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Surg Tech 102 > Surg 102--Final > Flashcards

Surg 102--Final Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for the patient’s head and maintaining airway when transferring.

A

anesthesia care provider

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2
Q

When transporting pediatric patients, where can parents accompany child to?

A

to the holding area or in the operating suite until induction of anesthesia

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3
Q

True or False: Teamwork creates smooth step by step coordination.

A

true

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4
Q

_____ is placed on the patient’s legs before long procedures or on patients predisposed to clot formation.

A

Antiembolism stockings or sequential compression device (SCD)

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5
Q

During inflation of a sequential compression device the cuffs push venous blood toward the _____ and during deflation, the vessels refill.

A

heart

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6
Q

A sequential compression device reduces blood pooling (stasis) and _____.

A

thrombous formation

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7
Q
  • variation of supine, table is tilted foot down
  • unobstructed access to the upper peritoneal cavity and lower esophagus
  • instruments must be secured by a magnetic pad or pocket holders
A

Reverse Trendelenburg position

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8
Q

In the lithotomy position, how are the legs removed from stirrups?

A

requires 2 people, release feet from stirrup, slowly bring the knees to the midline and gradually extend the hip and knees

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9
Q
  • orthopedic procedures

- used for facial, cranial, or reconstructive breast surgery

A

Sitting (Fowler) position

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10
Q
  • simultaneous head-down and foot-down posture

- anorectal surgery

A

Jackknife (Kraske) position

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11
Q

What is the most common type of catheter for continuous drainage?

A

Foley catheter

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12
Q

What are the two primary risks of catheterization?

A

infection and trauma to the genitourinary track

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of hospital acquired infection in the US

A

urinary catheterization

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14
Q

When normal or transient flora are introduced into the surgical wound they cause a _____.

A

surgical site infection (SSI)

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15
Q

What is the body’s primary defense against infection?

A

skin

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16
Q

Hair is not removed unless _____ requests it.

A

surgeon

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17
Q

Hair is removed as close to the time of _____ as possible

A

surgery

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18
Q

Hair is removed with a _____, electric clippers or chemical depilatory

A

razor

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19
Q

Hair should be removed in an area _____ where the surgery is performed.

A

away from

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20
Q

Hair removal for cranial procedures:

A
  • Cranial procedures are often performed with minimal hair removal
  • If its required to be removed, the hair is returned to the patient after surgery
  • The surgeon usually removes the hair in this case
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21
Q

If you were prepping for Coronary Artery bypass and you are taking saphenous vein. How would you prep?

A

2 prep kits required and you would start with the saphenous vein prep first

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22
Q

Can’t use _____, _____, or _____ to prep ears

A

alcohol, iodophor, or chlorhexidine

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23
Q

What is the prep for radical mastectomy?

A

mastectomy prep boundary the includes the neck , shoulder of the affected side, and thorax to the operating table surface, and mid pelvis region

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24
Q

During breast and thorax prep, how should tissue suspected to be cancerous should be prepped?

A

prepared gently, painted with little friction and pressure as possible

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25
Q

When prepping abdomen what is done first?

A

umbilicus is prepped

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26
Q

What is used to hold blue towels in place when draping?

A

nonpentrating towel clips

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27
Q

What is general anesthesia?

A

Anesthesia associated with state of unconsciousness. It is not a fixed state of unconsciousness, but rather ranges along a continuum from semiresponsiveness to profound unresponsiveness.

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28
Q

What is a pulse oximeter and what does it do?

A

a monitoring device that measures the patients hemoglobin oxygen saturation by means of spectrometry

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29
Q

Removal of the artificial airway (tube)?

A

extubation

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30
Q

Muscle relaxation required during general anesthesia?

A

neuromuscular blockade

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31
Q

When is Desflurane used and what does it cause that makes it a poor induction agent?

A

used for rapid emergence, poor induction because it irrating the upper respiratory track that can cause gagging, coughing, and bronchospasm

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32
Q

What do Benzodiazepines do and how long does it last?

A

causes antegrade amnesia (loss of recall of events) for 6 hrs

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33
Q

Laryngospasms are treated with positive-pressure administration of oxygen or, in severe cases, administration of _____.

A

succinylcholine to paralyze the muscles

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34
Q

What is a common depolarizing muscle relaxant used in surgery?

A

succinylcholine

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35
Q

Patients at risk for aspiration are given preop meds to suppress gastric acid production and _____.

A

reduce nasuea

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36
Q

What does a regional block do?

A

provides loss of sensation without effecting consciousness

37
Q

Septic shock is caused by _____, which results in hypovolemia.

A

severe infection

38
Q

_____ infection most often cause of septic shock.

A

bacterial

39
Q

Who is PACU staff and who trains them?

A

critical care nurses trained in postoperative recovery and emergency treatment

40
Q

How is the PACU arranged?

