Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
NSAIDs with the highest risk for causing PUD (2)
A
Ketorolac
Piroxicam
2
Q
100mg of Hydrocortisone is how many mg of Prednisone?
A
25mg
3
Q
Dose-limiting toxicity of acyclovir
A
Nephrotoxicity
4
Q
Antiviral drug that gets deposited in bones
A
Foscarnet
5
Q
Antifungal that inhibits squalene epoxide
A
Terbinafine
6
Q
Antifungals that require low gastric pH for absorption (2)
A
Ketoconazole
Itraconazole
7
Q
Only clinical indication of griseofulvin
A
Systemic treatment of dermatophytosis
8
Q
MOA of griseofulvin
A
binds to microtubules (like VINca alkaloids)
9
Q
DOC for neurocysticercosis
A
Albendazole
10
Q
DOC for Schistosomiasis
A
Praziquantel
11
Q
Steroid preparation of choice for pulse therapy of autoimmune conditions
A
Methylprednisolone
12
Q
Antifungal causing gynecomastia, decreased sperm count and libido
A
Ketoconazole
13
Q
The CNS toxicity of amantadine and rimantadine is due to alteration of which neurotransmitters?
A
Dopamine neurotransmitters
14
Q
Anti-influenza agent administered using an inhaler device
A
Zanamivir
15
Q
Antiviral that prevents vertical transmission of HBV when given in the last 4 weeks of gestation
A
Lamivudine
16
Q
Antiviral used for topical treatment of condylomata acuminata and actinic keratosis
A
Imiquimod
17
Q
Lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis and fat atrophy with NRTI use
A
HIV lipodystrophy syndrome
18
Q
NRTI active against HIV-1 that can cause fatal hypersensitivity syndrome
A
Abacavir
19
Q
only HIV protease inhibitor with sulfonamide moiety
A
Amprenavir / Fos amprenavir
20
Q
untoward side effect peculiar to Atazanavir
A
Prolonged PR interval
Increased QT interval
21
Q
Major adverse effect of bisphosphonates if not ingested properly
A
Esophageal ulceration
22
Q
DPP-4 inhibitor with no renal adjustments since it is excreted in the bile
A
Linagliptin
23
Q
OHA that decreases postprandial glucose and fasting glucose by inhibition of glucagon release
A
DPP-4 inhibitors
24
Q
Antidote for silver poisoning
A
NSS
25
Antidote for copper poisoning
Milk
26
Osteoporotic drug with both antiresorptive and boneforming action
Strontium ranelate
27
Catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
Streptokinase
28
Antiarryhthmic with the slowest binding kinetics?
Class IC (flecainide)
29
Diuretic indicated for acute mountain sickness
Acetazolamide
30
Digoxin can be used in which type of arrhythmias?
Atrial flutter & fibrillation for rate control
| contraindicated in AF in WFW -> may go to VFib
31
Drugs causing SLE-like adverse effect
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Methyldopa
32
Only ACEi with a sulfa group
Captopril
33
ACEi used to prevent recurrence of stroke
Perindopril
34
Immunosuppressant that inhibits calcineurin
Ciclosporine
35
Immunosuppresant that is cleaved to its active metabolite 6-mercaptopurine in vivo
Azathioprine
36
1st biological drug (monoclonal antibody) approved for the tx of asthma
Omalizumab
37
Ondansetron is an antagonist of which serotonin receptor?
