General, Systemic & Clinical Flashcards

1
Q

WhichconditionusesCreatinineKinaseas adiagnosticmarker?
a.Exercise-induced rhabdomyolysis in horses
b.Equine protozoal neuritis (Sarcocystis neurona)
c.Immune-mediated polymyositis
d.All of the choices

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a condition that will likely exhibit a decreased MCV and MCHC?
a. Babesiosis
b. Iron deficiency.
c. Metarubricytosis.
d. In vitro hemolysis.

A

Iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Necropsy of an emaciated animal reveals clear, gelatinous tissue over the heart and around the kidneys where normally fat should be present. This change is called which of the following?
a.Fat necrosis
b.Edema
c.Brown fat
d.Serous atrophy of fat

A

Serous atrophy of fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The histiologic diagnosis when exudates are composed predominantly of neutrophils with seroproteinaceous edema fluid is:
a.Chronic inflammation
b. Pyogranulomatous inflammation
c.Eosinophilic inflammation
d.Purulent inflammation

A

Purulent inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is characterized by pinpoint hemorrhage of 1-2 mm in size?
a.Petecchial
b.Ecchymotic
c.Paintbrush
d.Massive hemorrhage

A

Petecchial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Whichcellisnotlikelypresentin abloodsmearfromapsittacine?
a.Heterophils
b.Thrombocytes
c.Neutrophils
d.Eosinophils

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following terms is defined as phagocytosis of dead and dying neurons, where gitter cells aggregate and become satellite cells of dead and dying neurons?
a.Neuronophagia
b.Perivascular cuffing
c.Glial shrubbery
d.Gliosis

A

Neuronophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reticulocytosisisthebestindicatorofenhancederythropoiesis,exceptin:
a. Horses.
b. Cattle.
c. Dogs.
d. Cats.

A

Horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mulberry heart disease is also known as:
a.Fibrinous pericarditis
b.Dietary microangiopathy
c.Porcine polyserositis
d.Cerebrospinal angiopathy

A

Dietary microangiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

It is a rare condition in which the brain’s cerebral hemispheres are absent and replaced by sacs filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
a.Hydranencephaly
b.Porencephaly
c.Encephalocaele
d.Dysraphism

A

Hydranencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot is a condition that results to intermixing of blood. Which of the following component defect is only a secondary lesion?
a.Pulmonic Stenosis
b.Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
c.Overriding Aorta
d.Ventricular Septal Defect

A

Right Ventricular Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is a decrease in the amount of tissue after normal growth has been achieved.
a.Agenesis
b.Aplasia
c.Atresia
d.Atrophy

A

Atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin is a:
a.Adenoma
b.Sarcoma
c.Carcinoma
d.Papilloma

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This portion of the hepatic lobule receives the least oxygenated blood and is therefore susceptible to hypoxia.
a.Centrilobula
b.Midzonal
c.Periportal
d.Portal triad

A

Centrilobular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Xanthomatosis which results from massive accumulation of lipids in macrophages is common in which species?
a.Avian
b.Mammalian
c.Reptilian
d.Amphibian

A

Avian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Apoptosis is which of the following?*
a.A synonym of phagocytosis
b.The process of apocrine gland secretion
c.Cellular aging
d.Programmed cell death

A

Programmed cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

At necropsy, lung is diffusely pale and rubbery in texture. It also has prominent rib imprints and has a meaty appearance. this lung change in pigs is highly suggestive of a viral pneumonia. Which of the following types of pneumonia will most likely fit the description?
a.Bronchopneumonia
b.Granulomatous pneumonia
c.Interstitial pneumonia
d.Aspiration pneumonia

A

Interstitial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is also called ballooning degeneration.
a.Cloudy swelling
b.Hydropic degeneration
c.Fatty degeneration
d.Hyaline droplet degeneration

A

Hydropic degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Themajority(~95%)oftheCO2inthebloodis intheformof:
a. Bicarbonate ion.
b. Carbonic acid.
c. Hydrogen ion.
d. Water.

A

Bicarbonate ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Severe edema of the abomasal wall with severe petechial hemorrhages is particularly diagnostic in cattle affected with?
a.Ostertagia ostergii infection
b.Mycotic Abomasitis
c.Heartwater disease
d.Braxy

A

Heartwater disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Swine erysipelas infection can be divided into acute and chronic forms, which of the following is most likely present in chronic cases of erysipelosis:
a.Diamond skin lesions
b.Arthritis and valvular endocarditis
c.Bacteremia
d.High fever

A

Arthritis and valvular endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Youareexaminingasamplefromachylouseffusion.Whichcellsdoyouexpecttoobserveinyourdiagnosticcytologypreparation?
a. Predominantly lymphocytes with very few neutrophils.
b. Predominantly neutrophils with very few lymphocytes.
c. Predominantly macrophages with very few neutrophils.
d. Predominantly mast cells with very few neutrophils.

