Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Surg Tech 102 > Surg 102 Chapter 12 (Fuller) > Flashcards

Surg 102 Chapter 12 (Fuller) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a polarizing agent?

A

cause muscle paralysis by stimulating involuntary muscles, which is followed by muscle fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drugs are commonly used as polarizing agents?

A

succinylcholine and decamethonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a nondepolarizing agent?

A

prevent muscle contraction by binding to the muscle’s cholinergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs are commonly used as nondepolarizing agents?

A

-mivacurium (short acting)

  • atracurium (intermediate duration)
  • cistatracurium (intermediate duration)
  • vecuronium (intermediate duration)
  • rocuronium/Zemuron (intermediate duration)
  • tubocurarine (long duration)
  • gallamine (long duration)
  • metocurine (long duration)
  • pancuronium (long duration)
  • pipecuronium (long duration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regional anesthesia provides reversible loss of sensation in a specific area of the body without _____.

A

affecting consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The most common uses of regional anesthesia are :

A
  1. limb surgery in which complete nerve block is possible
  2. procedures in which consciousness is desirable or required
  3. minor superficial procedures
  4. patients for whom general anesthesia poses a significant risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the different types of regional anesthesia?

A
  1. topical anesthesia
  2. local infiltration
  3. nerve block
  4. spinal, caudal, and epidural anesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is topical anesthesia?

A

an anesthetic is applied directly to the eye, skin, or mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is local infiltration?

A

a small amount of drug is introduced through multiple injections into the skin and subcutaneous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a nerve block?

A

a single nerve or nerve plexus (group) is anesthetized, blocking sensory stimuli to the tissue enervated by that nerve or group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are spinal, caudal, and epidural anesthesia?

A

specific techniques for blocking transmission to the middle and lower body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Monitored anesthesia care (MAC) is _____ provided during regional anesthesia.

A

continuous patient monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Topical anesthesia is used on _____ and _____ during ophthalmic procedures.

A

mucous membranes and superficial eye tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Topical anesthetics are used before insertion of _____ and _____devices and also before _____ and _____to prevent reflexive gagging.

A

endotracheal and LMA

laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Local infiltration is injection of an anesthetic into _____ to produce a small area of anesthesia.

A

superficial tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

During a nerve block, the anesthetic agent is injected into the _____.

A

adjacent tissue, not into the nerve itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During an intravenous (Bier) block, blood is temporary displaced from a _____.

A

limb and replaced by a regional anesthetic agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Spinal anesthesia is injection of anesthetic into the _____.

A

subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During spinal anesthesia, two positions are used–_____ or _____.

A

lateral (side-lying) or sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A _____ position is used with patient lying on his side and the knees drawn up.

A

knee-chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Epidural anesthesia is produced when the anesthetic agent is injected into the epidural space that surrounds the _____.

A

dural sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the risks associated with spinal anesthesia?

A

hypotension, postspinal headache, total spinal anesthesia

23
Q

Caudal and epidural anesthesia target the _____.

A

epidural space

24
Q

In the epidural anesthesia the approach is through the _____.

A

lumbar interspace

25
Q

In caudal anesthesia the approach is through the _____.

A

caudal canal

26
Q

All health care worker must maintain current certification in _____ and be able to respond in case of a cardiac or respiratory arrest

A

CPR

27
Q

The signs and symptoms of cardiac arrest vary according to whether the patient is _____.

A

fully conscious at the time or sedated

28
Q

During cardiopulmonary arrest a conscious patient may feel _____.

A

nausea, shortness of breath, chest pain or pressure, or pain radiating from the jaw, neck, or shoulder

29
Q

It is important to remember that resuscitative efforts must begin _____ to prevent neurological damage from lack of oxygen to the brain.

A

quickly

30
Q

Brain damage may occur as quickly as _____ after circulatory collapse.

A

3 minutes

31
Q

A _____ is autonomic spasming of the laryngeal muscles.

A

laryngospasm

32
Q

A laryngospasm is usually associated with _____ or _____ of the laryngeal nerve during intubation or extubation.

A

airway secretions or stimulation

33
Q

Laryngospasms are treated with positive-pressure administration of oxygen or, in severe cases, administration of _____.

A

succinylcholine to paralyze the muscles

34
Q

Anaphylaxis is a _____ to a material or drug that can lead to shock.

A

true allergic reaction

35
Q

Sign and symptoms of anaphylaxis include _____.

A

rash, abnormal lung sounds detected during auscultation, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.

36
Q

During severe shock, the supply of _____ and _____ to all body tissues is inadequate.

A

oxygen and nutrients

37
Q

What are the different types of shock?

A
  1. circulatory shock
  2. cardiogenic shock
  3. anaphylactic shock
  4. neurogenic shock
  5. septic shock
38
Q

Circulatory shock is a state of _____ for supplying the whole body.

A

inadequate blood volume

can be caused by hemorrhage, burns, severe diuresis

39
Q

Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart failure, which disables the _____ because blood cannot be pumped adequately throughout the body.

A

vascular system

40
Q

Anaphylactic shock is caused by true allergy, resulting in _____, which slows or halts normal circulation.

A

vasodilation and pooling of blood

41
Q

Neurogenic shock is caused by _____ to maintain vascular tone.

A

failure of the autonomic nervous system

42
Q

Septic shock is caused by _____, which results in hypovolemia.

A

severe infection

43
Q

Treatment of shock is targeted at restoring _____, _____, and _____.

A

circulatory function, electrolyte balance, and oxygenation of tissues

44
Q

Malignant hypothermia (MH) is a rare physiological response to all _____ and _____.

A

volatile anesthetic agents and succinylcholine

45
Q

Malignant hypothermia causes a severe immediate or delayed _____.

A

hypermetabolism

46
Q

During malignant hypothermia the patient exhibits an extremely _____, _____, _____, and _____.

A

high core temperature, tachychardia, tachypnea, and increased muscle rigidity

47
Q

Emergency drugs for MH treatment include _____ and agents to treat specific metabolic disorders.

A

Dantrium

48
Q

_____ is the rupture of red blood cells.

A

hemolysis

49
Q

Hemolysis is associated with _____ during blood transfusion.

A

ABO factor incompatibility

50
Q

Patients under _____ do not show signs and symptoms of hemolytic reaction.

A

anesthesia

51
Q

ABO mismatch symptoms outside of surgery include:

A
  1. back pain
  2. chills
  3. hypotension
  4. dyspnea
52
Q

What is analgesia?

A

the absence of pain, produced by specific drugs

53
Q

What is anesthesia?

A

the absence of sensory awareness or medically induced unconsciousness

54
Q

What is anesthetic?

A

a drug that reduces or blocks sensation or induces unconsciousness

Surg Tech 102 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions