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PLE 2018 > Surgery > Flashcards

Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Type of burn that heals in 5-21 days

A

Second degree superficial burn

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2
Q

Second degree deep dermal burn heals in

A

3 weeks

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3
Q

Third degree burn heals in

A

Non-healing

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4
Q

Most common skin malignancy worldwide

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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5
Q

Premalignant lesions of SCC of the skin

A

Bowen’s disease

Actinic keratosis

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6
Q

Borchardt triad (chest pain, retching and inability to pass NGT) is indicative of

A

incarcerated intrathoracic stomach

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7
Q

Most effectivd nonsurgical tx of achalasia

A

Pneumatic dilatation

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8
Q

most common primary esophageal motility disorder

A

nutcracker esophagus

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9
Q

most common esophageal diverticula

A

Zenker

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10
Q

gold standard for GERD

A

24h ambulatory pH monitoring

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11
Q

gold standard for achalasia

A

manometry

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12
Q

gold standard for gastric CA

A

upper endoscopy + biopsy

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13
Q

Nerves in the spermatic cord

A

Autonomic nerves
Genital branch of genitofemoral
Ilioinguinal

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14
Q

Arteries and veins in the spermatic cord

A

Testicular
Vas deferens
Cremasteric

(TVC)

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15
Q

Tx of high grade dysplasia of esophagus

A

esophagectomy

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16
Q

Contraindications for curative surgery in esophageal CA

A 
>75 yo
>20% weight loss
Horner syndrome
paralysis of diaphragm
malignant pleural eff
>9cm length
>4 LN involved
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17
Q

maneuver that mobilizes the fixed portions of the duodenum

A

Kocher maneuver

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18
Q

Nerve at the posterior fundus responsible for ulcer recurrence

A

Criminal nerve of Grassi (from R vagus)

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19
Q

Most common site of gastric ulcer and gastric adenoCA

A

Incisura angularis

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20
Q

Standard test to confirm eradication of H. pylori post-treatment

A

Urease breath test

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21
Q

Most common type of PUD (not associated with increased acid secretion)

A

Type I

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22
Q

Types of PUD associated with increased acid secretion

A

Type II and III

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23
Q

Minimum amount of blood for a positive FOBT

A

20 mL

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24
Q

Minimum amount of blood for the symptom of melena

A

50 mL

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25
Q

Surgery is indicated for PUD when the location of the ulcer is at the

A

posterior duodenal bulb

gastric lesser curvature

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26
Q

Truncal vagotomy is always followed by

A

Gastric drainage

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27
Q

In high selective vagotomy, which GI function is spared?

A

Motor function to stomach

decreased chance of gastric atony

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28
Q

Nonsurgical mngt for early dumping syndrome

A

Octreotide (splanchnic vasoconstrictor)

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29
Q

Nonsurgical management of late dumping syndrome

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

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30
Q

Surgical mngt of dumping syndrome

A

Roux en Y anastomosis

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31
Q

Diagnostic test to localize gastrinoma

A

Octreotide scan

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32
Q

Common location of gastrinoma

A

Passaro’s triangle

Head of pancreas or duodenum

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33
Q

Most common risk factors for gastric adenoCA

A

H pylori

Autoimmune gastritis

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34
Q

Acillary lymphadenopathy in gastric adenoca

A

Irish node

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35
Q

dropmets to ovary in gastric adenoca

A

krukenberg tumor

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36
Q

dropmets to culdesac in gastric adenoca

A

blumer shelf

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37
Q

gastric lymphoma is associated with which malignancy

A

B-cell NHL

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38
Q

Mngt of lowgrade gastric lymphoma

A

H pylori eradication

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39
Q

Mngt of high grade gastric lymphoma

A

chemoradiation

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40
Q

Malignancy arising from interstitial cells of Cajal

A

GIST

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41
Q

Tx for unresectable GIST

A

Imatinib

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

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42
Q

Type of malignancy arising from gastric ECL cells

A

Gastric carcinoid

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44
Q

gastric lesion characterized by diffuse hyperplasia of surface mucus-secreting cells & decreased parietal cells

assoc with protein-losing enteropathy & hypochlorhydria

A

Menetrier disease

hypertrophic gastropathy

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45
Q

congenital AVM in stomach

usually with large tortuous submucosal artery

A

Dieulafoy lesion

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46
Q

Maneuver done to decrease blood supply to the liver

A

Pringle maneuver

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47
Q

First line treatment for primary SBP

A

Cefotaxime

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48
Q

Parameters for child-turcotte-pugh scoring (surgical risks / mortality)