A

Predominantly lymphocytes with very few neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is a feature of acute inflammation?
a.Granulation tissue formation
b.Healing
c.Exudation of fluid and plasma proteins
d.Fibrosis

A

Exudation of fluid and plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A hit-by-car cat was brought to the clinic for immediate veterinary medication. The cat suffered from severe acute hemorrhage and was initially given fluid. What do you think is the morphological classification of anemia if you examine the cat’s blood on that day?
a. Macrocytic hypochromic.
b. Microcytic hypochromic.
c. Macrocytic normochromic.
d. Normocytic normochromic.

A

Normocytic normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dystrophic calcification refers to which of the following?
a.Mineralization of viable tissue or cells
b.Mineralization due to hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia
c.Mineralization of dead or damaged cells or tissues
d.Mineralization due to hypercalcemia and normophosphatemia

A

Mineralization of dead or damaged cells or tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anthracosis occurs as a result of inhalation of:
a.Carbon compounds
b.Silica particles
c.Pollen grains
d.Asbestos fibers

A

Carbon compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Right congestive heart failure alone is typically associated with all of the following clinical signs except:
a.Pulmonary edema
b.Splenomegaly
c.Congestive hepatopathy
d.Ascites

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A cell membrane-associated enzyme used to detect cholestatic hepatobiliary disease in small animals.
a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
b. Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT)
c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
d. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome in dogs causes significant difficulty in breathing. Which of the following is not included as major clinical finding?
a.Stenotic nares
b.Hyperplastic trachea
c.Elongated soft palate
d.Everted laryngeal saccules

A

Hyperplastic trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This test can differentiate conjugated bilirubin from unconjugated bilirubin in the serum.
a.Osmotic fragility test
b.Van den Bergh test
c.Coombs test
d.Schilling test

A

Van den Bergh test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This implies further development and means that some of the organ is present but markedly reduced in size from normal.
a.Agenesis
b.Aplasia
c.Atresia
d.Atrophy

A

Aplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In most cases, all of the following congenital anomalies of the heart leads to left to right blood shunts except:
a.Patent ductus arteriosus
b.Ventricular septal defect
c.Tetralogy of fallot
d.Atrial septal defect

A

Tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following could lead to prerenal azotemia?
a.Renal amyloidosis
b.Urolithiasis
c.Glomerulonephritis
d.Hypovolemia

A

Hypovolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This results from a failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes.
a.Hare lip
b.Cheiloschisis
c.Cleft lip
d.Cleft palate

A

Cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Trichoblastoma is categorized as a _____ tumor.
a.Epithelial
b.Mesenchymal
c.Round cell
d.Neuroendocrine

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute multifocal necrotizing hepatitis is an example of a:
a.Clinical diagnosis
b.Definitive diagnosis
c.Morphologic diagnosis
d.Etiologic diagnosis

A

Morphologic diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

An adenocarcinoma is of _______ origin.
a.Epithelial
b.Mesenchymal
c.Hemopoietic
d.Nervous

A

Epithelial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Van den Bergh test result when there is haemolytic icterus?*
a.Indirect
b.Direct +
c.Direct ++
d.Direct +++

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the Van den Bergh test result when there is haemolytic icterus?*
a.Indirect
b.Direct +
c.Direct ++
d.Direct +++

A

Indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

This is characterized by cranioventral consolidation of lungs.
a.Suppurative bronchopneumonia
b.Verminous pneumonia
c.Interstitial pneumonia
d.Granulomatous pneumonia

A

Suppurative bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Nutmeg liver is an example of:
a.hyperemia
b.congestion
c.infarction
d.ischemia

A
42
Q

End-stage liver is also known as:
a.Ductular reaction
bPiecemeal necrosis
c.Cholangiohepatitis
d.Cirrhosis

A

Cirrhosis

43
Q

In persistent right aortic arch, The right aortic arch fails to regress normally. What is the most common clinical sign present in puppies with PRAA?
a.Pale MM
b.Regurgitation
c.Syncope
d.Difficulty in breathing

