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JMP Y2S1 > Student made multichoice > Flashcards

Student made multichoice Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which type of thalassaemia is considered the most severe?
    a. Type 1
    b. Beta
    c. Thalassaemia Major
    d. Haemoglobin H disease
A

c. Thalassaemia Major

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2
Q
  1. Thalassaemia is NOT common in which of the following ethnicities?
    a. Mediterranean
    b. Caucasian
    c. Southern Asian
    d. African
A

b. Caucasian

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3
Q
  1. Haemochromatosis can be identified on an FBC by which of the following findings?
    a. Low HbA1C
    b. High TSH
    c. HFE gene mutation
    d. High Serum Ferritin
A

d. High Serum Ferritin

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factors is part of the intrinsic pathway?
    a. Xa
    b. Xia
    c. VIIa
    d. XIIIa
A

b. Xia

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5
Q
  1. What is the action of Transglutaminase (Factor XIIIa) on Fibrin?
    a. Makes fibrinogen insoluble
    b. Polymerises fibrin chains
    c. Dissolves fibrin polymers
    d. Cross-links fibrin chains
A

d. Cross-links fibrin chains

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following physiological processes is NOT responsible for the localisation of a clot?
    a. Thrombin absorption by fibrin
    b. Vasoconstriction causing concentration of clotting factors
    c. Blood flow dilution of Factor Xa
    d. Plasminogen binding to clots
A

b. Vasoconstriction causing concentration of clotting factors

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following bones contains red bone marrow?
    a. Distal femoral head
    b. Skull
    c. Proximal phalanx
    d. Proximal humeral head
A

b. Skull

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is a precursor for platelets?
    a. Megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor
    b. Common myeloid progenitor
    c. Myeloblast
    d. Pronormoblast
A

a. Megakaryocyte-erythroid progenitor

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9
Q
  1. A patient has suffered severe burns and as a result requires urgent plasma transfusion. Her blood type was found to be A+. As a result, she can receive plasma from a blood donor with blood type:
    a. A+ only
    b. A and AB types only
    c. O and A types only
    d. O and B types only
A

b. A and AB types only

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a primary lymphocytosis?
    a. Self-limiting
    b. Normalises after cessation of inflammatory stimulus
    c. No clinical symptoms
    d. Chronic
A

d. Chronic

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is typically a distinguishing symptom of leukaemia from lymphoma?
    a. Bone pain
    b. Fatigue
    c. Enlargement of lymph nodes
    d. Frequent infection
A

a. Bone pain

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12
Q
  1. Which haemostatic drug can be counteracted by ingestion of Vitamin K?
    a. Heparin
    b. Rivaroxaban
    c. Warfarin
    d. Aspirin
A

c. Warfarin

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following medication classes doesn’t affect platelets directly?
    a. Thrombin Inhibitors
    b. COX Inhibitors
    c. P2Y12 Receptor Antagonists
    d. GPIIb-IIIa Receptor Antagonists
A

a. Thrombin Inhibitors

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14
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action of Alkylating agent antineoplastic treatment?
    a. Inactivation of growth factors by targeting cell-surface receptors
    b. Binding to the kinase active site to cause apoptosis
    c. Cross-chain linking of DNA, causing G2 stage block and apoptosis
    d. Iimitation of nucleotides disrupting the DNA/RNA synthesis pathway
A

c. Cross-chain linking of DNA, causing G2 stage block and apoptosis

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following factors is not part of Virchow’s Triad?
    a. Increased platelet activity
    b. Hypercoagulability
    c. Damage to endothelial layer of vein
    d. Changes to normal blood flow
A

a. Increased platelet activity

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following haemostatic factors is NOT useful in large vessels?
    a. Blood vessel spasm
    b. Initiation of the blood coagulation pathway
    c. Fibrinolysis and re-establishment of vascular integrity
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

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17
Q
  1. Where does von Willebrand Factor bind to in the blood vessel?
    a. Endothelial membrane
    b. Endothelial smooth muscle
    c. Collagen in basement membrane
    d. Red blood cells
A

c. Collagen in basement membrane

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18
Q
  1. What platelet-released chemical induces vasospasm in blood vessels?
    a. Calcium
    b. Heparin
    c. Noradrenaline
    d. Von Willebrand Factor
A

a. Calcium

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a complement pathway?
    a. Histocompatible pathway
    b. Lectin pathway
    c. Classical pathway
    d. Alternative pathway
A

a. Histocompatible pathway

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is an appropriate definition of Opsonisation?
    a. Clumping of pathogen to prevent spread
    b. Coating of pathogen surface to increase internalisation
    c. Prevention of pathogen binding with host cells
    d. Activation of immune cells in the presence of the pathogen
A

b. Coating of pathogen surface to increase internalisation

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following myeloid cells has a role in the haemostatic process?
    a. Macrophage
    b. Eosinophil
    c. Dendritic Cell
    d. Basophil
A

d. Basophil

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following innate immune cells isn’t thought to be involved in the allergic response?
    a. Eosinophil
    b. Mast Cell
    c. Basophil
    d. Neutrophil
A

d. Neutrophil

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23
Q
  1. A mutation in which of the following genes would impact the ability of immune cells to function correctly?
    a. HLA Locus
    b. HFE Gene
    c. TCR Locus
    d. PSEN1 Gene
A

a. HLA Locus

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is responsible for the mediation of Graft vs. Host disease?
    a. Plasma Cell
    b. Natural Killer Cell
    c. Macrophage
    d. Innate Lymphoid Cells
A

b. Natural Killer Cell

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25
Q
  1. Failure of the bone marrow to effectively negatively select B cells would result in which of the following pathologies?
    a. Overly high affinity for a pathogen
    b. Autoimmune-reactive B cells
    c. Inhibition of isotope switching
    d. Failure to produce antibodies
A

b. Autoimmune-reactive B cells

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26
Q
  1. Failure of the thymus to effectively positively select T cells would result in which of the following pathologies?
    a. Somatic hypermutation
    b. T cells that recognise multiple antigens
    c. Cells with the inability to multiply
    d. Cells that can’t bind to MHC
A

d. Cells that can’t bind to MHC

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptor terms can be applied to psoriasis?
    a. Scale
    b. Macule
    c. Papule
    d. Nodule
A

a. Scale

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28
Q
  1. A 6-year-old child presents to the GP with fever, rhinitis, a chesty cough and an eruptive, itchy rash. This rash could be described as:
    a. Lentigo
    b. Atopic Dermatitis
    c. Exanthem
    d. Psoriasis
A

c. Exanthem

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29
Q
  1. A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP. Upon examination, she has a rash on her face that spreads across each cheek and over the bridge of her nose. A rash of this type is most likely:
    a. Autoimmune
    b. Cancerous
    c. Allergic
    d. Infectious
A

a. Autoimmune (SLE) lupus

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30
Q
  1. Which of the following skin cancers is considered the most dangerous?
    a. Malignant Melanoma
    b. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
    c. Superficial Basal Cell Carcinoma
    d. Nodular Basal Cell Carcinoma
A

a. Malignant Melanoma

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31
Q
  1. The chemically reactive combination of a molecularly small drug and a large protein or peptide is known as a:
    a. Self-peptide
    b. Hapten
    c. Complex
    d. Leukotriene
A

b. Hapten

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32
Q
  1. David is a 54-year-old man who has had a heart transplant 8 hours ago. He is currently suffering from graft rejection, and immune cells are damaging his other heart tissue. This is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type III
    d. Type IV
A

d. Type IV

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33
Q
  1. A foreign chemical that can stimulate T cells without being processed by an APC is known as a:
    a. Superantigen
    b. Hapten
    c. Cryoglobulin
    d. Vimentin
A

a. Superantigen

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with a Group A streptococcal infection?
    a. Scarlet Fever
    b. Toxic Shock Syndrome
    c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
    d. Rheumatic Fever
A

c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following processes is NOT an example of peripheral tolerance?
    a. Negative selection
    b. Anergy
    c. Deletion
    d. Suppression
A

a. Negative selection

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36
Q
  1. Campylobacter is theorised to share a surface protein with Schwann cells, meaning that if a Campylobacter infection occurs, immune cells may also attack the nerves. This is an example of:
    a. Altered Cytokine Activation
    b. Bystander Activation
    c. Molecular Mimicry
    d. Sequestered Antigen Release
A

c. Molecular Mimicry

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory tests would NOT suggest a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
    a. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
    b. Antinuclear Antibody presence
    c. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody presence
    d. Rheumatoid factor presence
A

