Systemic Pathology B Flashcards

1
Q

Reovirus is a well-established cause of viral arthritis. However, not all reoviruses will cause viral arthritis. Reovirus are associated with all of the following disorders of poultry except?
a.Encephalomyelitis
b.Pericarditis
c.Malabsorption syndrome
d.Osteoporosis

A

Encephalomyelitis

Avian encephalomyelitis (epidemic tremor) is a viral disease of the CNS of poultry caused by avian encephalomyelitis virus (AEV),(family Picornaviridae,
genus Tremovirus, species tremovirus A).

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2
Q

Reovirus is a well-established cause of viral arthritis. However, not all reoviruses will cause viral arthritis. Which of the following is almost always present in older broilers infected with viral arthritis?
a.Decrease fluid in hock joint
b.Swelling of digital extensor
c.Ruptured gastrocnemius tendon
d.Atrophic synovial cells

A

Ruptured gastrocnemius tendon

Once birds move from a pullet facility into a typical breeder production system. In the henhouse, hens are
expected to be able to jump up onto a slatted area, and this jumping motion can result in rupture of fibrotic tendons.

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3
Q

Reovirus is a well-established cause of viral arthritis. However, not all reoviruses will cause viral arthritis. Helicopter disease is one of the manifestation of malabsorption syndrome, why is it called helicopter disease?
a.Leg weakness and gait abnormality
b.Twisted and malpositioned feathers
c.Brittle bone/Osteoporosis
d.Mucosal and submucosal proventricular

A

Twisted and malpositioned feathers

The growing primary wing feathers are abnormally big for chickens with retarded growth, they protrude at various angles, hence the name “helicopter disease”.

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4
Q

Reovirus is a well-established cause of viral arthritis. However, not all reoviruses will cause viral arthritis. The first signs of reovirus infection can be observed in broiler type chickens as early as?
a.2 weeks old
b.4 weeks old
c.16 weeks old
d.30 weeks old

A

2 weeks old

Birds less than 2 weeks of age are immune incompetent, and, in the absence of virus-specific maternal antibodies, viremia can occur unchecked.

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5
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) is one of the most severe diseases of goats. Which differentiates CCPP to other mycoplasma spp that affects goats?
a.Only affects lungs
b.Only affects lungs and eyes
c.Only causes pneumonia and mastitis
d.Only causes arthritis and pneumonia

A

Only affects lungs

Mccp only affects lungs compared to other mycoplasmas that is capable of producing disease in goats, including
respiratory disease, polyarthritis, conjunctivitis, and mastitis.

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6
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) is one of the most severe diseases of goats. Difference between CCPP and CBPP in post mortem lesions:
a.Fibrinous pleuritis
b.Abundant lung exudates
c.Thickening of interlobular septa
d.Sequestrum is developed in recovered animals

A

Thickening of interlobular septa

In CBPP, the typical marbled appearance of pleuropneumonia is evident because of the widened interlobular septa and subpleural tissue that encloses gray, yellow, or red consolidated lung lobules

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7
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) is one of the most severe diseases of goats. Which of the following is true about CCPP infection?
a.High morbidity, low mortality
b.Low morbiditiy, high mortality
c.High morbidity, high mortality
d.Low morbidity, low mortality

A

High morbidity, high mortality

Severe respiratory disease outbreaks with high morbidity and mortality can be seen in cases of CCPP

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8
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) is one of the most severe diseases of goats. Etiologic agent of CCPP.
a.Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae
b.Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae
c.Mycoplasma capricolumcapricolum
d.Mycoplasma mycoidesmycoides small colony

A

Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia is a severe and highly fatal disease that is due to Mycoplasma capricolum capripneumoniae, or Mccp(previously Mycoplasma biotype F38)

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9
Q

Hematuria, pollakiuria, and stranguria are the characteristic clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD) in cats. Which of the following is the most common cause of FLUTD in cats less than 10 years of age?
a.Urolithiasis
b.Feline idiopathic cystitis
c.Bacterial infection
d.Chronic kidney disease

