Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Birth weight is doubled at

A

4 months

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2
Q

Birth length increases by _____ at 1 year

A

50%

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3
Q

Physiologic weight loss occurs on the _____ days of life

A

First 10 (to 14) days of life

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4
Q

Average head circumference _____ increased by _____ by 1st year

A

35cm

10cm

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5
Q

Average length of a newborn infant

A

50cm

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6
Q

myelination of cortex begins at

A

7-8 months of age

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7
Q

Weaning period

A

6 months

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8
Q

Sits without support

A

6 months

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9
Q

Walks alone

A

12 months

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10
Q

Speaks 10-15 words

A

18 months

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11
Q

Pincer grasp well-developed at

A

12 months

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12
Q

Bed wetting is normal up to _____ in girls and _____ in boys

A

4 years old in girls

5 years old in boys

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13
Q

Knows full name

A

30 months

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14
Q

climbs stairs one step at a time

A

24 months

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15
Q

Copies a circle

A

36 months

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16
Q

Tells stories

A

48 months

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17
Q

Hallmark of adolescent development

A

Separation from parents

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18
Q

ASO titer in rheumatic fever

A

more than 333 TU

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19
Q

Significant risk factor for development of RDS in newborn

A

Maternal diabetes

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20
Q

Pyuria of ____ WBC/hpf in spun urine is indicative of UTI in children

A

5

10 if unspun

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21
Q

Gold standard for acute pyelonephritis

A

DMSA renal scan

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22
Q

Most common cause of acute pyelonephriis in <2 years old

A

VUR

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23
Q

Duration of Treatment of acute cystitis and pyelonephritis respectively

A

5-7 days

10-14 days

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24
Q

Isolated glomerular hematuria with low C3

A

PSGN
MPGN
Hep B
HIV

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25
Q

What differentiates PSGN from MPGN?

A

C3 levels normalize in 6-8 weeks

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26
Q

Most common chronic glomerular disease worldwide

A

IgA nephropathy

Berger disease

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27
Q

X-linked hereditary nephritis assoc w/ sensorineural hearing loss and anterior lenticonus

A

Alport Syndrome

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28
Q

Multisystem glomerular hematuria with low C3

A

SLE

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29
Q

Most common cause of AKI in children <4 y/o

A

HUS

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30
Q

most common manifestation of SLE in childhood (>8 y/o)

A

SLE nephritis

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31
Q

Random urine protein:crea ratio in nephrotic syndrome

A

> 2

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32
Q

Hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome

A

<2.5 mg/dL

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33
Q

Tx for minimal change disease

A

Pred 60mg/m2/day
in 3 divided doses
for 4-6 weeks

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34
Q

Final common pathway of glomerular destruction

A

Hyperfiltration injury

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35
Q

Formula for estimated crea clearance

A

k (0.55) x length in cm

divided by plasma crea

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36
Q

In neonatal lupus, fetal echocardiography should be done at what AOG

A

16 weeks AOG until delivery

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37
Q

Gottron’s papules in dermatomyositis seen at

A

knuckles (MCP), PIP, elbows, knees, ankles

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38
Q

Rheumatologic disease with equal prevalence among men and women

A

JIA (systemic type)

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39
Q

Risk factor for development of inflammatory eye disease (uveitis)

A

ANA

positive in pauci

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40
Q

Polyarticular type of JIA involves how many joints

A

5 or more

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41
Q

<16 y/o
arthritis >6 weeks
quotidian fever (q24h)
salmon-colored evanescent rash

A

JIA systemic type

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42
Q

antibodies present in limited systemic scleroderma

A

Anticentromere

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43
Q

antibodies present in diffuse systemic scleroderma

A

Anti-scl 70

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44
Q

Most common organ involvement in systemic scleroderma

A

Pulmonary

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45
Q

Tx for pulmonary alveolitis in systemic scleroderma

A

Cyclophosphamide

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46
Q

Tx for systemic scleroderma

A

Methotrexate +/- steroids

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47
Q
5 days fever + 4 of the ff:
bilateral conjunctival injection
strawberry tongue
hand erythema/periungual desquamation
truncal rash
cervical LN, unilateral, >1.5cm
A

Kawasaki disease

mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome

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48
Q

Most common cause of acquired heart disease in children in developed countries

A

Kawasaki disease

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49
Q

Tx of Kawasaki

A

IVIG + highdose aspirin

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50
Q

Most common infectious trigger of polyarteritis nodosa

A

GABHS

hep B in adults

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51
Q

Rheumatologic disease characterized by necrotizing granulomas in respi tract and kidneys