b. Antinuclear Antibody presence

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38
Q
  1. DMARD medication can be described as
    a. Immunosupressive therapy
    b. Immunomodulatory therapy
    c. All of the above
    d. None of the above
A

c. All of the above

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39
Q
  1. Sue is a 58-year-old woman suffering from Osteoporosis. Her doctor prescribes her medication for this. Sue, being a curious person, asks her doctor how the medication works. The doctor says that when this medication kills the cells that eat away at her bone. From this description, Sue has likely been prescribed a:
    a. Recombinant monoclonal antibody
    b. Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
    c. Hormone Replacement Therapy
    d. Bisphosphonate
A

d. Bisphosphonate

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40
Q
  1. The cell responsible for the maintenance and restructuring of connective tissue is known as:
    a. Fibroblast
    b. Wandering Cell
    c. Mesenchymal Cell
    d. Connective Progenitor Cell
A

a. Fibroblast

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41
Q
  1. Which of the following structures/molecules/cells in connective tissue is responsible for impact absorption?
    a. Proteoglycans
    b. Functional Matrix
    c. Articular Cartilage
    d. Tropocollagen
A

a. Proteoglycans

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a histological sign of rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Thickening of the synovial membrane
    b. Intense inflammatory cell infiltrate
    c. Lack of fibrin present
    d. Hyperplasia of synoviocytes
A

c. Lack of fibrin present

43
Q
  1. Which joint is most commonly affected first in gout?
    a. Radiocarpal joint
    b. Tibiofemoral Joint
    c. Metacarpophalangeal joint of first toe
    d. Distal phalangeal joint of fifth toe
A

c. Metacarpophalangeal joint of first toe

44
Q
  1. Which of the following cytokines is not involved in Osteoarthritis?
    a. TNFa (Tumour necrosis factor alpha)
    b. IL-1
    c. IL-6
    d. IGF (Insulin-like growth factor)
A

c. IL-6

45
Q
  1. Deficiency of which of the following transporters would affect the CNS?
    a. GLUT1
    b. GLUT3
    c. GLUT4
    d. GLUT14
A

a. GLUT1

46
Q
  1. Which of the following fuels is used by the brain as a last resort?
    a. Lactate
    b. Phosphocreatine
    c. Ketone bodies
    d. Glucose
A

b. Phosphocreatine

47
Q
  1. Clostridium Botulinum toxin binds to excitatory cholinergic nerve endings, preventing exocytosis of Acetylcholine. This is most likely to cause:
    a. Tetany
    b. Paralysis
    c. Clonus
    d. Muscle Spasm
A

b. Paralysis

48
Q
  1. In the presence of damaged tissue or pathogens inside the CNS, a type of glial cell migrates through white and gray matter to phagocytose and destroy this tissue. This type of cell is known as a:
    a. Satellite cell
    b. Oligodendrocyte
    c. Astrocyte
    d. Microglia
A

d. Microglia

49
Q
  1. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to cause a Subarachnoid haemorrhage?
    a. Berry aneurysm
    b. Skull fracture
    c. Sinus tear
    d. Hydrocephalus
A

a. Berry aneurysm

50
Q
  1. Which of the following products is not typically seen in cerebrospinal fluid?
    a. Sodium
    b. Bicarbonate
    c. Water
    d. Peptides
A

d. Peptides

51
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical signs is present in Osteoarthritis but not Rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Joint effusion
    b. Juxta-articular osteoporosis
    c. Bony spurs and fusion
    d. Tenosynovitis
A

c. Bony spurs and fusion

52
Q
  1. Which of the following clotting factors is not affected by liver damage?
    a. II
    b. VII
    c. XII
    d. X
A

c. XII

53
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical signs is not present in a grade 3 sprain?
    a. Dent in the muscle
    b. Visible haematoma
    c. Limited range of motion
    d. Increased joint laxity
A

a. Dent in the muscle (sign of grade 3 strain) lol

54
Q
  1. James is a 26-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with a thunderclap headache. Following an MRI and neurological examination, he is diagnosed with a subarachnoid haemorrhage. This haemorrhage was most likely caused by:
    a. Lacune development
    b. Amyloidogenic peptide deposition on vessel walls
    c. Cavernous malformation
    d. Berry aneurysm rupture
A