A

Feline idiopathic cystitis

50% will not have a cause that can be determined despite extensive testing (meaning they have what is called idiopathic cystitis).
20% will have bladder stones (females have a slightly higher incidence).
20% will have a urethral blockage.
1-5% will have a true urinary tract infection.
1-5% will have urinary tract cancer.
1-5% will have had trauma to the urinary tract (i.e. have been hit by a car etc.)
1-5% will have a combination of a bladder stone and an infection

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10
Q

Hematuria, pollakiuria, and stranguria are the characteristic clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD) in cats. Which of the following is the most common cause of FLUTD in cats less than 10 years of age?
a.Urolithiasis
b.Feline idiopathic cystitis
c.Bacterial infection
d.Chronic kidney disease

A

Feline idiopathic cystitis

50% will not have a cause that can be determined despite extensive testing (meaning they have what is called idiopathic cystitis).
20% will have bladder stones (females have a slightly higher incidence).
20% will have a urethral blockage.
1-5% will have a true urinary tract infection.
1-5% will have urinary tract cancer.
1-5% will have had trauma to the urinary tract (i.e. have been hit by a car etc.)
1-5% will have a combination of a bladder stone and an infection

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11
Q

Hematuria, pollakiuria, and stranguria are the characteristic clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD) in cats.
Struvite is a urinary mineral composed of three common subtances found in urine, All of the following substances composes struvite except:
a.Magnesium
b.Nitrate
c.Phosphate
d.Ammonium

A

Nitrate

Struvite is a urinary mineral composed of ammonium, phosphate, and magnesium. These three substances
are common in urine and if they exist in high enough concentrations, they will bind together in the form of
crystals.

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12
Q

Hematuria, pollakiuria, and stranguria are the characteristic clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD) in cats. Feline idiopathic cystitis literally means cystitis of unknown cause but it is believed to be linked the most to which of the following factors?

A

Stress

Increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and various chemicals described such as nitric oxide, prostaglandins, could all contribute to the compromised urothelial barrier in cats with FIC, which can offer potassium and other toxic irritants in the urine greater access to sensory afferent neurons innervating the urothelium

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13
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is an emerging disease caused by coronavirus and is characterized by watery diarrhea and emaciation. Which of the following gross lesions differentiates PED and TGE?
a.Watery intestinal contents
b.Presence of undigested milk in the stomach
c.Thinning of the intestines, mostly limited to the small intestines
d.No significant differences

A

No significant differences

The clinical signs and lesions of PED are almost similar with the epidemic form of TGE and other porcine coronaviral infection, thus diagnosis cannot be made purely on these basis.

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14
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is an emerging disease caused by coronavirus and is characterized by watery diarrhea and emaciation. All the following is true about PED except:
a.Affects all age group
b.Higher mortality in older age group
c.The incubation period is estimated to be between 1 and 4 days
d.Transmitted primarily by feco-oral route

A

Higher mortality in older age group

Infected during the first week of life often die within 3 or 4 days of infection, and mortality can exceed 60% in naive populations. In growing and finishing pigs. Morbidity is high; however, mortality is negligible in older pigs.

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15
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is an emerging disease caused by coronavirus and is characterized by watery diarrhea and emaciation. Vaccination of gestating sows to boost lactogenic immunity may be sufficient to protect neonates. It is crucial to generate which of the following immunoglobulins present in colostrum?
a.IgA
b.IgY
c.IgD
d.IgG

A

IgA

It is crucial to generate high levels of IgA in colostrum to prevent severe diarrhea and mortality in suckling piglets. This can be achieved with natural exposure to PEDV

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16
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is an emerging disease caused by coronavirus
and is characterized by watery diarrhea and emaciation. All of the following is true about PED except:
a.Affects all age group
b.Higher mortality in older age group
c.The incubation period is estimated to be between 1 and 4 days
d.Transmitted primarily by feco-oral route

