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PLE 2018 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

NSAIDs with the highest risk for causing PUD (2)

A

Ketorolac

Piroxicam

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2
Q

100mg of Hydrocortisone is how many mg of Prednisone?

A

25mg

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3
Q

Dose-limiting toxicity of acyclovir

A

Nephrotoxicity

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4
Q

Antiviral drug that gets deposited in bones

A

Foscarnet

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5
Q

Antifungal that inhibits squalene epoxide

A

Terbinafine

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6
Q

Antifungals that require low gastric pH for absorption (2)

A

Ketoconazole

Itraconazole

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7
Q

Only clinical indication of griseofulvin

A

Systemic treatment of dermatophytosis

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8
Q

MOA of griseofulvin

A

binds to microtubules (like VINca alkaloids)

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9
Q

DOC for neurocysticercosis

A

Albendazole

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10
Q

DOC for Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

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11
Q

Steroid preparation of choice for pulse therapy of autoimmune conditions

A

Methylprednisolone

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12
Q

Antifungal causing gynecomastia, decreased sperm count and libido

A

Ketoconazole

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13
Q

The CNS toxicity of amantadine and rimantadine is due to alteration of which neurotransmitters?

A

Dopamine neurotransmitters

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14
Q

Anti-influenza agent administered using an inhaler device

A

Zanamivir

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15
Q

Antiviral that prevents vertical transmission of HBV when given in the last 4 weeks of gestation

A

Lamivudine

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16
Q

Antiviral used for topical treatment of condylomata acuminata and actinic keratosis

A

Imiquimod

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17
Q

Lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis and fat atrophy with NRTI use

A

HIV lipodystrophy syndrome

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18
Q

NRTI active against HIV-1 that can cause fatal hypersensitivity syndrome

A

Abacavir

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19
Q

only HIV protease inhibitor with sulfonamide moiety

A

Amprenavir / Fos amprenavir

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20
Q

untoward side effect peculiar to Atazanavir

A

Prolonged PR interval

Increased QT interval

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21
Q

Major adverse effect of bisphosphonates if not ingested properly

A

Esophageal ulceration

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22
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor with no renal adjustments since it is excreted in the bile

A

Linagliptin

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23
Q

OHA that decreases postprandial glucose and fasting glucose by inhibition of glucagon release

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

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24
Q

Antidote for silver poisoning

A

NSS

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25
Q

Antidote for copper poisoning

A

Milk

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26
Q

Osteoporotic drug with both antiresorptive and boneforming action

A

Strontium ranelate

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27
Q

Catalyzes the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

A

Streptokinase

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28
Q

Antiarryhthmic with the slowest binding kinetics?

A

Class IC (flecainide)

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29
Q

Diuretic indicated for acute mountain sickness

A

Acetazolamide

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30
Q

Digoxin can be used in which type of arrhythmias?

A

Atrial flutter & fibrillation for rate control

contraindicated in AF in WFW -> may go to VFib

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31
Q

Drugs causing SLE-like adverse effect

A

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Methyldopa

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32
Q

Only ACEi with a sulfa group

A

Captopril

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33
Q

ACEi used to prevent recurrence of stroke

A

Perindopril

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34
Q

Immunosuppressant that inhibits calcineurin

A

Ciclosporine

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35
Q

Immunosuppresant that is cleaved to its active metabolite 6-mercaptopurine in vivo

A

Azathioprine

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36
Q

1st biological drug (monoclonal antibody) approved for the tx of asthma

A

Omalizumab

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37
Q

Ondansetron is an antagonist of which serotonin receptor?

A

5-HT3

for n/v prophylaxis

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38
Q

M3 receptor antagonist used in motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

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39
Q

Antihistamine with anti-EPS effect

A

Diphenhydramine (ethanolamines)

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40
Q

Give the receptor involved and indication of Buspirone

A

5-HT1 partial agonist

For anxiety

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41
Q

Give the receptor involved and indication of Sumatriptan

A

5HT1b/1d partial agonist

for acute migraine

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42
Q

Serotonin receptor antagonist used for pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine (5HT2)

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43
Q

5HT4 agonist indicated for GERD

A

Cisapride

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44
Q

Gove the prostanoid of choice to maintain patency of ductus arteriosus

A

Alprostadil (PGE1)

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45
Q

Give the prostanoid of choice for pulmonary hypertension

A

Epoprostenol (PGI2)

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46
Q

Antiarryhthmic most notorious for reentry

A

Class IC

Flecainide

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47
Q

Antiarryhthmic most notorious for causing torsades de pointes

A

Class III
Sotalol
Ibutilide

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48
Q

Coverage of colistin

A

Gram negative increased resistant strains

NO gram + and anaerobic coverage

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49
Q

Carbapenem with greatest potential for seizure

A

Imipenem

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50
Q

Bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitors

A

Aminoglycosides

Streptogramins (Quinupristin - Dalfopristin)