d. Berry aneurysm rupture

55
Q
  1. A recently deceased man is confirmed to have suffered from Alzheimer’s disease upon autopsy. The most likely explanation for this diagnosis is:
    a. Presence of a large number of infarcts in watershed brain areas
    b. Presence of a-synuclein complexes in the limbic system
    c. Amyloid-beta plaque deposition throughout the brain
    d. Prion presence in the brain stem
A

c. Amyloid-beta plaque deposition throughout the brain

56
Q
  1. Janine is 35 and suffers from a genetic disease where aggregated proteins kill neurons within her basal ganglia, particularly the caudate nucleus and putamen, causing jerky movement, cognitive deficit and mood issues. The correct name for the disease she is suffering from is:
    a. Huntington’s Disease
    b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
    c. Lewy Body dementia
    d. Frontotemporal dementia
A

a. Huntington’s Disease –> just based on history –> all options are some form of aggregates etc

57
Q
  1. The act of convergence to focus on closely located objects is facilitated by which muscle?
    a. Abducens
    b. Trochlear
    c. Medial Rectus
    d. Orbicularis Oculi
A

c. Medial Rectus

58
Q
  1. Which of the following eye conditions is considered physiological?
    a. Presbyopic hyperopia
    b. Myopia
    c. Astigmatism
    d. Glaucoma
A

a. Presbyopic hyperopia

59
Q
  1. Emily is a chemical scientist who has suffered a needlestick injury and injected herself with a cholinergic agent. Upon examination, which of the following symptoms is she likely to have?
    a. Mydriasis
    b. Myosis
    c. Proptosis
    d. Ptosis
A

b. Myosis

60
Q
  1. Which of the following areas of the eye is likely to have low perception of colour?
    a. Fovea
    b. Macula
    c. Central Retina
    d. Temporal Peripheral Retina
A

d. Temporal Peripheral Retina

61
Q
  1. Isaac is suffering from influenza and his joints ache at rest and upon movement, even though he hasn’t injured himself. This type of pain is referred to as:
    a. Neuropathic
    b. Inflammatory
    c. Defective
    d. Nociceptive
A

b. Inflammatory

62
Q
  1. The slow nociceptor pathway is mediated by which of the following neurotransmitters?
    a. Substance P
    b. Peptide YY
    c. Glutamate
    d. Acetylcholine
A

a. Substance P

63
Q
  1. Which of the following vestibulocochlear structures is responsible for the detection of gravity?
    a. Cochlear
    b. Semicircular Canals
    c. Otolith Organs
    d. Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus
A

c. Otolith Organs

64
Q
  1. Aasim attends Defqon 1 2019 (If Gladys doesn’t shut it down), and the bass (low frequency sound) from the speakers travels through his ear. Which section of his ear will the sound arrive at?
    a. Proximal end of the cochlea
    b. Semicircular Canals
    c. The stapes
    d. Distal end of the cochlea
A

d. Distal end of the cochlea

65
Q
  1. Which of the following parts of the brain is responsible for wakefulness and consciousness?
    a. Reticular formation
    b. Thalamus
    c. Cerebellum
    d. Primary somatosensory cortex
A

a. Reticular formation

66
Q
  1. David is suffering from motor signal loss in his S1 dermatome. You would expect to see weakness in which of the following movements?
    a. Dorsiflexion of the foot
    b. Hip Extension
    c. Plantarflexion of the foot
    d. Knee flexion
A

c. Plantarflexion of the foot (S1,S2)

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a typical cause of bacterial gastroenteritis in a healthy adult?
    a. Shigella
    b. C. Difficile
    c. E. Coli
    d. Salmonella
A

b. C. Difficile

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most true regarding abdominal pain?
    a. Laboratory tests are the fastest method to provide a cause of abdominal pain
    b. Abdominal pain is only caused by the gastrointestinal and genitourinary systems
    c. Abdominal pain that has been occurring for more than 72 hours is an emergency
    d. Acute abdominal pain should always be considered serious
A

d. Acute abdominal pain should always be considered serious

69
Q
  1. An injury in which nervous system region would likely impair the nervous system’s ability to control gut motility?
    a. S1-S5
    b. T5-L2
    c. CN X
    d. L3-S2
A

