valve closes
- ignition off
9. EGT peaks, then decreases

95
Q

Inflight cues of volanic ash encounter

A
  1. Increasing EGT
  2. Engine tailpipe torching
  3. Engine inlet glow
  4. St. Elmo’s Fire
  5. Smoke/dust appearing in the aircraft
  6. False cargo fire indications
  7. Sharp, distinct edges and shadows cast by landing light (contrasted with the soft edges and diffused shadows observed in water vapor clouds)
  8. Acrid sulfur smell (struck match)
  9. In daylight, an associated reddish or yellow-brown tint to the cloud. The aerosolized sulfur acid that produces this distinctive odor can be present without volcanic ash
96
Q

Tailstrike pitch

319
320
321

A

319: 13.9°
320: 11.7°
321: 9.7°

97
Q

What speed does CI 0 provide?

1SP EET Video 7 07:20

A

Max Range Cruise speed - lowest safe speed for g loading in a turn

Never want to go below this speed at altitude

98
Q

The default for BLEEDS/PACKS on the TAKEOFF DATA page is OPTIMUM. What is the difference between the takeoff data that results between ACARS 1.0 and 2.5?

A

ACARS 2.5 will result in BLEEDS OFF, when appropriate, with this setting without first providing an error message

Ensure all parts of the takeoff data message are reviewed and appropriate procedures are followed

PB 24-177

99
Q

Abort Manual Engine Start “Memory” Items

FM 5.60.9

A

“OFF, OFF, CRANK, ON”

ENG MASTER - OFF
ENG MAN START - OFF
ENG MODE - NORM, then CRANK
ENG MAN START - ON

100
Q

What change in cruise speed from flight plan speed must you notify dispatch?

QRG.10.10 Required Dispatch Reports

A

Cruise speed faster than flight plan speed by .02 Mach or greater

101
Q

What are some actions that can be taken inflight if fuel state is becoming a concern?

CQDL C - ATC Systems, Procedures and Phraseology

A
  1. Request delay information from ATC
  2. Consider options such as optimum altitude and speed (CI 0)
  3. Dispatcher route reanalysis
  4. ATC Desk intervention
  5. Removal of an uneccessary alternate
102
Q

When are Captains required to contact Dispatch for a briefing?

A
  1. When requested via dispatch or ACARs (“Contact Dispatch in Remarks on release)
  2. International flights of 6+ hours
  3. There is any item of concern on Dispatch

FOM 4.10.1

103
Q

Besides ceiling and visibility requirements, in what other situations may an alternate be required?

A
  1. Supplemental operations - when dispatched to a destination that is not currently authorized for the type as either regular, alternate, refueling, or provisional
  2. Whenever crosswind performance guidelines may prevent a safe landing at the destination
  3. If a flight is scheduled to arrive at an unlit airport within 30 minutes of sunset, a lit alternate must be provided
104
Q

If destination weather falls below landing minimums enroute without an alternate, the flight crew should …

A

contact dispatch and discuss a new course of action to ensure a safe completion of the flight

105
Q

When is the window of circadian low?

A

0200-0559

106
Q

When should you consider the use of the SHORT FIELD OR CONTAMINATED RUNWAY LANDING PROCEDURE?

FM 6.40.3 - Supplementary Maneuvers

A
  • Available landing distance < 8000 ft
  • or when braking action (due to contamination) is expected to require most of the available runway

Ujklkuwrbe (15 decks)

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