Clinical Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

In neutrophil kinetics, what cells are present in the maturation neutrophil pool?
a.Rubriblasts, prorubricytes, and rubricytes.
b.Myeloblasts, progranulocytes, and myelocytes.
c.Myelocytes, metamyelocytes, and band neutrophils.
d.Metamyelocytes, band neutrophils, and segmented neutrophils.

A

Metamyelocytes, band neutrophils, and segmented neutrophils

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2
Q

How long does neutrophil circulate and marginate before entering the tissue?
a.A blood half-life of 1-2 minutes.
b.A blood half-life of 5-10 hours.
c.A blood half-life of 24-36 hours.
d.A blood half-life of 48-72 hours.

A

A blood half-life of 5-10 hours

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3
Q

Which neutrophil pool represents the blood sample you collected?
a.Marginated neutrophil pool.
b.Circulating neutrophil pool.
c.Tissue neutrophil pool.
d.Storage neutrophil pool.

A

Circulating neutrophil pool

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4
Q

When do you recalculate or correct a WBC count?
a.When the majority of WBCs are basophils.
b.When there are at least ten metarubricytes per 100 WBCs on a blood smear.
c.When there are at least ten reticulocytes per 100 WBCs on a blood smear.
d.Where the majority of neutrophils are hypersegmented on a blood smear.

A

When there are at least ten metarubricytes per 100 WBCs on a blood smear.

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5
Q

Which of the following is a condition that will likely result in a left-shift presentation?
a.Chronic tuberculosis.
b.Acute blood protozoan infection.
c.Chronic inflammation due to fungal infection.
d.Acute inflammation due to a pyogenic bacterium.

A

Acute inflammation due to a pyogenic bacterium

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6
Q

Which of the following will likely not cause hypersegmentation of neutrophils?
a. Poodle marrow dyscrasia.
b. Delayed analysis of blood samples.
c. Dexamethasone administration in dogs.
d. Acute inflammation due to severe necrosis.

A

Acute inflammation due to severe necrosis

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7
Q

Which of the following leukogram is a pattern that highly suggests chronic inflammation?
a. Leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, and monocytosis.
b. Leukopenia, neutropenia, increased band neutrophils, and lymphopenia.
c. Leukocytosis, neutrophilia with band neutrophils, lymphopenia, and monocytosis
d. Leukocytosis, neutrophilia with hypersegmentation, lymphopenia, and monocytosis.

A

Leukocytosis, neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, and monocytosis

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8
Q

What do you expect from the CBC result of an apparently healthy puppy?
a. Lymphocyte count above the upper reference limit.
b. Lymphocyte count below the upper reference limit.
c. Basophil count above the upper reference limit.
d. Eosinophil count below the upper reference limit.

A

Lymphocyte count above the upper reference limit.

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9
Q

In a Romanowsky-stained blood smear, which part of the cell will you check to differentiate neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils?
a. The color of the nucleus.
b. The segmentation of the nucleus.
c. The color of granules in the cytoplasm.
d. The segmentation of the cytoplasm.

A

The color of granules in the cytoplasm

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10
Q

What components of the erythrocyte indices are used to classify anemia?
a. MCV and MCHC.
b. MCH and MCHC.
c. MCV and RDW.
d. MCH and MCHC.

A

MCV and MCHC

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11
Q

Reticulocytosis is the best indicator of enhanced erythropoiesis, except in:
a. Horses.
b. Cattle.
c. Dogs.
d. Cats.

A

Horses

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12
Q

When do you expect to observe reticulocytosis after acute blood loss in dogs?
a. 1-2 days after.
b. 3-4 days after.
c. 10-14 days after.
d. 30-60 days after.

A

3-4 days after

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13
Q

In the CBC result, this parameter reflects the variation in RBC volume.
a. RDW
b. MCV
c. MCH
d. Hct

A

RDW

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14
Q

What is the effect of in vitro hemolysis on spun Hct?
a. RBC count not affected.
b. Hct below the reference limit.
c. Hct above the reference limit
d. Hct within the reference interval.

A

Hct below the reference limit

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15
Q

Which of the following is used to group the blood type in dogs?
a. AB system.
b. DEA system.
c. A, B, AB and O system.
d. A, C, D, K, P, Q, and U system.

A

DEA system

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16
Q

Which of the following causes normocytic normochromic anemia?
a. Babesiosis.
b. Iron deficiency.
c. Chronic renal disease.
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency.

