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Surg 102--Chapter 15 (Fuller) Flashcards

1
Q

The potential for accident and injury on the OR is one of the highest in the _____.

A

health care setting

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2
Q

What are some of the risks that perioperative personnel encounter daily?

A
  • high voltage equipment
  • chemicals
  • exposure to blood and body fluids
  • stress injury
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3
Q

True or False: A successful injury reduction plan must consider both the human factor and the technological aspects.

A

True

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4
Q

The statistical probability of a harmful event.

A

risk

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5
Q

Defined as the number of harmful events that occur in a given population over a stated period.

A

risk

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6
Q

Represents the number of times an event actually under specified conditions in a specific environment.

A

risk

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7
Q

True or False: A culture of safety is critical to injury reduction in the workplace.

A

True

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8
Q

Staff member must have _____of the risk, _____ the responsibility for harm reduction, and _____ on prevention measures.

A

knowledge
accept
act

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9
Q

Three types of potential injury:

A
  1. technical risk factors
  2. chemical risk factors
  3. biological risk factors
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10
Q

Hazards related to medical devices and energy sources.

A

technical risk factors

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11
Q

Hazards related primarily to liquid, gas, and solid chemicals in the perioperative environment.

A

chemical risk factors

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12
Q

Hazards related to the transmission of infectious disease.

A

biological risk factors

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13
Q

What three components does fire require?

A
  1. oxygen
  2. fuel
  3. source of ignition
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14
Q

Normal air contains about _____ oxygen.

A

21%

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15
Q

An environment that contains a greater concentration of oxygen is called an _____.

A

oxygen-enriched atmosphere (OEA)

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16
Q

When nitrous oxide decomposes in the presence of heat, _____ are produced.

A

oxygen molecules

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17
Q

As the concentration of oxygen increases in the environment, so does the speed of _____, _____, and _____ of a fire.

A

ignition, duration, and temperature

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18
Q

Oxygen and nitrous oxide are called _____, because they are capable of supporting fire.

A

oxidizers

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19
Q

An alcohol concentration greater than _____ is flammable and highly _____.

A

20%

volatile

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20
Q

Most skin prep solutions contain _____ alcohol.

A

70%

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21
Q

What medical device is frequently the cause of patient fire during laser surgery of the head, neck, and face.

A

endotracheal tube

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22
Q

True or False: Any heat-producing device has the potential to cause a fire.

A

True

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23
Q

Approximately _____ of surgical fires involve lasers.

A

13%

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24
Q

The active electrode on an ESU can reach _____.

A

1,292 F

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25
Q

Approximately _____of patient fires occur in the airway.

A

21%

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26
Q

Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the face.

A

44%

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27
Q

Approximately _____of patient fires occur inside the patient.

A

8%

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28
Q

Approximately _____of patient fires occur on the skin.

A

26%

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29
Q

To stop the progression of the fire, _____.

A

the triangle of fire must be broken

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30
Q

What are the three steps that are immediately taken to protect the patient and stop a fire.

A
  1. Shut off the flow of all gases to the patients airway
  2. Remove any burning objects from the surgical site
  3. Assess the patient for injury and respond appropriately
31
Q

Who reduces the flow of oxygen in the event of fire around the airway.

32
Q

In a structural fire what are the four immediate actions that must be taken?

33
Q

What does R in RACE stand for?

A

Rescue patients in the immediate area of the fire

34
Q

What does the A in RACE stand for?

A

Alert other people to the fire so that they can assist in patient removal and response. Activate the fire alert system.

35
Q

What does the C in RACE stand for?

A

Contain the fire.

36
Q

What does the E in RACE stand for?

A

Evacuate personnel in the areas around the fire.

37
Q

What is the preferred type of fire extinguisher in the OR?

A

carbon dioxide

38
Q

To use a fire extinguisher think _____.

39
Q

What does PASS stand for?

A

Pull
Aim
Squeeze
Sweep

40
Q

True or False: Fire prevention is the responsibility of everyone working in the OR.

41
Q

Contained in portable tanks and is used when in-line systems are not available or when patients are transported.

42
Q

Used as a power source for instruments such as drills, saws, and other high-speed tools.

A

compressed nitrogen

43
Q

Used during laser surgery.

44
Q

An anesthetic gas.

A

nitrous oxide

45
Q

Used for insufflation during laparoscopy or pelviscopy.

A

carbon dioxide

46
Q

What are the two types of hazards associated with compressed gas cylinders?

A

physical and chemical

47
Q

What are leading causes of hospital fires in the US?

A

electrical malfunction

48
Q

What are the characteristics of electricity?

A

current, voltage, impedance, and grounding

49
Q

The rate of electrical (electron) flow?

50
Q

Low voltage and originates from a battery?

A

direct current (DC)

51
Q

Transmitted by a 220- or 110-V line, such as that normally found in wall outlets?

A

alternating current (AC)

52
Q

The driving force behind the moving electrons?

53
Q

The ability of a substance to stop the flow of electrons (electricity)?

A

impedance (resistance)

54
Q

The discharge of electrical current from the source to the ground, where it is dispersed and rendered harmless.

55
Q

What is the most common source of electrical injury to the surgical patient?

56
Q

Produce ionizing radiation in amounts high enough to damage tissue.

A
  • radiograph machines
  • fluoroscopes
  • unshielded radioactive implants
57
Q

The extent of tissue damage depends on:

A
  • the duration of exposure
  • the distance from the source of radiation
  • the tissue exposed
58
Q

Repeated exposure have _____ effects.

A

cumulative

59
Q

Among the risks of overexposure to radiation are _____, cancer, cataract, burns, and spontaneous abortion.

A

genetic mutation

60
Q

What areas of the body are more vulnerable to radiation?

A
  • ovaries
  • testes
  • lymphatic tissue
  • thyroid
  • bone marrow
61
Q

What is the most effective method of blocking radiation?

A

lead shields

62
Q

What are the most important parameters determining risk and protection?

A
  • the distance from the radiation source
  • the duration of exposure
  • the quality of shielding
63
Q

Are lead aprons worn over or under sterile gowns?

64
Q

A _____ must be worn during fluoroscopy to prevent exposure to scatter radiation.

A

lead apron

65
Q

If you must remain in the room during exposure maintain a distance of at least _____ from the patient.

66
Q

Where is the safest place to stand in a room where a radiation hazard exists?

A

at a right angle to the beam on the right side of the radiograph machine or origin of the radiation beam

67
Q

What are available to measure the cumulative radiation dose for those who are often exposed to radiation.

A

dosimeters

68
Q

What are the only objects safe to use during MRI procedures.

A

plastic and titanium

69
Q

True or False: The primary focus of disease control in the health care environment is on preventing contact with blood and body fluids.

70
Q

Airborne transmission must be taken for the following diseases:

A
  • measles
  • varicella
  • tuberculosis
71
Q

Infection for which droplet precautions should be implemented include:

A
  • H influenza type B
  • N meningitis
  • Streptococcal pharyngitis
  • rubella
72
Q

True allergy is an abnormal _____ to a substance.

A

immune response

73
Q

A local or systemic reaction mediated by the body’s immune system?

A

latex allergy

74
Q

A cell-mediated response.

A

hypersensitivity

Surg Tech 102 (15 decks)

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