b. T5-L2

70
Q
  1. Prostaglandins are created from arachidonic acid using which enzyme?
    a. 5-Lipooxygenase
    b. Lyso-glyceryl-phosphorylcholine
    c. Cyclo-oxygenase
    d. Thromboxase
A

c. Cyclo-oxygenase

71
Q
  1. Enterocytes (epithelial cells in the small intestine) have been shown to die upon separation from the villous extracellular matrix and their surrounding cells. This process is known as:
    a. Anoikis
    b. Apoptosis
    c. Lysis
    d. Necrosis
A

a. Anoikis

72
Q
  1. What cells are responsible for the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism?
    a. Tubular epithelial cells
    b. Podocytes
    c. Macula densa cells
    d. Vascular endothelial cells
A

c. Macula densa cells

73
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes ACE?
    a. It’s an enzyme that converts angiotensin II to angiotensin I, located mainly in the liver.
    b. It’s an enzyme that converts angiotensin II to angiotensin I, located mainly in the lungs.
    c. It’s an enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, located mainly in the liver.
    d. It’s an enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, located mainly in the lungs.
A

d. It’s an enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, located mainly in the lungs.

74
Q
  1. In which of the following situations is Lumbar Puncture contraindicated?
    a. Low ICP
    b. High ICP
    c. Meningitis
    d. Spinal Meningioma
A

b. High ICP

75
Q
  1. A patient undergoes a lumbar puncture which reveals raised lymphocytes, marked glucose reduction and high protein. These results most likely suggest:
    a. Bacterial meningitis
    b. CJD
    c. Parenchymal brain infection
    d. Viral meningitis
A

d. Viral meningitis

76
Q
  1. What type of pain is the WHO pain management ladder used for?
    a. Neuropathic pain
    b. Cancer-related pain
    c. Any pain
    d. Acute pain
A

d. Acute pain

77
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT contribute to the CNS’ status as an immune-privileged area?
    a. High levels of dendritic cells
    b. Absence of lymphatic drainage
    c. Secretion of immunosuppressive TGF-B
    d. Low expression of MHC-II
A

a. High levels of dendritic cells

78
Q
  1. Which of the following processes describes sequestration?
    a. Secretion of suppressive IL-6 by compromised cells
    b. Binding of infected blood cells to the endothelium of microvasculature
    c. Modification of cell-surface MHC to avoid detection
    d. Destruction of red blood cells by the pathogen
A

b. Binding of infected blood cells to the endothelium of microvasculature

79
Q
  1. David is a 56-year-old man suffering from pins and needles in his feet and lower legs, as well as similar tingling beginning in his fingertips. This pattern of neuropathy is described as:
    a. Focal Peripheral Neuropathy
    b. Polyradiculoneuropathy
    c. Polyneuropathy
    d. Mononeuropathy
A

c. Polyneuropathy

80
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is NOT involved in Wallerian degeneration of peripheral nerves?
    a. Macrophages
    b. Schwann Cells
    c. Astrocytes
    d. Neutrophils
A

d. Neutrophils

81
Q
  1. The first-line therapy for neuropathic pain is:
    a. Tricyclic antidepressants
    b. Gabapentin
    c. Fentanyl infusion
    d. Ketamine
A

a. Tricyclic antidepressants

82
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common type of intracranial tumour?
    a. Craniopharyngioma
    b. Glioma
    c. Meningioma
    d. Metastatic cancer
A

d. Metastatic cancer

83
Q
  1. Lisa presents to the GP with an episode of contact dermatitis. This is most likely to be a:
    a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
    b. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
    c. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
    d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
A

d. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

84
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics is true of innate immunity?
    a. Memory
    b. High specificity
    c. Rapid response
    d. Slow response
A

c. Rapid response

85
Q
  1. A 31-year-old woman presents with fatigue and amenorrhea. Thyroid tests show low T3, low t4 and very low TSH. What is the most appropriate next test?
    a. Thyroid antibody test
    b. Thyroid ultrasound
    c. Thyroid iodine uptake test
    d. MRI of pituitary gland
A

d. MRI of pituitary gland

86
Q
  1. What two patient demographics are most commonly diagnosed with Myasthenia Gravis?
    a. Old men and women
    b. Middle aged men and young women
    c. Old men and young women
    d. Young men and women
A

c. Old men and young women

87
Q
  1. Mel, a 30 year old woman, presents with pain in her right knee. The pain is there on twisting, and sometimes her knee locks. Sometimes she is unable to fully extend her knee. She reports a twisting injury one week ago. Where is the pathology most likely located?
    a. Along the lateral fibular head
    b. At the attachment of the tibial tuberosity
    c. In the joint space
    d. In the quadriceps tendon
A

c. In the joint space

88
Q
  1. What substance is most crucial for resting membrane potential of neurons?
    a. Potassium
    b. Sodium
    c. Calcium
    d. Glutamate
A