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

granulomatosis with polyangiitis

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52
Q
Upper RT (sinusitis, hearing loss)
Lower RT (chronic cough, hemoptysis)
Kidneys (hematuria, proteinuria)
saddle nose deformity
(+) c-ANCA /anti-PR3
A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

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53
Q

Reiter’s disease is classically triggered by

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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54
Q

Male-predominant
HLA-B27
Enthesitis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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55
Q

Mainstay of tx for SLE

A

Glucocorticoids

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56
Q

DOC for lupus nephritis and CNS lupus

A

Cyclophosphamide

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57
Q

anti-Ro and anti-La

Congenital heart block

A

Neonatal lupus

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58
Q

Complication of untreated Kawasaki disease developing in 2nd-3rd week

A

Coronary artery aneurysms

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59
Q

Aphthous stomatitis
Genital ulcers
Uveitis

HLA-B5 & B-51
PATHERGY

A

Behcet’s disease

silk road disease

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60
Q
CREST Syndrome
Calcinosis
Raynaud’s
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
A

Limted Systemic Sclerosis

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61
Q

Vasculitic rash
Livedo reticularis
Abd pain

A

PAN

steroids + cyclophosphamide

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62
Q

Most common pathogen assoc w/ common colds

A

Rhinovirus

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63
Q

Most common pathogen assoc w/ common colds in less than 2y/o

A

RSV

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64
Q

Most common complication of common colds

A

Acute Otitis Media

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65
Q

Bacterial pathogens implicated in AOM and sinusitis

A

Strep pneumo
H influenzae
Moraxella catarrhalis

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66
Q

Bullous myringitis is commonly assoc with what bacterial pathogen

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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67
Q

Sinuses present at birth

A

Maxillary

Ethmoid

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68
Q

Sinus(es) pneumatized at birth

A

Ethmoid

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69
Q

Sinus last to develop (7-8 y/o)

A

Frontal sinus

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70
Q

What drains in the SuPErior meatus

A

Sphenoid

Posterior ethmoid

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71
Q

Upper airway obstruction:

Steeple sign

A

Viral croup (LTB)

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72
Q

Upper airway obstruction:

Thumb sign

A

Acute epiglottitis

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73
Q

Upper airway obstruction:

Ragged air column

A

Bacterial tracheitis

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74
Q

Upper airway obstruction:

Tripod position

A

Acute epiglottitis

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75
Q

Most common LRTI in infants

A

Bronchiolitis (RSV)

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76
Q
LRTI:
1-3 months
staccato-like cough
afebrile
NO wheezing
A

Chlamydia trachomatis

vs RSV bronchiolitis

77
Q

RF for severe disease in bronchiolitis

A

<12 weeks
premature
comorbid condition

78
Q

etiologic agent of pneumonia if with rusty sputum

A

Strep pneumoniae

79
Q

DOC for fully-susceptible typhoid fever

A

Chloramphenicol

80
Q

etiologic agent of pneumonia if with staccato cough and sticky eye discharge

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

81
Q

Etiology of pneumonia assoc w/ currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

82
Q

Walking pneumonia
with ear and throat involvement
NO coryza

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

83
Q

Pneumonia presenting with extrapulmonart symptoms (diarrhea, jaundice, vomiting, arthritis)

A

Legionella pneumophila

84
Q

Congenital lobar emphysema usually occurs in what lobe of the lung

A

Left upper lobe

85
Q

late manifestations of TB

A

renal and skeletal

86
Q

Lobe commonly affected in endobronchial TB

A

RML bronchus

87
Q

Most common form of extrapulmonary TB in children

A

Scrofula

88
Q

Variant of normal growth with
normal growth velocity and
delayed puberty

“Late bloomers”

A

Constitutional growth delay

89
Q

Conditions presenting as tall stature

A

Marfan syndrome

Homocystinuria

90
Q

Precocious puberty:
before _____ in girls
before _____ in boys

A

8 y/o

9 y/o

91
Q

Gonadotropin-dependent premature isosexual puberty in boys would make you suspect

A

CNS pathology - tumors

request for neuroimaging

92
Q

High risk to develop neonatal varicella if mother acquires infection during this period

A

5 days before to 2 days after delivery

93
Q

infection characterized by congenital skin scarring and limb hypoplasia

A

congenital varicella syndrome

94
Q

hoagband sign (edema of eyelids) is seen in which infection?