A

Regurgitation

44
Q

In persistent right aortic arch, The right aortic arch fails to regress normally. What is the most common clinical sign present in puppies with PRAA?
a.Pale MM
b.Regurgitation
c.Syncope
d.Difficulty in breathing

A

Regurgitation

45
Q

Concerning suppurative inflammation, which of the following statements is least accurate?
a.It is characterized by accumulation of macrophages
b.It is synonymous with purulent inflammation
c.It is signifying acute inflammation
d.It produces pus

A

It is characterized by accumulation of macrophages

46
Q

What do you conclude in an assay showing increased levels of C-reactive protein?
a. There is an acute inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection.
b. There is a chronic inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection.
c. There is an immune-mediated hemolytic anemia.
d. There is a lack of vitamin C in the body.

A

There is an acute inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection.

47
Q

Heart failure after euthanasia results to:
a.Active hyperemia
b.Chronic passive congestion
c.Acute passive congestion
d.Ischemia

A

Ischemia

48
Q

Strangles in horses is caused bystreptococcusequisubsp.equi, which of the following lesions is commonly associated with this disease?
a.Acute suppurative lymphadenitis
b.Chronic suppulymphadenitis
c.Acute granulomatous lymphadenitis
d.Chronic granulomatous lymphadenitis

A

Acute suppurative lymphadenitis

49
Q

Which of the following may have a mixed type tumor?
a.Lymph vessel
b.Lymphocyte
c.Mammary gland
d.Adrenal gland

A

Mammary gland

50
Q

The “bread and butter” appearance of the heart is due to the accumulation of:
a.serous exudate
b.fibrinous exudate
c.purulent exudate
d.catarrhal exudate

A

fibrinous exudate

51
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is related with defects in cells such as?
a.Neuron
b.Neutrophils
c.Erythrocytes
d.Hepatocytes

A

Neutrophils

52
Q

The following are biochemical tests use to effectively evaluate the urinary system of reptiles except?
BUN
Uric Acid
Calcium
Phosphorous

A

BUN

53
Q

This is a hereditary disorder of bone growth that occur because of primary lesions in growth cartilage.
a.Osteogenesis imperfecta
b.Chondrodysplasia
c.Osteochondrosis dissecans
d.Epiphysiolysis

A

Chondrodysplasia

54
Q

In acute inflammation, neutrophilic exudation is soon followed by ______ exudation.
a.Monocyte
b.Eosinophil
c,Basophil
d.Lymphocyte

A

Monocyte

55
Q

How can chronic kidney disease be suspected before azotemia of CRF develops?
a.Kidney size increases
b.There is a loss of ability to maximally concentrate urine
c.Urinary protein levels decrease (in the presence of a silent urinary sediment)
d.Hyperalbuminemia is present

A

There is a loss of ability to maximally concentrate urine

56
Q

At necropsy of an adult black-faced sheep, black discoloration is discovered in the meninges over the frontal lobes of the cerebrum. This finding represents which of the following?
a.Melanoma
b.Melanosis
c.Infarction
d.Hemosiderosis

A

Melanosis

57
Q

Which of the following causes normocytic normochromic anemia?
a. Babesiosis.
b. Iron deficiency.
c. Chronic renal disease.
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency.

A

Chronic renal disease

58
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum infection (Calf diphtheria) in calves less than 3 months old will most likely demonstrate all of the following gross lesions except:
a.Glossitis
b.Laryngitis
c.Esophagitis
d.Stomatitis

A

Laryngitis

59
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in horses significantly affects which part of circulatory system that leads to chronic abscesses in the pectoral region, ventral abdomen, and preputial or mammary regions?
a.Arteries
b.Veins
c.Lymphatic vessels
d.Capillaries

A

Lymphatic vessels

60
Q

At necropsy, The surface of the heart displays multiple areas of hemorrhage. Areas of necrosis, looking like pale streaks on the heart can also be present. Which of the following will most likely lead to this myocardial lesions in pigs?
a.Salt toxicity
b.Vitamin E-selenium deficiency
c.Ionophore toxicity
d.FMD

A

Vitamin E-selenium deficiency

61
Q

The differential diagnosis of head pressing, dementia, changes in behavior, and ataxia in a 6-month-old puppy does not typically include which of the following?
a.Trauma
b.Hepatic encephalopathy
c.Brain tumor
d.Hydrocephalus

A

Brain tumor

62
Q

Acute inflammation is characterized by all except which of the following?
a.Hyperemia
b.Pain
c.Edema
d.Fibrosis

