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JMP Y2S1 > Pass Semester revision: Pat > Flashcards

Pass Semester revision: Pat Flashcards

1
Q

What is a way to remember nerve roots for arm flexion?

A

C5-C6 pick up sticks (arm flexion)

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2
Q

What is a way to remember arm extension?

A

C7-c8 lay them straight (arm extension)

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3
Q

What is a way to remember knee extension?

A

L3-L4 kick the door (knee extension)

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4
Q

What is a way to remember knee flexion?

A

It is just s1 I think

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5
Q

What is a way to remember plantarflexion?

A

S1-s2 point your shoes (plantarflexion)

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6
Q
  1. An exchange student presents to the GP complaining of fatigue and lethargy. Routine bloods show low MCV, high MCHC. RBC membranes are also fragile. What would be seen on blood smear?
    a. Sickle cell anaemia
    b. Schistocytes
    c. Spherocytes
    d. Normal red cells
    Target cells
A

c. Spherocytes

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7
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of anaemia of chronic disease?
    a. Downregulate intestinal DMT1 transporters
    b. Increased iron excretion via FET1 proteins
    c. Reduced activity of ferroportin
    d. Downregulation of transferrin
A

c. Reduced activity of ferroportin

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8
Q

What causes the reduced activity of ferroportin in chronic disease?

A

Hepcidin

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is involved in the formation of a primary platelet plug?
    a. Fibrinogen activation
    b. Serine protease amplification in the intrinsic pathway
    c. Tranexamic acid release
    d. Chemical mediators including ADP and TXA2
A

d. Chemical mediators including ADP and TXA2

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10
Q

What is another name for fibrinogen?

A

Factor 1

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following mechanisms does not prevent the production of clots in healthy blood vessels?
    a. Fibrinolytic pathway
    b. Protein C pathway
    c. Serine protease inhibitor antithrombin
    d. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor
A

a. Fibrinolytic pathway

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12
Q
  1. A female with a PMHx of DVT is taking Warfarin. She decides to start a new diet with leafy green smoothies and juices. What are you most concerned about?
    a. Cognitive dysfunction
    b. Increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage
    c. Nausea and vomiting
    d. Increased bruising
    e. Increased risk of DVT
A

e. Increased risk of DVT

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13
Q
  1. A 45-year-old male presents to the GP complaining of fatigue, lethargy and chronic dyspnoea. His blood results reveal an elevated MCV with normal blasts. Which of the following aetiologies would be consistent with these results?
    a. B12 deficiency
    b. Folate deficiency
    c. Iron deficiency
    d. Chronic alcohol use
A

d. Chronic alcohol use

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14
Q

What is different between b12 and folate deficiency vs chronic alcohol on blood?

A

B12 and folate are megaloblastic

Chronic alcohol is normal blasts

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15
Q
  1. A woman comes in with joint pain and stiffness. You suspect she has rheumatoid arthritis. What is most likely correct about rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Decreased release of cytokines
    b. Increased activity of osteoclasts
    c. Increased activity of osteoblasts
    d. Decreased activity of osteoclasts
    e. Type I hypersensitivity
A

b. Increased activity of osteoclasts

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16
Q
  1. What nerve elicits the triceps reflex?
    a. C4
    b. C5
    c. C6
    d. C7
    e. T1
A

C7

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most important cause of non-melanoma skin cancer?
    a. Chronic sunburn resulting in an increased melanin activity in the skin
    b. Chemical exposure decreasing skin desmoglein
    c. Immunosuppression resulting in increased risk of HPV infections
    d. Ionising radiation resulting in keratinocyte apoptosis
    e. Chronic UVB exposure disrupting DNA in keratinocyte
A

e. Chronic UVB exposure disrupting DNA in keratinocyte

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18
Q
  1. Group A Streptococcus can cause rheumatic fever. What is the mechanism behind this?
    a. Exotoxins including streptolysin O
    b. Bystander activation of immune cells
    c. Molecular mimicry
    d. Sequestered antigens
A

c. Molecular mimicry

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause myelosuppression?
    a. Alkylating agents
    b. Monoclonal antibodies
    c. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
    d. Hormonal therapies
    e. Immunosuppressants
A

a. Alkylating agents

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20
Q

What are some examples of anti-metabolites that also cause myeloid suppression?

A

5-fluro-uricil
Methotrexate
Fludarabine

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21
Q
  1. A motorbike rider presents to the emergency department with a loss of sensation in the outer upper arm. An X-ray of the arm reveals a surgical neck fracture. Which nerve is most likely damaged?
    a. Median nerve
    b. Radial nerve
    c. Axillary nerve
    d. Musculocutaneous nerve
    e. Ulnar nerve
A

c. Axillary nerve

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22
Q

What does the axillary nerve accompany around the surgical neck of the humerus?