A

Higher mortality in older age group

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17
Q

Porcine epidemic diarrhea is an emerging disease caused by coronavirus and is characterized by watery diarrhea and emaciation. Vaccination of gestating sows to boost lactogenic immunity may be sufficient to protect neonates. It is crucial to generate which of the following immunoglobulins present in colostrum?
a.IgA
b.IgY
c.IgD
d.IgG

A

IgA

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18
Q

Swamp fever is an infectious and potentially fatal viral disease of horses. The most important route of transmission of swamp fever in horses
a.Biting flies
b.Venereal
c.Feco-oral
d.Mosquitoes

A

Biting flies

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19
Q

Swamp fever is an infectious and potentially fatal viral disease of horses. Internationally accepted diagnostic test for swamp fever
a.ELISA
b.AGID
c.HA-HI
d.PCR

A

AGID

Agar immunodiffusion or Coggins test

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20
Q

Swamp fever is an infectious and potentially fatal viral disease of horses. All of the following signs are present in swamp fever cases except:
a.Ventral pitting edema
b.Jaundice
c.Thrombocytosis
d.Anemia

A

Thrombocytosis

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21
Q

Swamp fever is an infectious and potentially fatal viral disease of horses. Which of the following cells is mainly targeted by EIA virus that leads to increased production of pro-inflammatory mediators or cytokines contributing to its pathogenesis:
a.Macrophage
b.Erythrocytes
c.Neutrophils
d.Lymphocytes

A

Macrophage

22
Q

A 10 year old dog roamed around a lush backyard and came back with
chunks of mushroom still lingering around the lips. After inducing emesis, the mushroom ingested was later identified by the attending veterinarian as Amanita muscaria. Which of the following toxins
are present in this type of mushroom?
a.Psilocybin and psilocin
b.Muscarine
c.Ibotenic acid and muscimol
d.Alpha, beta, and gamma amanitins

A

Ibotenic acid and muscimol

23
Q

A 10 year old dog roamed around a lush backyard and came back with
chunks of mushroom still lingering around the lips. Psilocybin and psilocin mainly target which of the following organs?
a.Gastrointestinal
b.CNS
c.Primarily liver, secondarily kidneys
d.Primarily kidneys, secondarily live

A

CNS

24
Q

A 10 year old dog roamed around a lush backyard and came back with
chunks of mushroom still lingering around the lips. Ibotenic acid and muscimol mainly target which of the following organs?
a.Gastrointestinal
b.CNS
c.Primarily liver, secondarily kidneys
d.Primarily kidneys, secondarily liver

A

CNS

25
Q

A 10 year old dog roamed around a lush backyard and came back with
chunks of mushroom still lingering around the lips. Which of the following mushroom species contain the most potent toxin
(amatoxins) and also known as death cap?
a.Clitocybe spp.
b.Amanita phalloides
c.Amanita muscarina
d.Cortinarius orellanosus

A

Amanita phalloides

26
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Fumonisin toxicosis in pigs causes which of the following mycotoxic
diseases:
a.Facial eczema
b.Leukoencephalomalacia
c.Hyperestrogenism
d.Pulmonary edema

A

Pulmonary edema

27
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Which of the following species produces fumonisin that causes two well-
described diseases of livestock:
a.Fusarium verticilloides
b.Pithomyces chartarum
c.Fusarium graminearum
d.Claviceps purpurea

A

Fusarium verticilloides

28
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. It is an economically important toxin that typically affects cattle and causes vasoconstriction by direct action on the muscles of the arterioles which will lead to terminal necrosis of the extremities due to thrombosis.
a.Zearalenone
b.Ergotamine
c.Fumonisin
d.Ochratoxin

A

Ergotamine

29
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds.
Caustic injury of the oral mucosa and areas of the skin in contact with the
mold is a characteristic lesion produced by which of the following toxins in poultry?
a.Ochratoxin
b.Zearalenone
c.T2 toxin
d.Citrinin

A

T2 toxin

30
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Deoxynivalenol in poultry mainly affects which of the following organs?
a.Skin
b.GIT
c.CNS
d.Kidney

A

GIT

31
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds.