A

Fibrosis

63
Q

The accumulation of this pigment in the canine myocardium has a linear correlation with the age of the dog.
a.Lipofuscin
b.Hemoglobin
c.Hemosiderin
d.Melanin

A

Lipofuscin

64
Q

Dogs infected with which of the following organisms can shed oocysts in feces that can then infect cattle, causing abortion?
a.Neospora caninum
b.Hepatozoon americanum
c.Lesihmania infantum
d.Toxoplasma gondii

A

Neospora caninum

65
Q

Causes of tissue atrophy include all except which of the following?
a.Decreased workload
b.Loss of innervation
c.Overuse
d.Inadequate nutrition

A

Overuse

66
Q

This is a type of necrosis that tends to develop at the distal aspect of extremities, such as the limbs, tail, or pinnae, or in dependent portions of organs, such as the mammary glands or lung lobes.
a.Coagulative
b.Caseous
c.Gangrenous
d.Liquefactive

A

Gangrenous

67
Q

Granulomatous pneumonia is characterized by the presence of caseous necrotic nodules in the lungs. Which of the following diseases will most likely result to this kind of lesion?
a.Enzootic pneumonia
b.PRRS
c.Tuberculosis
d.Influenza

A

Tuberculosis

68
Q

Which of the following is not a chemical mediator of acute inflammation?
a.Bradykinin
b.Interferon-γ
c.Tumor necrosis factor
d.Interleukin-1

A

Interferon-γ

69
Q

On sections of this tumor, the malignant cells form isolated lakes of cells that most of the time form keratin, known as “keratin pearls” and is diagnostic to what type of tumor?
a.Adenocarcinoma
b.Hemangiosarcoma
c.Squamous Cell Carcinoma
d.Melanoma

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

70
Q

Which if the following refers to a change from one mature cell type to another?
a.Neoplasia
b.Metaplasia
c.Hypertrophy
d.Hyperplasia

A

Metaplasia

71
Q

In high altitude regions, Cattles will most likely develop which of the following conditions due to chronic hypoxia?
a.Relative erythrocytosis
b.Primary erythrocytosis
c.Secondary erythrocytosis
d.Polycythemia vera

A

Secondary erythrocytosis

72
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to development of an anemic (white)infarct rather than a hemorrhagic (red) infarct?
a.Arterial occlusion
b.Venous occlusion
c.Infarction of loose tissue
d.Infarction of tissue with a dual blood supply

A

Arterial occlusion

73
Q

This pigment accounts for the blackening of the migration tracts of juvenile liver flukes (Fascioloides magna) in ruminants.
a.Hematin
b.Bilirubin
c.Melanin
d.Hemosiderin

A

Hematin

74
Q

You suspect that the animal has respiratory acidosis. What is likely the compensatory mechanism?
a.No compensatory mechanism.
b.Compensatory metabolic alkalosis due to renal excretion of H+.
c.Compensatory metabolic alkalosis due to renal excretion of HCO3-.
d.Compensatory respiratory alkalosis due to pulmonary excretion of H+.

A

Compensatory metabolic alkalosis due to renal excretion of H+

75
Q

A prolonged Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT) and moderately to severely low platelet count indicates:
a.Thrombocytopenia.
b.Intrinsic Pathway defect.
c.Factor VII deficiency.
d.Fulminant Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation.

A

Thrombocytopenia

76
Q

Which test is best used for screening Cushing’s disease in cats?
a.CBC
b.Low-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test
c.High-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test
d.ACTH Stimulation Test

A

Low-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test

77
Q

Type II hypersensitivity is:
a.Immediate type hypersensitivity
b.Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
c.Immune complex hypersensitivity
d.Delayed-type hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

78
Q

Which of the following is the most common valvular condition resulting in poor athletic performance by horses?
a.Mitral regurgitation
b.Aortic insufficiency
c.Tricuspid regurgitation
d.Atrial fibrillation

A

Mitral regurgitation

79
Q

In which of the following types of necrosis does the gross and microscopic architecture of the tissue and some of the cells remain recognizable?
Coagulation necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Malacia

A

Coagulation necrosis

80
Q

Which of the following erythrocyte parasites that occur in cat can be found epicellular?
a.Babesia felis
b.Mycoplasma haemofelis
c.Babesia cati
d.Cytauxzoon feli

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

81
Q

Tuberculin reaction, a diagnostic tool for tuberculosis is a:
a.Type I hypersensitivity
b.Type II hypersensitivity
c.Type III hypersensitivity
d.Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