A

infectious mononucleosis

95
Q

triad of infectious mononucleosis

A

pharyngitis
lymphadenopathy
splenomegaly

96
Q

downey cells are seen in PBS of

A

infectious mononucleosis

97
Q

faget sign is seen in

A

typhoid fever
yellow fever
tularemia

98
Q

Period of communicability in diphtheria

A

2 to 6 weeks after infection

99
Q

cause of mortality in 50-60% of patients with diphtheria

A

myocarditis

toxic cardiomyopathy

100
Q

100% attack rate on the first stage of this infectious disease

A

Pertussis (catarrhal stage)

101
Q

Most common cause of bloody diarrhea in children

A

Shigella

102
Q

Most common location of volvulus

A

Sigmoid and cecum

103
Q

Most common etiology of LTB

A

Parainfluenza virus

104
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

105
Q

APGAR parameter that is last to disappear in a sick baby

A

Cardiac rate

106
Q

APGAR parameter that is first to reappear in a resuscitated baby

A

Cardiac rate

107
Q

Most common cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

ABO incompatibility

108
Q

First carpal bone to appear in xray showing its center of ossification

A

capitate

2 months

109
Q

rib notching is seen in which congenital heart defect

A

coarctation of the aorta

110
Q

most common cause of thyroid disease in children and adolescents

A

hashimoto / autoimmune / lymphocytic thyroiditis

111
Q

major complication of nephrotic syndrome

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Strep pneumo or E coli

112
Q

most common cause of thrombocytopenic purpura in childhood

A

ITP

113
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand Disease

114
Q

most common soft tissue sarcoma in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

115
Q

Major risk factors for recurrence of febrile seizures

A

less than 1 y/o
<24 hours duration of fever
38-39 degrees

116
Q

transient paralysis post-ictus of a generalized tonic clonic seizure

A

Todd’s paresis / paralysis

117
Q

Test with the highest specificity in diagnosing UTI

A

Nitrite test

118
Q

1 cause of neonatal seizures

A

hypoxia

119
Q

Hallmark of atopic dermatitis

A

Dry skin

120
Q

Cornerstone of anti inflammatory teeatment for AD

A

topical corticosteroids

121
Q

physiologic anemia in term neonates

A

6-8 weeks

122
Q

physiologic anemia in preterm neonates

A

3-4 weeks

123
Q

proper breastmilk storage period if left at room temp (<25C)

A

4 hours

124
Q

most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV

125
Q

causative agents of acute otitis media

A

strep pneumo
h influenza
moraxella catarrhalis

126
Q

Conditions with increased upper to lower body ratio

A

rickets
achondroplasia
untreated hypothyroidism

127
Q

dysfluency and stuttering usually manifest in this age group

A

preschool

128
Q

treatment of cholera in children

A

azithromycin

doxycycline for adults

129
Q

treatment for crohn’s disease

A

mesalamine

130
Q

treatment for ulcerative colitis

A

sulfasalazine

131
Q

mixed IgE and cell mediated hypersensitivities

A

atopic dermatitis
asthma
eosinophilic esophagitis and gastroenteritis

132
Q

food allergies that are likely to be outgrown in later years

A

cow milk

eggs

133
Q

food allergies that tend to persist in life

A

peanuts
nuts
seafoods

134
Q

major RF for developing persistent asthma in later life

A

parental history of asthma

eczema

135
Q

minor RF for developing persistent asthma in later life

A

allergic rhinitis
>4% eosinophilia
food allergies

136
Q

autoimmune defect in T and NK cells

severe progressive infectious mononucleosis

A

X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome (Duncan)

137
Q

triad of AD, thrombocytopenic purpura, draining ears

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

138
Q

immune deficiency with chronic enterovirus infection and absent lymph nodes (as opposed to common variable immune deficiency)

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

Bruton

139
Q

inmune deficiency with impaired chemotaxis and regulation of cytokine production

coarse facial features, staph pneumonia with pneumatoceles, staph abscesses

A

HyperIgE syndrome

Job

140
Q

how long before B12 stored in the liver gets depleted?

A

3-5 years

141
Q

contents of cryoprecipitate

A
factor 8
factor 13
VWF
fibrinogen
fibrin
142
Q

frequent cause of premature isosexual puberty in boys

A

CNS pathology

hypothalamic hamartoma

143
Q

often the first symptom of congenital hypothyroidism

A

prolonged jaundice

144
Q

hallmark of acquired hypothyroidism

A

slow linear growth

145
Q

most common cause of hypercortisolism in children >7y/o

A

pituitary tumor (oversecretion of ACTH)

146
Q

disorder of neuronal migration characterized by presence of unilateral or bilateral clefts within the cerebral hemispheres

A

schizencephaly

147
Q

disorder of neuronal migration characterized by absence of cerebral convolutions (agyria)