A

Circumflex artery

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most specific for SLE?
    a. Anti-dsDNA
    b. Anti-CCP
    c. RF
    d. ESR
    e. CRP
A

a. Anti-dsDNA

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following are more specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. ANA
    b. CRP
    c. ESR
    d. HLA-B27
    e. Anti-CCP
A

e. Anti-CCP

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25
Q

What is HLA-B27 specific for?

A 
Ankylosing spondylitis
Reactive arthritis 
IBD
Psoriasis
and something else cant remember
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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of innate immunity?
    a. Memory
    b. Highly specific
    c. No specificity
    d. Rapid response
    e. Slow response
A

d. Rapid response

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27
Q
  1. What does connective tissue proper consist of?
    a. Cells, water and extracellular matrix (ECM)
    b. Collagen, cells and extracellular matrix (ECM)
    c. Fibroblasts, mast cells and ground substance
    d. Cells, fibres and ground substance
A

d. Cells, fibres and ground substance

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28
Q

What do fibres and ground substance make?

A

ECM

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29
Q
  1. What is an important component of joint articular cartilage?
    a. Dense bundles of collagen
    b. Extensive ground substance
    c. Hydrophobic
    d. Proteoglycan aggregates
    e. Rich blood supply
A

d. Proteoglycan aggregates

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30
Q
  1. What vessel would most likely be affected with a mid-shaft fracture?
    a. Brachial
    b. Axillary
    c. Radial
    d. Ulnar
    e. Profunda brachii
    Subscapular
A

e. Profunda brachii

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31
Q
  1. A 63-year-old woman complained about pain and deformity in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints (DIP and PIP) and at the base of the thumb for several months. She also complained about stiffness of her hands in the morning but indicated that it does not last more than 30 minutes. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Psoriatic arthritis
    b. Rheumatoid arthritis
    c. Septic arthritis
    d. Osteoarthritis
    e. Osteoporosis
A

d. Osteoarthritis

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32
Q

What is the pattern of pain for RA?

A

Will not have issue with distal joint (DIP)
Only Proximal (PIP)
Better with activity –> worse with rest
Hot, red

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33
Q

What is the pattern of pain for OA?

A

Can be proximal and distal joints

Worse with activity –> better with exercise

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34
Q
  1. A woman with poorly managed asthma receives a new diagnosis of hypertension. What medication should be avoided?
    a. Captopril
    b. Irbesartan
    c. Labetalol
    d. Amlodipine
A

c. Labetalol

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35
Q
  1. Which antihypertensive increases nitric oxide?
    a. Beta-blockers
    b. ACEi
    c. Loop diuretics
    d. Thiazide diuretics
    e. Calcium channel blockers
A

b. ACEi

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36
Q
  1. A patient complaining of chest pain at rest and shortness of breath presents to the emergency department. ECG reveals ST segment elevation in the leads V3 and V4. Which of the following coronary arteries is most likely occluded?
    a. Right coronary artery
    b. Left circumflex artery
    c. Left anterior descending artery
    d. Posterior descending artery
A

c. Left anterior descending artery

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of GTN?
    a. Improved cardiac contractile force leading to more efficient ejections
    b. Increased afterload to improve cardiac perfusion
    c. Prolongation of ventricular filling to optimize cardiac output
    d. Decreased preload leading to decreased cardiac work
A

d. Decreased preload leading to decreased cardiac work

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38
Q
  1. A 67-year-old asymptomatic female has a doppler U/S discovers decreased perfusion to the left kidney due to renal artery stenosis. She has a BP of 190/140 and the rest of her examination unremarkable. Her UEC is normal. Which of the following hormones would have most contributed to her HTN?
    a. Atrial natriuretic peptide
    b. Adrenaline
    c. Epinephrine
    d. Nitric Oxide
    e. Renin
    f. Thyroxine
A

e. Renin

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
    a. Anabolic steroid use
    b. Excessive calcium intake
    c. Low BMI
    d. Low PTH
    e. Male gender
A

c. Low BMI

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40
Q
  1. A woman presents with low bone density and is prescribed bisphosphonates. What is the mechanism of action?
    a. Antagonise RANKL causing decreased bone resorption by osteoclasts
    b. Stimulate osteoblasts by promoting calcium deposition
    c. Ingestion by osteoclasts inducing apoptosis
    d. Inhibit calcium release from bones into bloodstream
A

c. Ingestion by osteoclasts inducing apoptosis

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41
Q

What is the naming system for bisphosphonates?

A

End in dronate –> eg aledronate, etridronate

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42
Q

Alongside bisphosphonates driving apoptosis what do they do?

A

Stop osteoclasts binding to the bone

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43
Q
  1. A person presents to the GP clinic with hip drop. You ask the patient to go for a walk in the hallway and you notice a right hip drop when the patient is weightbearing on their left side. Which nerve is damaged?
    a. Right superior gluteal nerve
    b. Right inferior gluteal nerve
    c. Left superior gluteal nerve
    d. Left inferior gluteal nerve
A

c. Left superior gluteal nerve

44
Q

What side has the issue in Trendelenburg hip drop?