A
32
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Aflatoxin in poultry mainly affects which of the following organs?
a.Liver
b.GIT
c.CNS
d.Kidney

A

Liver

33
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Ochratoxin in poultry mainly affects which of the following organs?
a.Liver
b.GIT
c.CNS
d.Kidney

A

Kidney

34
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. Vulvovaginitis in prepubertal gilts is one of the most striking clinical
feature that can be seen in this type of mycotoxicosis. Which mycotoxin is most likely involved?
a.Zearalenone
b.Ergotamine
c.Fumonisin
d.Ochratoxin

A

Zearalenone

35
Q

Toxicoses in animals can result from exposure to feed or bedding contaminated with toxins produced during growth of various fungi or
molds. F2 toxin in swine may commonly cause all of the following clinical signs except:
a.Poor libido in boars
b.Hyperemic vulva in prepubertal gilts
c.Rectal and uterine prolapse
d.Abortion in sows

A

Abortion in sows

36
Q

A 3 year old deep chested dog has been running unsupervised, ingested a large amount of moldy nuts and cheese. After 1-2 hours, several clinical
signs developed including vomiting, hyperesthesia, tremors and seizures. Clinical signs exhibited is most likely due to which of the following causes?
a.Anaphylactic shock
b.Onset of GDV
c.Tremorgenic toxicosis
d.Botulism

A

Tremorgenic toxicosis

37
Q

A 3 year old deep chested dog has been running unsupervised, ingested a large amount of moldy nuts and cheese. After 1-2 hours, several clinical
signs developed including vomiting, hyperesthesia, tremors and seizures. Which of the following protocols will help in resolving the problem?
a.Epinephrine
b.Emergency surgery
c.Pentobarbital
d.Botulinum antitoxin

A

Pentobarbital

38
Q

A 3 year old deep chested dog has been running unsupervised, ingested a large amount of moldy nuts and cheese. After 1-2 hours, several clinical
signs developed including vomiting, hyperesthesia, tremors and seizures. Which of the following predisposes the dog in having this clinical signs?
a.Peanut allergy
b.Body configuration
c.Mycotoxin ingestion
d.Botulinum toxin ingestion

A

Mycotoxin ingestion

39
Q

According to world organisation for animal health, The first occurrence of
H5N1 in the area of Leyte started in Philippines on 7 March 2024. LPAI typically demonstrate the following signs in an infected bird except:
a.Congestion and inflammation of the trachea
b.Infraorbital sinus swelling
c.Petechial haemorrhages of visceral organs
d.Decreased egg production

A
40
Q

According to world organisation for animal health, The first occurrence of
H5N1 in the area of Leyte started in Philippines on 7 March 2024. Clinical signs and gross lesions in acute cases of HPAI is almost
indistinguishable with which of the following pathotypes of Newcastle
disease:
a.Viscerotropic velogenic
b.Neurotropic velogenic
c.Mesogenic
d.Lentogenic

A

Viscerotropic velogenic

41
Q

According to worl organisation for animal health, The first occurrence of
H5N1 in the area of Leyte started in Philippines on 7 March 2024. Which of the following is considered as a pathognomonic lesion/sign of
HPAI:
a.Greenish diarrhea
b.Hemorrhagic wattles and combs
c.Petecchiation in serosal surfaces of visceral organs
d.No pathognomonic lesion

A

No pathognomonic lesion

42
Q

Coccidia are almost universally present in poultry-raising operations, as a
veterinarian, determination based on the location of lesions in the host and their appearance, the size of oocysts present is quite challenging. It is a characteristic post mortem lesion produced by Eimeria
necatrix infection in poultry.
a.Cecal cores which are accumulations of clotted blood, tissue debris, and
oocysts,
b.Whitish, oval or transverse patches in the upper half of SI
c.Salt and pepper appearance of the anterior and middle portions of SI
d.Dilatation and thickening of SI wall, petechial hemorrhage, and a reddish
orange/pink viscous fluid exudate