A

Chronic renal disease

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17
Q

Which of the following is a condition that will likely exhibit a decreased MCV and MCHC?
a. Babesiosis.
b. Iron deficiency.
c. Metarubricytosis.
d. In vitro hemolysis.

A

Iron deficiency

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in dogs and cats?
a. Babesiosis.
b. Dietary deficiency.
c. Chronic GIT hemorrhage.
d. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia.

A

Chronic GIT hemorrhage

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19
Q

Which is not a mechanism by which intravascular hemolysis may occur?
a. Osmotic lysis of RBCs.
b. Oxidative injury of RBCs.
c. Complement-mediated RBC destruction.
d. Increased phagocytosis of RBCs by macrophage.

A

Increased phagocytosis of RBCs by macrophage

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20
Q

A hit-by-car cat was brought to the clinic for immediate veterinary medication. The cat suffered from severe acute hemorrhage and was initially given fluid. What do you think is the morphological classification of anemia if you examine the cat’s blood on that day?
a. Macrocytic hypochromic.
b. Microcytic hypochromic.
c. Macrocytic normochromic.
d. Normocytic normochromic.

A

Normocytic normochromic

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21
Q

An increase in RBC count, Hgb concentration, and hematocrit of a dog left at home for 3 days after his owner had a vacation are suggestive of:
a. Dehydration.
b. Iron deficiency.
c. Acute blood loss.
d. Rodenticide poisoning.

A

Dehydration

22
Q

Which of the following stimulates megakaryocyte production?
a. EPO.
b. IL-6.
c. TPO.
d. TNF-alpha.

A

TPO

23
Q

Which of the following pathogens can be seen inside the platelet cell?
a. Hepatozoon canis.
b. Anaplasma platys.
c. Babesia canis.
d. Anaplasma marginale.

A

Anaplasma platys

24
Q

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of severe thrombocytopenia?
a. DIC and anemia.
b. Petechiae and ecchymoses.
c. Thrombosis and aneurysm.
d. Leukocytosis and anemia.

A

Petechiae and ecchymoses

25
Q

Platelet adhesion, an important initial event in the control of bleeding, is primarily mediated by:
a. Fibrin.
b. Thromboxane.
c. Platelet factor 3.
d. Von Willebrand factor.

A

Von Willebrand factor

26
Q

A prolonged Buccal Mucosal Bleeding Time (BMBT) and moderately to severely low platelet count indicates:
a.Thrombocytopenia.
b.Intrinsic Pathway defect.
c.Factor VII deficiency.
d.Fulminant Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation.

A

Thrombocytopenia

27
Q

This type of blood cancer is characterized by predominant leukocytes at the blastic stages:
a. Myeloma.
b. Histiocytoma.
c. Acute leukemia.
d. Chronic leukemia.

A

Acute leukemia

28
Q

Which of the following indicates a neoplastic condition in which lymphocytes are present in bone marrow and/or blood that is not associated with a solid tumor?
a. Lymphoma.
b. Myeloma.
c. Histiocytoma.
d. Lymphoid leukemia.

A

Lymphoid leukemia

29
Q

You are examining a sample from a chylous effusion. Which cells do you expect to observe in your diagnostic cytology preparation?
a. Predominantly lymphocytes with very few neutrophils.
b. Predominantly neutrophils with very few lymphocytes.
c. Predominantly macrophages with very few neutrophils.
d. Predominantly mast cells with very few neutrophils.

A

Predominantly lymphocytes with very few neutrophils

30
Q

Which of the following refers to a malignant neoplasm of mesenchymal cell origin?
a. Sarcoma.
b. Carcinoma.
c. Metaplasia.
d. Dysplasia.

A

Sarcoma

31
Q

Which of the following best describes positive acute phase proteins?
a. They are exemplified by albumin and transferrin.
b. They have increased concentrations during first day of inflammation.
c. They have increased concentrations after a week of inflammation.
d. They have decreased concentrations during first day of inflammation.

A

They have increased concentrations during first day of inflammation

32
Q

What do you conclude in an assay showing increased levels of C-reactive protein?
a. There is an acute inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection.
b. There is a chronic inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection.
c. There is an immune-mediated hemolytic anemia.
d. There is a lack of vitamin C in the body.

A

There is an acute inflammation possibly due to bacterial infection

33
Q

The majority (~95%) of the CO2 in the blood is in the form of:
a. Bicarbonate ion.
b. Carbonic acid.
c. Hydrogen ion.
d. Water.