5-HT3
| for n/v prophylaxis
38
M3 receptor antagonist used in motion sickness
Scopolamine
39
Antihistamine with anti-EPS effect
Diphenhydramine (ethanolamines)
40
Give the receptor involved and indication of Buspirone
5-HT1 partial agonist
| For anxiety
41
Give the receptor involved and indication of Sumatriptan
5HT1b/1d partial agonist
| for acute migraine
42
Serotonin receptor antagonist used for pheochromocytoma
Phenoxybenzamine (5HT2)
43
5HT4 agonist indicated for GERD
Cisapride
44
Gove the prostanoid of choice to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus
Alprostadil (PGE1)
45
Give the prostanoid of choice for pulmonary hypertension
Epoprostenol (PGI2)
46
Antiarryhthmic most notorious for reentry
Class IC
| Flecainide
47
Antiarryhthmic most notorious for causing torsades de pointes
Class III
Sotalol
Ibutilide
48
Coverage of colistin
Gram negative increased resistant strains
| NO gram + and anaerobic coverage
49
Carbapenem with greatest potential for seizure
Imipenem
50
Bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitors
Aminoglycosides
| Streptogramins (Quinupristin - Dalfopristin)
51
Bactericidal antibiotic that can’t be used for pneumonia because of inactivation by surfactants
Daptomycin
52
FQ with anaerobic coverage
Moxifloxacin
53
Most common adverse effect from prolonged use of linezolid
Reversible thrombocytopenia
54
Anticonvulsant that is an inhibitor of CYP450
Valproic acid
55
Anticonvulsants that are inducers of CYP450
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine
56
Anticonvulsants that are either CYP450 inducer or inhibitor
Oxcarbazepine
| Topiramate
57
Only serotonin receptor that is ligand-gated
5HT3
58
Drugs used for alzheimer’s disease
Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine
59
Neurotransmitters involved in Parkinson’s disease
Low dopamine
| High acetylcholine
60
Tremors as predominant manifestation of Parkinson’s disease will most likely benefit from this drug
Biperiden (antimuscarinic)
61
Majority of antiseizure drugs are cleared by hepatic mechanisms, except:
Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Topiramate
62
Antiseizures effective for myoclonic type
Valproic acid
Topiramate
Levetiracetam
Clonazepam *
63
Antiseizures effective in absence type
Ethosuximide *
Valproic acid
Lamotrigine
64
Eicosanoid that decreases intraocular pressure
PGF2a
65
Adverse effect of phenytoin
Hirsutism
| Gingival hyperplasia
66
Inhaled anesthetic that causes tonic-clonic seizures
Enflurane
67
Nephrotoxic inhaled anesthetics
Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
Methoxyflurane
68
Least potent inhalational anesthetic
Nitrous oxide
69
Drug for extraintestinal amebiasis
Chloroquine
70
Luminal amebicide
Paromomycin
Iodoquinol
Diloxanide furoate
71
Antimalarials that are gametocidal against all 4 species
Primaquine
| Artemisinin
72
Antimalarial with no potential for causing cardiac abnormalities
Artemisinin
73
DOC for neurocysticercosis
Albendazole
74
DOC for Schistosomiasis
Praziquantel
75
Androgen receptor antagonists
Cyproterone acetate (partial, with progestin activity)
Flutamide (full)
Spironolactone
76
Teratogenic effect of carbamazepine
Neural tube defects
77
Drugs with significant adverse effects on the fetus if taken anytime during pregnancy
```
ACEi
Amphetamines
Barbiturates
Cocaine
Diazepam
Phenytoin
Streptomycin
Valproic acid
```
78
Benzodiazepines most appropriate for acute panic anxiety disorders?
Clonazepam
Alprazolam
(short-acting)
79
Antipsychotic with the best safety profile
Asenapine
80
Fast dissociating D2 antagonist
Quetiapine
81
2nd generation atypical antipsychotic
Aripiprazole
| dopamine agonist
82
NRTI causing anemia
Zidovudine
83
NRTI causing hepatotoxicity
Emtricitabine
84
NRTI causing nephrotoxicity
Tenofovir
85
NRTI causing hypersensitivity
Abacavir
86
NNRTI causing abnormal dreams
Efavirenz
87
Protease inhibitor causing hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities
Ritonavir
88
Antiretroviral entry inhibitors
Enfuvirtide
| Maraviroc (hepatotoxicity)
89
Antiretroviral integrase inhibitors
Raltegravir
| Elvitegravir
90
Selective MAO B inhibitor used in Parkinson Disease
Selegiline
91
Used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and acute tx
Edrophonium
92
Drug of choice for AML
Cytarabine
93
Single most active agent in CLL
Fludarabine
94
Chemoprotective agent of choice to minimize unwanted effect of Cisplatin
Amifostine
95
drug that inhibits COX-3
acetaminophen
96
half-life of glucagon
3 to 6 minutes
97
Opioid with the shortest duration of action
Fentanyl
98
Abuse of which substance causes intense, incapacitating anxiety (flashback symptoms)
Mescaline
99
pKa of most anesthetics
8-9
100