A

Salt and pepper appearance of the anterior and middle portions of SI

43
Q

Coccidia are almost universally present in poultry-raising operations, as a
veterinarian, determination based on the location of lesions in the host and their appearance, the size of oocysts present is quite challenging. Cecal cores which are accumulations of clotted blood, tissue debris, and oocysts commonly found at necropsy in birds surviving the acute stage is typical in which of the following Eimeria?
a.Eimeria tenella
b.Eimeria acervulina
c.Eimeria necatrix
d.Eimeria maxima

A

Eimeria tenella

44
Q

Coccidia are almost universally present in poultry-raising operations, as a
veterinarian, determination based on the location of lesions in the host and their appearance, the size of oocysts present is quite challenging. The best known coccidial infection of geese capable of producing lesions characterized by an enlarged kidneys covered with poorly
circumscribed, yellowish-white streaks and spots
a.Eimeria adenoides
b.Eimeria lettyae
c.Eimeria legionensis
d.Eimeria truncata

A

Eimeria truncata

45
Q

An unexpected anthrax outbreak occurred during winter in a Texas
county adjacent to the Anthrax Triangle, a region with enzootic anthrax.

A
46
Q

An unexpected anthrax outbreak occurred during winter in a Texas
county adjacent to the Anthrax Triangle, a region with enzootic anthrax. a lamb was suspected to be the source of the patient’s illness, Which of the following forms is most likely present in an infected human
with anthrax?
a.Cutaneous form
b.Gastrointestinal form
c.Inhalational form
d.Injection form

A

Cutaneous form

47
Q

An unexpected anthrax outbreak occurred during winter in a Texas
county adjacent to the Anthrax Triangle, a region with enzootic anthrax. Absence of rigor mortis is one of pathological hallmark in anthrax
infection, all of the following signs/lesions can also be seen in cases
of anthrax except:
a.Marked bloating and rapid body decomposition
b.Extreme blood clotting
c.Hemorrhages on serosal surfaces of various organs
d.Enlarged, dark red or black, soft, semifluid spleen

A

Extreme blood clotting

48
Q

An unexpected anthrax outbreak occurred during winter in a Texas
county adjacent to the Anthrax Triangle, a region with enzootic anthrax. Confirmatory laboratory testing should be attempted if anthrax is suspected,
cotton swab is dipped in the blood and allowed to dry to allow sporulation.
Which of the following is not true about shipment and packaging of anthrax
samples?
a.Vegetative cell is robust and will survive 3 days in transit
b.1 mL serum is the minimum acceptable volume needed by CDC
c.Serology testing should only be conducted on paired serum samples collected
in both phases (Acute and convalescent)
d.Store the specimen at -20° C or colder until it is shipped to CDC

A

Vegetative cell is robust and will survive 3 days in transit

49
Q

Canine distemper is among the two most predominant canine viral diseases, second to canine parvovirus
a.Neuronal degeneration
b.Suppurative leptomeningitis
c.Perivascular cuffing
d.Intranuclear inclusion bodies, predominantly within glial cells

A

Suppurative leptomeningitis

50
Q

Canine distemper is among the two most predominant canine viral diseases, second to canine parvovirus. Viral replication of CDV mainly contributes to its pathogenesis, CDV primarily replicates initially in which of the following?
a.Lymphoid tissue
b.CNS
c.Saliva
d.GIT

A

Lymphoid tissue

51
Q

Canine distemper is among the two most predominant canine viral diseases, second to canine parvovirus. Severe immunosuppression is the result of CDV primarily targeting
which of the following immune cells?
a.B cells
b.T cells
c.Neutrophils
d.Macrophage

A

T cells

52
Q

In protracted degenerative or reparative conditions of CNS, astrocytes are called ______. These cells have eccentric nuclei and
abundant pink homogeneous cytoplasm, in contrast to the lack of visible cytoplasm in normal astrocytes.
a.Gitter cells
b.Gemistocytes
c.Hofbauer cells
d.Langerhans

A

Gemistocytes