A

lissencephaly

148
Q

causes of communicating hydrocephalus

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage
meningitis
meningeal malignancy

149
Q

most severe phenotypic expression of febrile seizure

A

Dravet syndrome

150
Q

period of communicability of mumps

A

1-2 days before to 5 days after parotid gland swelling

151
Q

most common complications of mumps

A

meningitis and orchitis

152
Q

Period of acquisition of neonatal varicella

A

5 days before to 2 days after delivery

153
Q

originally described as glandular fever

A

EBV (infectious mononucleosis)

154
Q

causes of infectious mononucleosis-like illnesses

A
CMV
Toxoplasma
adenovirus
hepatitis virus
primary HIV
rubella
155
Q

classic triad of EBV

A

fatigue
pharyngitis
generalized lymphadenopathy

156
Q

most common tumor of adrenal medulla in children

A

neuroblastoma

157
Q

Forscheimer spots are seen in

A

German measles
Infectious mononucleosis
Scarlet fever
Roseola infantum

158
Q

major RF for recurrence of febrile seizures (3)

A

age < 1 year old
fever 38-39 C
fever duration < 24 hours

159
Q

Timing of migraine with aura

A

Aura lasts 5 to 60 minutes

Headache follows within 60 min of aura

160
Q

most common cause of death in measles

A

pneumonia

161
Q

most common complication of measles

A

pneumonia

162
Q

more than 90% of anaphylactic biphasic responses occur within

A

4 hours

163
Q

most effective medication class for allergic rhinitis

A

intranasal corticosteroids

164
Q

most common life-threatening emergency of GI in the newborn

A

NEC

165
Q

autoantibody-mediated deficiency of metalloproteinase (ADAMTS-13) responsible for cleaving VWF

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

166
Q
Syndrome:
Agenesis of corpus callosum
Retinal lacunae, colonoma of iris
Seizures (infatile spasms)
MR
Xlinked dominant (girls)
A

Aicardi syndrome

167
Q

NF type 1

cafe-au-lait spots

A

VonRecklinghausen Disease

168
Q

Most common and most severe form of lupus nephritis

A
Class IV 
(diffuse proliferative subendothelial deposits)
169
Q

recommended immunosuppressive therapy for pulmonary alveolitis and to prevent pulmonary fibrosis in scleroderma

A

Cyclophosphamide

170
Q

Criteria for perinatal asphyxia (4)

A
  1. profound acidemia pH <7
  2. persistent APGAR 0-3 >5min
  3. neurologic sequelae (HIE)
  4. multiorgan failure
171
Q

functional closure of DA?

foramen ovale?

A

10-15 hours of birth

3rd month of life

172
Q

BP should be checked starting at age

A

3 y/o

173
Q

double bubble sign (2)

A

duodenal atresia

midgut volvulus

174
Q

most common cause of drug-induced angioedema

A

ACE inhibitors

bradykinin-mediated

175
Q

triad of:
AD
thrombocytopenic purpura
increased susceptibility to infx

A

Wiskott-Alsrich syndrome

176
Q

Combined T and B cell immunodeficiencies (4)

A

SCID
Wiskott-Aldrick syndrome
Duncan’s syndrome (progressive infx mononuc)
Ataxia - Telangiectasia

177
Q

Leukocyte/granulocyte/phagocyte deficiencies

A

LAD
CGD
Chediak-Higashi
Hyper-IgE (Job syndrome)

178
Q

triad of skin lesions, seizures and MR

A
tuberous sclerosis
(imaging: intracranial nodules)
179
Q
6 or more cafe au lait spots
lisch nodules (iris hamartoma)
A

NF 1

180
Q

6 or more cafe au lait spots

bilateral acoustic neuromas

A

NF 2

von recklinghausen

181
Q

portwine stain over trigeminal area

A

sturge weber

182
Q

congenital heart defects assoc with:
Turner syndrome
Infant of a diabetic mother
DiGeorge syndrome

A

CoA
ToGA
Truncus arteriosus

183
Q

head control is achieved at ___ months

A

6 months

184
Q

assoc with HLA B27

A

Juvenile spondyloarthropathy

185
Q

used to monitor disease activity in SLE nephritis

A

antidsDNA and C3

186
Q

timing of typhoid isolates in blood, urine and stool

A

blood - “early”

urine and stool - after 1st week

187
Q

causative agent of LTB (viral croup)

A

parainfluenza virus

188
Q
blood malignancy characterized by:
blueberry muffin lesions/nodules
gingival infiltration
chloroma
Auer Rods

adolescence

A

AML