local anesthetic causing methemoglobinemia with the accumulation of O toludine
Prilocaine
101
Reverses rocuronium by chelation
sugammadex
102
combined alpha1 and beta blockers (3 drugs)
Carvedilol
Nebivolol
Labetalol
103
DOC for prinzmetal’s angina
CCB (nifedipine)
104
antidote for benzodiazepine
flumazenil
105
antidote for heavy metals (mercury, copper)
dimercaptosuccinic acid
| penicillamine
106
antidote for fibrinolytic agents (bleeding)
aminocaproic acid
107
NMDA receptor antagonist used for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease
Memantine
108
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease
Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine
Tacrine (hepatotoxic)
109
dopamine receptor agonist useful in Parkinson’s disease
Pramipexole
110
Drugs that reduce IOP by increasing outflow
Cholinomimetics (pilocarpine)
Prostaglandins (latanoprost)
nonselective alpha agonists
111
what is the enzyme inhibited by dapsone
dihydropteroate synthase
112
adverse effects of dapsone
dose-related hemolysis
| methemoglobinemia
113
adverse effect of clofazimine
blue black discoloration of lesions and skin
114
treatment of erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)
thalidomide
corticosteroids
clofazimine
115
adverse effects of sitagliptin
URTI
acute pancreatitis
allergies
116
Rapid acting insulins
Lispro (B28 and B29)
Aspart (B28)
Glulisine(B29)
117
Long acting insulins
Detemir
| Glargine
118
loss of BMD and increased risk of fracture are seen in which type of antiDM drugs
TZDs and SGLT2 inhibitors
119
most toxic aminoglycoside causeing irreversible ototoxicity
Neomycin
120
Least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside
Amikacin
121
bowel amoebicides
tetracycline
| erythromycin
122
low potency steroids for AD
hydrocortisone 1%
| desonide 0.05%
123
midpotency steroids for AD
mometasone 0.1%
| fluticasone 0.05%
124
high potency steroids for AD
clobetasol
| betamethasone diproprionate 0.05%
125
only anesthetic that can increase HR and BP
ketamine
126
antimetabolites that have increased toxicity when given with allopurinol
azathioprine
6-mercaptopurine
(bec they are metabolized by xanthine oxidase)
127
Neuromuscular blocker that undergoes hoffman elimination
Atracurium
128
NNRTIs (3)
Delavirdine
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
129
antiarrhythmic DOC for prompt conversion of paroxysmal SVT to sinus
adenosine
130
Only azole with significant activity against mucormycosis ;
azole with broadest spectrum
Posaconazole
131
type of drug interaction effect for probenecid and penicillin
potentiation
132
drugs for Alzheimer’s disease
| low Acetylcholine
“Gaaah, i Don’T ReMember”
```
Galantamine
Donepezil
Tacrine
Rivastigmine
Memantine
```
133
Drugs for Parkinson
```
too much tremors - “LABAS PT”
Levodopa
Amantadine
Bromocriptine (D2)
Anticholinergic (Biperiden)
Selegiline (MAO-B inhibitor)
Pramipexole (D3)
Tolcapone (COMT inhibitor)
```
134
Most antiseizure drugs are not highly protein-bound, except:
“Protein Vound”
Phenytoin
Valproic acid
135
Majority of antiseizure drugs are cleared by hepatic mechanisms, except: (renal)
```
“Gabby Likes To Pee”
Gabapentin
Levetiracetam
Topiramate
Pregabalin
```
136
Anesthetic that increases HR and BP; can have a dissociative sedative effect
Ketamine
137
PGI2 used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension
Epoprostanol
138
diuretic that can be used for nephrolithiasis and nephrogenic DI
hydrochlorothiazide
139
diuretic effective for ARF and can flush out intratubular casts
furosemide
140
diuretic that increases excretion of calcium and magnesium
furosemide
| loop diuretics
141
bulk-forming agents
psyllium seeds
methylcellulose
bran
142
stool softeners
sodium docusate
| mineral oil
143
osmotic laxatives
milk of magnesia
sorbitol
lactulose
144
stimulant laxatives / cathartics
castor oil
| bisacodyl
145
steroid with a very potent mineralocorticoid effect
Fludrocortisone
146
DOC for treatment and secondary prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis
fluconazole
147
antiretroviral drugs that are safe for pregnancy
NRTI: lamivudine, zidovudine
NNRTI: nevirapine
PI: lopinavir, ritonavir
148
ovulation-inducing agent that mimics LH surge
HCG
149
class of oral hypoglycemic agents that can inhibit glucagon release
DPP-4 inhibitors
| and pramlintide
150
teratogenic effects of warfarin per trimester
1st: hypoplastic nasal bridge
2nd: CNS malformations
3rd: risk of bleeding
151
antiosteoporotic drug that opposes the bone-resorbing action of PTH
Estrogen
152
antibiotics considered safe during pregnancy
```
amoxicillin
co-amox
penicillin
ampicillin
cephalosporin
erythromycin
isoniazid
ethambutol
```
153
synergistic with statins to decrease LDL
ezetimibe