Potassium

89
Q
  1. A woman has hypercalcaemia which you decide to treat with bisphosphonates. What is the mode of action of bisphosphonates?
    a. Ingestion by osteoclasts inducing osteoclast apoptosis and leading to decreased bone resorption
    b. Antagonise RANKL causing decreased bone resorption by osteoclasts
    c. Stimulate osteoblasts promoting calcium deposition
    d. Inhibit calcium release from bones into bloodstream
A

a. Ingestion by osteoclasts inducing osteoclast apoptosis and leading to decreased bone resorption

90
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter contributes to the generation of seizures?
    a. Noradrenaline
    b. Epinephrine
    c. GABA
    d. Glutamate
A

d. Glutamate

91
Q
  1. Dan presents to the physio with a torn medial collateral ligament of the knee. What sign might the physiotherapist see upon investigation?
    a. Abnormal lateral rotation of the knee during extension
    b. Abnormal passive abduction of the knee during extension
    c. Anterior tibial displacement
    d. Inability to fully extend knee
A

b. Abnormal passive abduction of the knee during extension

92
Q
  1. A 46-year-old man presents to the GP with new onset of a hoarse voice. On examination, he has weakness on the left side of his soft palate, and pharynx upon testing the gag reflex. When asked to cough, it is moist and inefficient. Which nerve is most likely involved?
    a. C1
    b. Spinal accessory
    c. Vagus
    d. Glossopharyngeal
A

c. Vagus

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action of Valproate?
    a. Prolongs recovery rate of Sodium channels
    b. Inhibits T-type calcium channels in the thalamus
    c. Prolongs opening of GABA receptors
    d. Augments GABA production and impedes its breakdown
A

c. Prolongs opening of GABA receptors

94
Q
  1. Which of the following Antiepileptic medications is used for Absence seizures?
    a. Topiramate
    b. Ethosuximide
    c. Gabapentin
    d. Carbamazepine
A

b. Ethosuximide

95
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Antiepileptic medications is true?
    a. Antiepileptic medications have no uses in other conditions other than epilepsy
    b. Antiepileptic medications can be dangerous when used during pregnancy
    c. Barbiturate drugs have little to no abuse potential
    d. All antiepileptic drugs are broad-spectrum and target most types of seizure.
A

b. Antiepileptic medications can be dangerous when used during pregnancy

96
Q
  1. Which of the following most accurately describes the action of Barbiturates in epilepsy?
    a. Channel modulator
    b. Inverse agonist
    c. Channel blocker
    d. Antagonist
A

a. Channel modulator

97
Q
  1. Which of the following signs is present in Myasthenia Gravis but not Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
    a. Positive ice test
    b. Muscle stiffness
    c. Absence of deep tendon reflexes
    d. Increase in muscle strength with repetitive muscle contraction
A

a. Positive ice test

98
Q
  1. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with a small-cell lung tumour is an example of:
    a. Complement activation
    b. Toxin-induced tissue damage
    c. Molecular mimicry
    d. Failure of negative selection
A

c. Molecular mimicry

99
Q
  1. Christina is a 27-year-old woman who suffers from Multiple Sclerosis. She describes her symptoms to her doctor as “on and off episodes”, where she will have symptoms for a week or so before they go away again. This is an example of what type of pattern?
    a. Glove and stocking
    b. Polyradiculopathy
    c. Oligoclonal Nature
    d. Relapse-Remitting
A

d. Relapse-Remitting

100
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a symptom of Multiple Sclerosis?
    a. Spastic Paralysis
    b. Dysaesthesia (unpleasant sensation when touched)
    c. Flaccid Paralysis
    d. Tremor
A

c. Flaccid Paralysis

JMP Y2S1 (24 decks)

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