A

One large room with separate patient stations along two or more perimeter walls.

41
Q

Does the PACU have a special place for patients with active infections?

A

patients with active infections are kept in isolation area

42
Q

Included in the handover information, what is needed to determine if a transfusion is needed

A

estimated blood loss

43
Q

How are respiratory sounds assessed?

A

auscultation

44
Q

When is the sponge, sharp and instrument count performed?

A
  • Before surgery
  • Before closure of hollow organ
  • Before closure of body cavity
  • Before skin closure
  • Whenever suspicion arises
  • Permanent change in personnel
45
Q

Sponges and x-rays are impregnated with what?

A

radiopaque strip

46
Q

When handling and passing instruments, are they passed open or closed.

A

closed

47
Q

Rough or excessive handling of tissue can lead to what?

A

bruising, swelling and ischemia

48
Q

When using irrigation, what is the ST’s responsibility to keep up with?

A

the ST must keep track of the amount of irrigation used in the wound so that the estimated blood loss can be calculated

49
Q

What are the 2 types of cultures commonly taken during surgery?

A

aerobic and anaerobic bacterial specimens

50
Q

Has round shaft, used for suturing, and blunt dissection of friable tissue and organs that are soft and spongy, ex..liver, spleen, kidneys.

A

blunt needle

51
Q

Round body that tapers to a sharp point, punctures tissue, suturing soft tissue, ex. Muscle, subcutaneous, fat, peritoneum, dura and gastrointestinal.

A

tapered needle

52
Q

Has a cutting edge, used on fibrous connective tissue such as skin, joint capsule, and tendons.

A

cutting needle

53
Q

Inert suture causes little or no _____.

A

bioactivity

54
Q

Individually placed suture.

A

interrupted suture

55
Q

Also called running suture, is a single long suture that is anchored at one end.

A

continuous suture

56
Q

Special continuous suture used for closing the end of a tubular structure.

A

purse-string suture

57
Q

Used on mucous membranes or any tissue that bleeds easily (spleen or kidneys).

A

smooth forceps

58
Q

Used on connective tissue such as the skin.

A

toothed forceps

59
Q

Prevents puncturing of blood vessels but provides friction to hold.

A

vascular forceps

60
Q

What do synthetic tissue adhesives do?

A

join wound edges without using sutures, it encourages the body’s natural coagulation and healing process

61
Q

Phase of wound healing that begins about day 4 or 5 and continues for approx. 2 weeks. During this phase fibroblast synthesizes collagen

A

proliferative stage

62
Q

A collection of blood that forms in the surgical wound because of incomplete hemostasis during surgery.

A

hematoma

63
Q

The protrusion of abdominal viscera through a wound or surgical incision.

A

evisceration

64
Q

A band of scar tissue between the abdominal or pelvic organs and the peritoneum.

A

adhesion

65
Q

Not compatible with life.

A

embryo

66
Q

In utero after 3 months of gestation.

A

fetus

67
Q
  • Gestational age more than 24 weeks
  • Birth-weight more than 500g
  • Capable of sustaining life outside uterus
A

potentially viable

68
Q
  • Gestational age less than 37 weeks

- Birth-weight 2500g or less

A

true preterm

69
Q
  • Gestational age less than 38 weeks

- Birth-weight more than 2500g

A

large preterm

70
Q
  • Gestational age 38-40 weeks

- birth-weight greater than 2500g

A

term neonate

71
Q

-Gestational age extended by more than 8 weeks

A

postterm

72
Q

-First 28 days of extra-uterine life.

A

neonatal period

73
Q

-28 days to 18 months

A

infant

74
Q

-18 - 30 months

A

toddler

75
Q

-2.5 - 5 years

A

preschool age

76
Q

-6 - 12 years

A

school age

77
Q

-13 - 18 years

A

adolescent

78
Q

Neonate blood volume.

A

75 - 80 mL/kg

79
Q

6 weeks - 2 years blood volume.

A

75 mL/kg

80
Q

2 years - puberty

A

72 mL/kg

81
Q

Heart rate for newborns

A

100-170 (100-180 in book)

82
Q

Anorectal malformation occurs when?

A

between 4th and 12th week

83
Q

Fusion or 2 or more fingers or toes.

A

syndactyly

84
Q

Pulmonary ventilation is established when?

A

Birth/1st breath

85
Q

What valves allows normal blood flow between the right atrium and ventricle?

A

tricuspid valve

86
Q

_____, financial, educational, and subjective influences shape the prototype of the older adult’s place in society.

A

geographic

87
Q

Laboratory values important when assessing geriatric patients?

A

weight

88
Q

Multiple vaginal births can cause _____.

A

uterine and bladder prolapses

89
Q

At what temp is elderly at risk for hypothermia?

A

96.8

Surg Tech 102 (15 decks)

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