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51
Q

Bactericidal antibiotic that can’t be used for pneumonia because of inactivation by surfactants

A

Daptomycin

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52
Q

FQ with anaerobic coverage

A

Moxifloxacin

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53
Q

Most common adverse effect from prolonged use of linezolid

A

Reversible thrombocytopenia

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54
Q

Anticonvulsant that is an inhibitor of CYP450

A

Valproic acid

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55
Q

Anticonvulsants that are inducers of CYP450

A

Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Lamotrigine

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56
Q

Anticonvulsants that are either CYP450 inducer or inhibitor

A

Oxcarbazepine

Topiramate

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57
Q

Only serotonin receptor that is ligand-gated

A

5HT3

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58
Q

Drugs used for alzheimer’s disease

A

Donepezil
Galantamine
Rivastigmine

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59
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in Parkinson’s disease

A

Low dopamine

High acetylcholine

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60
Q

Tremors as predominant manifestation of Parkinson’s disease will most likely benefit from this drug

A

Biperiden (antimuscarinic)

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61
Q

Majority of antiseizure drugs are cleared by hepatic mechanisms, except:

A

Levetiracetam
Gabapentin
Topiramate

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62
Q

Antiseizures effective for myoclonic type

A

Valproic acid
Topiramate
Levetiracetam
Clonazepam *

63
Q

Antiseizures effective in absence type

A

Ethosuximide *
Valproic acid
Lamotrigine

64
Q

Eicosanoid that decreases intraocular pressure

65
Q

Adverse effect of phenytoin

A

Hirsutism

Gingival hyperplasia

66
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that causes tonic-clonic seizures

67
Q

Nephrotoxic inhaled anesthetics

A

Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
Methoxyflurane

68
Q

Least potent inhalational anesthetic

A

Nitrous oxide

69
Q

Drug for extraintestinal amebiasis

A

Chloroquine

70
Q

Luminal amebicide

A

Paromomycin
Iodoquinol
Diloxanide furoate

71
Q

Antimalarials that are gametocidal against all 4 species

A

Primaquine

Artemisinin

72
Q

Antimalarial with no potential for causing cardiac abnormalities

A

Artemisinin

73
Q

DOC for neurocysticercosis

A

Albendazole

74
Q

DOC for Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

75
Q

Androgen receptor antagonists

A

Cyproterone acetate (partial, with progestin activity)
Flutamide (full)
Spironolactone

76
Q

Teratogenic effect of carbamazepine

A

Neural tube defects

77
Q

Drugs with significant adverse effects on the fetus if taken anytime during pregnancy

A 
ACEi
Amphetamines
Barbiturates
Cocaine
Diazepam
Phenytoin
Streptomycin
Valproic acid
78
Q

Benzodiazepines most appropriate for acute panic anxiety disorders?

A

Clonazepam
Alprazolam
(short-acting)

79
Q

Antipsychotic with the best safety profile

80
Q

Fast dissociating D2 antagonist

A

Quetiapine

81
Q

2nd generation atypical antipsychotic

A

Aripiprazole

dopamine agonist

82
Q

NRTI causing anemia

A

Zidovudine

83
Q

NRTI causing hepatotoxicity

A

Emtricitabine

84
Q

NRTI causing nephrotoxicity

85
Q

NRTI causing hypersensitivity

86
Q

NNRTI causing abnormal dreams

87
Q

Protease inhibitor causing hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities

88
Q

Antiretroviral entry inhibitors

A

Enfuvirtide

Maraviroc (hepatotoxicity)

89
Q

Antiretroviral integrase inhibitors

A

Raltegravir

Elvitegravir

90
Q

Selective MAO B inhibitor used in Parkinson Disease

A

Selegiline

91
Q

Used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis and acute tx

A

Edrophonium

92
Q

Drug of choice for AML

A

Cytarabine

93
Q

Single most active agent in CLL

A

Fludarabine

94
Q

Chemoprotective agent of choice to minimize unwanted effect of Cisplatin

A

Amifostine

95
Q

drug that inhibits COX-3

A

acetaminophen

96
Q

half-life of glucagon

A

3 to 6 minutes

97
Q

Opioid with the shortest duration of action

98
Q

Abuse of which substance causes intense, incapacitating anxiety (flashback symptoms)

99
Q

pKa of most anesthetics

100
Q

local anesthetic causing methemoglobinemia with the accumulation of O toludine

A

Prilocaine

101
Q

Reverses rocuronium by chelation

A

sugammadex

102
Q

combined alpha1 and beta blockers (3 drugs)

A

Carvedilol
Nebivolol
Labetalol

103
Q

DOC for prinzmetal’s angina

A

CCB (nifedipine)

104
Q

antidote for benzodiazepine

A

flumazenil

105
Q

antidote for heavy metals (mercury, copper)

A

dimercaptosuccinic acid

penicillamine

106
Q

antidote for fibrinolytic agents (bleeding)

A

aminocaproic acid

107
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist used for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