A

Bicarbonate ion

34
Q

A pathophysiologic state in which a nonrespiratory process causes an accumulation of H+ in the blood and a decrease in plasma or serum [HCO3-].
a. Metabolic acidosis.
b. Respiratory acidosis.
c. Metabolic alkalosis.
d. Respiratory alkalosis.

A

Metabolic acidosis

35
Q

Which of the following parameters are measured on a routine blood gas analysis?
a. pH, PO2, PCO2, & [HCO3-].
b. pH, PO2, PCO2, & [Na+].
c. pH, PO2, PCO2, & [Cl-] .
d. pH only.

A

pH, PO2, PCO2, & [HCO3-]

36
Q

Why will vomiting likely lead to metabolic alkalosis?
a. A significant loss of H+ and a disproportionate loss of Cl- from stomach.
b. A reduced [CO2] and a disproportionate loss of Cl- from stomach.
c. A loss of HCO3- from the body through the kidney.
d. A significant loss of H+ through the kidney.

A

A significant loss of H+ and a disproportionate loss of Cl- from stomach

37
Q

You suspect that the animal has respiratory acidosis. What is likely the compensatory mechanism?
a.No compensatory mechanism.
b.Compensatory metabolic alkalosis due to renal excretion of H+.
c.Compensatory metabolic alkalosis due to renal excretion of HCO3-.
d.Compensatory respiratory alkalosis due to pulmonary excretion of H+.

A

Compensatory respiratory alkalosis due to pulmonary excretion of H+

38
Q

You are presented with a dog that has eaten plenty of grapes, and suspected that the hypercalcemia result is linked to grape toxicosis. What is likely the underlying pathology?
a. Hypercalcemic acute renal failure.
b. Histiocyte-producing Vitamin D.
c. Excessive ingestion of Vitamin D.
d. Hyperparathyroidism.

A

Hypercalcemic acute renal failure

39
Q

A cell membrane-associated enzyme used to detect cholestatic hepatobiliary disease in small animals.
a. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).
b. Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT).
c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT).
d. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP).

A

Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

40
Q

Which of the following is likely not very useful in assessing liver function?
a. Serum creatinine level.
b. Serum albumin level.
c. Serum alanine aminotransferase activity.
d. Serum alkaline phosphatase activity.

A

Serum creatinine level

41
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be found in urine from a typical patient?
a.Urea
b.Creatinine
c.Albumin
d.Potassium

A

Albumin

42
Q

Which of the following are markers of glomerular filtration rate?
a.Blood Urea Nitrogen and Creatinine
b.Urine Specific Gravity and Urine Sediment Examination
c.Gross features and chemical constituents of urine
d.Cystatin C and Urine Specific Gravity

A

Blood Urea Nitrogen and Creatinine

43
Q

Which of the following could lead to prerenal azotemia?
a.Renal amyloidosis
b.Urolithiasis
c.Glomerulonephritis
d.Hypovolemia

A

Hypovolemia

44
Q

The following are cellular components being evaluated in a urine sample, except:
a.Sperm cells
b.Leukocytes
c.Epithelial Cells
d.Struvite

A

Struvite

45
Q

Which of the following are measured as an imperfect aid to diagnose a pancreatic injury clinically?
a.Amylase and Lipase
b.Creatine Kinase and Lipase
c.trypsin-like immunoreactivity and Creatine Kinase
d.Alanine aminotransferase and Lipase

A

Amylase and Lipase

46
Q

Which condition uses Creatinine Kinase as a diagnostic marker?
a.Exercise-induced rhabdomyolysis in horses
b.Equine protozoal neuritis (Sarcocystis neurona)
c.Immune-mediated polymyositis
d.All of the choices

A

All of the choices

47
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for feline hyperthyroidism?
a.Total serum T4 concentration
b.TRH stimulation test
c.T3 suppression test
d.ALP, ALT, AST tests

A

Total serum T4 concentration

48
Q

Which test is best used for screening Cushing’s disease in cats?
a.CBC
b.Low-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test
c.High-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test
d.ACTH Stimulation Test

A

Low-Dose Dexamethasone Suppression Test

49
Q

In cytopathology, this refers to the deformation of nuclei by other nuclei within the same cell or adjacent cells.
a.Angular nucleoli
b.Nuclear molding
c.Multinucleation
d.Macrokaryosis

A

Nuclear molding

50
Q

Which cell is not likely present in a blood smear from a psittacine?
a.Heterophils
b.Thrombocytes
c.Neutrophils
d.Eosinophils

A

Neutrophils