A 
Nutritional status
Ascites
Encephalopathy
Serum albumin
Serum bilirubin
PT or INR
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49
Q

pressure necessary for esophageal barices to form and bleed

A

> 12 mmHg

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50
Q

Pharmacologic therapy for acute variceal bleed

A

Octreotide

Vasopressin

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51
Q

Medication given to prevent variceal bleeding and reduce mortality by 50%

A

Beta blockers

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52
Q

Most consistent symptom of carcinoid

A

flushing

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53
Q

targeted treatment for HER2-positive breast CA

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

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54
Q

Most differentiated variant of breast CA with the best prognosis

A

Tubular CA

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55
Q

Breast CA with a high propensity for bilaterality, multicentricity, multifocality

A

Lobular CA

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56
Q

Breast CA that carries the worst prognosis

A

Inflammatory CA

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57
Q

Most common form of liver abscess worldwide

A

Amebic liver abscess

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58
Q

clearest risk factor for devt of adenoma

A

OCP use

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59
Q

percutaneous UTZ-guided biopsy is absolutely contraindicated in which 2 conditions of liver

A

hemangioma and adenoma

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60
Q

most common malignant liver tumor

A

metastatic

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61
Q

extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma occuring at the hepatic duct confluence

A

Klatskin tumor

62
Q

most common congenital anomaly of pancreas

A

pancreas divisum

63
Q

most common peripheral arterial aneurysm

A

popliteal artery aneurysm

64
Q

LMWH should be given in DVT patients for how long

65
Q

consistently used as a marker of injury response due to its dynamic reflection of inflammation

66
Q

potent inducer of acute phase proteins

67
Q

Surgical tx of malrotation

A

Ladd’s procedure

68
Q

Most abundant amino acid in the body

69
Q

characterized by chronic eczematoid eruption of the nipple

A

Paget’s disease

70
Q

Paget’s disease presents with elevated level of

71
Q

burst fracture of atlas

A

Jefferson fracture

72
Q

fracture of pars interarticularis of axis

A

Hangman fracture

73
Q

stress fracture of 2nd metatarsal

A

March fracture

74
Q

fracture with dislocation of tarsometatarsal joint

A

Lisfranc fracture dislocation

75
Q

fracture of the base of 5th metatarsal bone

A

Jones’ fracture

76
Q

hip condition with shallow acetabulum resulting in lateral displacement of femoral head

A

developmental dysplasia of the hip

77
Q

pediatric conditions presenting with bilious vomiting and minimal distention

A

Malrotation

Duodenal atresia

78
Q

anatomical structures preserved in modified radical neck dissection

A

SCM
spinal accessory nerve
IJV

79
Q

Mngt of developmental hip dysplasia in a 2-year old

A

Femoral osteotomy

15 mos to 2 yrs

80
Q

pediatric orthopedic condition presenting with positive trethowan’s sign

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

81
Q

EBV is associated with what type of epithelial cancer (2)

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Gastric carcinoma

82
Q

when does epithelialization begin in a superficial cutaneous wound?

A

within 24 hours

83
Q

fracture of distal third of humerus entrapping the radial nerve

A

Holstein-Lewis fracture

84
Q

fracture of the radial styloid

A

Hutchinson’s / Chauffeur’s fracture

85
Q

Mammographic features suggestive of a diagnosis of breast CA

A
  • solid mass with or without stellate features
  • asymmetric thickening of breast tissue
  • clustered microcalcifications
86
Q

annual mammogram screening should be started at

87
Q

neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer is started at what stage

A

stage IIIa

88
Q

Munro microabscesses (neutrophils in stratum corneum) are seen in

89
Q

strongest chemotactic factor for fibroblasts

90
Q

Boas’ sign

A

referred right subscapular pain of biliary colic

91
Q

What stage of breast CA? Tx?

T2N1M0
T3N0M0

A

Stage IIB

BCS +/- adjuvant chemo/RT

92
Q

ulnar nerve entrapment at the elbow and wrist is called ______ and _______ syndrome respectively

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome

Tunnel of Guyon syndrome

93
Q

Hallmarks of hemolytic transfusion reaction in anesthetized patients

A

Diffuse bleeding and hypotension

94
Q

Syndrome characterized by dilatation of the colon in the absence of any mechanical obstruction in severely ill patients

A

Ogilvie syndrome

95
Q

bird’s beak sign (2)

A

achalasia

sigmoid volvulus

96
Q

Felty’s syndrome (3)

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia

97
Q

bird’s beak sign (2)

A

achalasia

sigmoid volvulus

98
Q

bird’s beak sign (2)

A

achalasia

sigmoid volvulus

99
Q

bird’s beak sign (2)