82
Q

Bloat can be a major cause of sudden death in feedlot cattle. Bloat line is a characteristic lesion during necropsy of a deceased cattle affected by this condition. All of the following statements about ruminal typany is correct except:
Cervical esophagus is hemorrhagic and congested
Thoracic esophagus is pale and blanched
Primary ruminal tympany is caused by physical obstruction
Secondary ruminal tympany is also known as free-gas bloat

A

Primary ruminal tympany is caused by physical obstruction

83
Q

Which of the following cannot occur as a postmortem change?
a.Rigor mortis
b.Hemorrhage
c.Livor mortis
d.Discoloration

A

Hemorrhage

84
Q

This shape of erythrocytes is associated with hemolytic anemia and in reaction to certain drugs such as phenothiazine and chloramphenicol?
a.Echinocytes
b.Drepanocyte
c.Schizocyte
d.Dacryocyte

A

Dacryocyte

85
Q

This refers to the dilation of lymphatic vessels.
a.Lymphangiectasia
b.Hereditary lymphedema
c.Lymphangioma
d.Lymphangitis

A

Lymphangiectasia
Hereditary

86
Q

Necropsy of a debilitated bird reveals chalky, white streaks on the epicardium and within the kidney. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
a.Necrosis
b.Visceral gout
c.Mineralization
d.Purulent inflammation

A

Visceral gout

87
Q

Herpesvirus, paramyxovirus, adenovirus, calicivirus, retrovirus and prions causes this type of pneumonia in their respective host:
a.Bronchopneumonia
b.Interstitial pneumonia
c.Granulomatous pneumonia
d.Fibrinous pneumonia

A

Interstitial pneumonia

88
Q

In a Romanowsky-stained blood smear, which part of the cell will you check to differentiate neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils?
a. The color of the nucleus.
b. The segmentation of the nucleus.
c. The color of granules in the cytoplasm.
d. The segmentation of the cytoplasm.

A

The color of granules in the cytoplasm.

89
Q

Weanling horses are most prone to which of the following disorders?
a.Meconium impaction
b.Strangulating lipoma
c.Rectal prolapse
d.Ascarid impaction

A

Ascarid impaction

90
Q

Hare lip in puppies has been attributed to genetic abnormalities, excessive intake of vitamin A and cortisone therapy during gestation. Which of the following involves failure of premaxilla fusion and harelip?
a.Palatoschisis
b.Primary cleft palate
c.Secondary cleft palate
d.Cheilitis

A

Primary cleft palate

91
Q

Neoplastic cell populations of uncertain origin are called:
a.Anaplastic neoplasms
b.Mixed tumors
c.Benign tumors
d.Malignant tumors

A

Anaplastic neoplasms

92
Q

An infarct is which of the following?
a.An area of caseous necro sis
b.An embolus
c.An area of ischemic necrosis
d.Thrombosis

A

An area of ischemic necrosis

93
Q

Pandy test is a procedure to determine the presence of immunoglobulins in?
a.CSF
b.Milk
c.Peritoneal Fluid
d.Aqueous Humor

A

CSF

94
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable feature in differentiating between malignant and benign neoplasm?
a.Mitotic rate
b.Development of metastasis
c.Local invasiveness
d.Degree of differentiation

A

Development of metastasis

95
Q

Use of improperly buffered formalin may lead to formation of which of the following pigmented artifacts on histologic examination?
a.hemosiderin
b.iron
c.melanin
d.acid hematin

A

acid hematin

96
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus is a bypass between the pulmonary artery and aorta of a developing fetus. This bypass normally closes at birth or shortly after birth and forms into which of the following structures?
a.Ascending aorta
b.Foramen ovale
c.Ligamentum arteriosum
d.Pulmonary artery

A

Ligamentum arteriosum

97
Q

Chronic inflammation will result to which of the following exudates?
a.Purulent exudates
b.Granulomatous exudates
c.Hemorrhagic exudates
d.Catarrhal exudates

A

Granulomatous exudates

98
Q

A bruise is a result of ____:
a.hemorrhage
b.hematoma
c.ischemia
d.hyperemia

A

hemorrhage

99
Q

Which of the following testicular tumors causes feminization, alopecia, and squamous metaplasia of the prostate?
a.Interstitial cell tumor
b.Seminoma
c.Transitional cell carcinoma
d.Sertoli cell tumor

A

Sertoli cell tumor

100
Q

In epithelial cells, the transition from normal columnar epithelial lining to squamous epithelial lining is a form of:
a.aplasia
b.dysplasia
c.hyperplasia
d.metaplasia

A

metaplasia