108
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

A

Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Galantamine
Tacrine (hepatotoxic)

109
Q

dopamine receptor agonist useful in Parkinson’s disease

A

Pramipexole

110
Q

Drugs that reduce IOP by increasing outflow

A

Cholinomimetics (pilocarpine)
Prostaglandins (latanoprost)
nonselective alpha agonists

111
Q

what is the enzyme inhibited by dapsone

A

dihydropteroate synthase

112
Q

adverse effects of dapsone

A

dose-related hemolysis

methemoglobinemia

113
Q

adverse effect of clofazimine

A

blue black discoloration of lesions and skin

114
Q

treatment of erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)

A

thalidomide
corticosteroids
clofazimine

115
Q

adverse effects of sitagliptin

A

URTI
acute pancreatitis
allergies

116
Q

Rapid acting insulins

A

Lispro (B28 and B29)
Aspart (B28)
Glulisine(B29)

117
Q

Long acting insulins

A

Detemir

Glargine

118
Q

loss of BMD and increased risk of fracture are seen in which type of antiDM drugs

A

TZDs and SGLT2 inhibitors

119
Q

most toxic aminoglycoside causeing irreversible ototoxicity

120
Q

Least nephrotoxic aminoglycoside

121
Q

bowel amoebicides

A

tetracycline

erythromycin

122
Q

low potency steroids for AD

A

hydrocortisone 1%

desonide 0.05%

123
Q

midpotency steroids for AD

A

mometasone 0.1%

fluticasone 0.05%

124
Q

high potency steroids for AD

A

clobetasol

betamethasone diproprionate 0.05%

125
Q

only anesthetic that can increase HR and BP

126
Q

antimetabolites that have increased toxicity when given with allopurinol

A

azathioprine
6-mercaptopurine

(bec they are metabolized by xanthine oxidase)

127
Q

Neuromuscular blocker that undergoes hoffman elimination

A

Atracurium

128
Q

NNRTIs (3)

A

Delavirdine
Efavirenz
Nevirapine

129
Q

antiarrhythmic DOC for prompt conversion of paroxysmal SVT to sinus

130
Q

Only azole with significant activity against mucormycosis ;

azole with broadest spectrum

A

Posaconazole

131
Q

type of drug interaction effect for probenecid and penicillin

A

potentiation

132
Q

drugs for Alzheimer’s disease

low Acetylcholine

A

“Gaaah, i Don’T ReMember”

Galantamine
Donepezil
Tacrine
Rivastigmine
Memantine
133
Q

Drugs for Parkinson

A 
too much tremors - “LABAS PT”
Levodopa
Amantadine
Bromocriptine (D2)
Anticholinergic (Biperiden)
Selegiline (MAO-B inhibitor)
Pramipexole (D3)
Tolcapone (COMT inhibitor)
134
Q

Most antiseizure drugs are not highly protein-bound, except:

A

“Protein Vound”
Phenytoin
Valproic acid

135
Q

Majority of antiseizure drugs are cleared by hepatic mechanisms, except: (renal)

A 
“Gabby Likes To Pee”
Gabapentin
Levetiracetam
Topiramate
Pregabalin
136
Q

Anesthetic that increases HR and BP; can have a dissociative sedative effect

137
Q

PGI2 used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension

A

Epoprostanol

138
Q

diuretic that can be used for nephrolithiasis and nephrogenic DI

A

hydrochlorothiazide

139
Q

diuretic effective for ARF and can flush out intratubular casts

A

furosemide

140
Q

diuretic that increases excretion of calcium and magnesium

A

furosemide

loop diuretics

141
Q

bulk-forming agents

A

psyllium seeds
methylcellulose
bran

142
Q

stool softeners

A

sodium docusate

mineral oil

143
Q

osmotic laxatives

A

milk of magnesia
sorbitol
lactulose

144
Q

stimulant laxatives / cathartics

A

castor oil

bisacodyl

145
Q

steroid with a very potent mineralocorticoid effect

A

Fludrocortisone

146
Q

DOC for treatment and secondary prophylaxis of cryptococcal meningitis

A

fluconazole

147
Q

antiretroviral drugs that are safe for pregnancy

A

NRTI: lamivudine, zidovudine
NNRTI: nevirapine
PI: lopinavir, ritonavir

148
Q

ovulation-inducing agent that mimics LH surge

149
Q

class of oral hypoglycemic agents that can inhibit glucagon release

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

and pramlintide

150
Q

teratogenic effects of warfarin per trimester

A

1st: hypoplastic nasal bridge
2nd: CNS malformations
3rd: risk of bleeding

151
Q

antiosteoporotic drug that opposes the bone-resorbing action of PTH

152
Q

antibiotics considered safe during pregnancy

A 
amoxicillin
co-amox
penicillin
ampicillin
cephalosporin
erythromycin
isoniazid
ethambutol
153
Q

synergistic with statins to decrease LDL

PLE 2018 (12 decks)

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