A

achalasia

sigmoid volvulus

100
Q

most common type of volvulus

A

sigmoid volvulus

101
Q

most commonly dislocated joint

A 
glenohumeral joint
(anterior > posterior)
102
Q

most common type of pediatric fracture

A

Salter-Harris Type II

epiphysis + metaphysis

103
Q

isolated closed fracture of the radial shaft

A

Piedmont fracture

104
Q

most common site of non union

A

distal tibia

105
Q

causative agent of hydatid cyst

A

echinococcus granulosus

106
Q

most common functional pancreatic endocrine neoplasm

A

insulinoma

107
Q

tx of primary SBP

A

cefotaxime (3rd gen ceph)

108
Q

most vulnerable segment of colon to obstruction

A

sigmoid

volvulus, divertic

109
Q

most vulnerable segment of colon to perforation

110
Q

most vulnerable segment of colon to ischemia

A

splenic flexure

111
Q

coffee bean sign / bent inner tube sign on radiography is seen in

A

Sigmoid volvulus

112
Q

antidote for beta blocker toxicity

113
Q

most common malignancy that metastasize to the thyroid

A

renal cell CA

114
Q

treatment of MTC and hurthle cell CA

A

total / near total thyroidectomy + bilateral central node dissection

115
Q

FNAB findibg of anaplastic CA of the thyroid

A

giant multinucleated cells

116
Q

most common variant of congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

posterolateral (Bochdalek)

117
Q

selective node dissection for thyroid gland malignancies

A

posterolateral node dissection

118
Q

tx of inflammatory carcinoma of the breast

A

neoadjuvant chemotherapy (adriamycin containing)

119
Q

routine screening mammography for women

A

> 50 y/o (Schwartz)

> 40 y/o (recent guidelines)

120
Q

indications for bariatric surgery

A

BMI >35 with comorbids

>40 without comorbids

121
Q

most common cause of cataract

122
Q

sx of acute angle closure glaucoma (3)

A

mid dilated pupil
ciliary injection
hazy cornea
(+ eye pain)

123
Q

ophthalmologic diagnostic procedure that can visualize the anterior chamber angle

A

gonioscopy

124
Q

events that promote the greatest severity of nitrogen wasting

A

major burns
severe sepsis
skeletal trauma
elective surgery

125
Q

GI secretion with the highest potassium content

126
Q

most common source of fluid loss in a surgical patient

A

gastrointestinal

127
Q

IV solution that most commonly approximates ECF

128
Q

indications for damage control surgery (lethal triad / bloody vicious cycle)

A

hypothermia
metab acidosis
coagulopathy

129
Q

Screening mammography

A

25 y/o (BRCA gene)
40 y/o (American Cancer Society)
50 y/o (Schwartz)

130
Q

Tx of toxic MNG / Plummer Disease

131
Q

Modt common type of scoliosis

A

Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis

132
Q

Structure involved in Golfer’s elbow? Tennis elbow?

A

Golfer’s - pronator teres

Tennis - extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon

133
Q

most common site of hypertensive ICH

134
Q

Most common primary brain tumor

A

astrocytoma

135
Q

Most common levels of cervical disc syndrome

A

C5-6, C6-7

136
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes of bronchogenic CA

A

SCLC - hyperCalcemia
Adenoca - pAncoast tumor
Squamous - Svc syndrome

SIADH, Cushings, Lambert Eaton

137
Q

Neuromuscular paraneoplastic syndrome similar to myasthenia

A

Laambert Eaton Syndrome

138
Q

Tx of SCLC / Oat cell CA

A

Chemoradiation

139
Q

Preop pulmo function for lobectomy?

pneumonectomy?

A

FEV 1 > 1.5 L

> 2 L

140
Q

Most common type of VSD needing surgical intervention

A

Perimembranous (80%)

141
Q

Most common type of VSD

142
Q

shunt between subclavian artery and pulmonary artery

A

Blalock - Taussig shunt

143
Q

Shunt between SVC and R pulmonary artery

A

Glenn shunt

144
Q

most common brain herniation syndrome

A

subfalcine / cingulate

145
Q

most dramatic and 2nd most common brain herniation syndrome

A

uncal transtentorial herniation

146
Q

most common incomplete SCI

A

central cord syndrome

147
Q

incomplete SCI with the worst prognosis

A

anterior spinal artery syndrome

148
Q

neurogenic claudication is pathognomonic of

A

lumbar spinal canal stenosis

149
Q

conditions assoc w/ cleft lip and palate

A

maternal DM
rubella
toxoplasmosis

150
Q

drugs assoc with cleft lip and palate

A

steroids
anticonvulsants
diazepam

PLE 2018 (12 decks)

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