A

The contralateral side to the dropped side

45
Q

What muscle is involved with a Trendelenburg gait?

A

gluteus Medius and minimus

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a deep vein?
    a. Posterior tibial vein
    b. Anterior tibial vein
    c. Great saphenous vein
    d. Femoral vein
    e. Deep femoral vein
A

c. Great saphenous vein

47
Q
  1. What nerve elicits the biceps reflex?
    a. C3
    b. C5
    c. C7
    d. T1
    T2
A

b. C5

48
Q
  1. Where is CSF produced?
    a. Arachnoid villi
    b. Ciliary bodies
    c. Dural sinuses
    d. Mamillary bodies
    e. Choroid plexus
A

e. Choroid plexus

49
Q

Where is the choroid plexus found?

A

Lateral and 4th ventricles

50
Q
  1. Which of the following meningeal layers is avascular?
    a. Periosteal dura
    b. Meningeal dura
    c. Arachnoid
    d. Pia
A

c. Arachnoid

51
Q
  1. Therapeutic hyperventilation is used to treat increased intracranial pressure. What is the mechanism behind this?
    a. Increased sympathetic activity resulting in vasoconstriction
    b. Hypercapnia causes vasodilation
    c. Increased adenosine resulting in vasodilation
    d. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction
A

d. Hypocapnia causes vasoconstriction

52
Q
  1. A patient comes in with his wife with a history of head trauma 3 days ago. He has developed vomiting and confusion. Imaging shows a crescent shaped haematoma. The rupturing of which vessel is behind this pathology?
    a. Cerebral sinus
    b. Middle cerebral artery
    c. Meningeal artery
    d. Bridging cerebral vein
A

d. Bridging cerebral vein

53
Q
  1. A 74-year-old male suffers a stroke. Which of the following signs would suggest that it was a cortical cerebral stroke?
    a. Impaired respiration
    b. Impaired coordination
    c. Impaired thermoregulation
    d. Impaired swallowing
    e. Impaired ability to understand speech
    f. Central vertigo
A

e. Impaired ability to understand speech

54
Q

What stroke symptoms in MCA?

A

More symptoms above legs (can still get low issue leg)

55
Q

What stroke symptoms in ACA?

A

Leg worse than arm

56
Q

What stroke symptoms in brainstem?

A

Cranial nerve issues

57
Q
  1. What is the critical function of astrocytes?
    a. Generating neural stem cells
    b. Initiating inflammatory response in CNS
    c. Insulate axon to increase conduction
    d. Helps make a semi-permeable barrier between fluid filled compartments in CNS
    e. Recycle neurotransmitters and secrete neurotrophic substances
A

e. Recycle neurotransmitters and secrete neurotrophic substances

58
Q
  1. What type of antineoplastic drug would be used to treat non-small cell lung cancer dependent on epidermal growth factor receptor?
    a. Alkylating agents
    b. Antimetabolites
    c. Kinase inhibitors
    d. Hormonal agents
A

c. Kinase inhibitors

59
Q
  1. Raised intracranial pressures can cause herniation of brain structures. What type of herniation causes brainstem compression?
    a. Subfalcine
    b. Supratentorial
    c. Tonsillar
    d. Transtentorial
    Transcalvarial
A

c. Tonsillar

60
Q
  1. Which of the following neurodegenerative conditions is also based on the deposits of Lewy bodies, besides Dementia with Lewy Bodies?
    a. Alzheimer’s
    b. Parkinson’s
    c. CJD
    d. Huntington’s
A

b. Parkinson’s

61
Q

What are Lewy bodies made from?

A

Alpha-synuclein (misfolded)

62
Q

What are the problems in AD?

A

NFT and amyloid beta plaques (starts in entorhinal cortex) and affects hippocampal (medio-temporal lobe)

63
Q

What issue is within Huntington’s?

A

Tandem repeats CAG –> over 35 repeats –> CAG encodes for glutamine

64
Q
  1. Misfolding of alpha-synuclein in the neuron underpins which disease process?
    a. Alzheimer’s
    b. Dementia with Lewy bodies
    c. Huntington’s disease
    d. CJD
A

b. Dementia with Lewy bodies

65
Q
  1. A 76-year-old female has a history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia and doppler US reveals 85% stenosis of the carotid artery. 12 months ago, her family noticed sudden memory loss. She has no other sensory disturbances. She has no personality changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Dementia w/ Lewy Bodies
    b. CJD
    c. Alzheimer’s disease
    d. Vascular dementia
    e. Frontotemporal dementia
A

d. Vascular dementia

66
Q
  1. A 26-year-old female presents to the GP because of frequent migraines. Which neurotransmitter is strongly implicated in the pathogenesis of migraine?
    a. Dopamine
    b. GABA
    c. Glutamate
    d. Serotonin
    e. Noradrenaline
A

d. Serotonin

67
Q
  1. Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of Bell’s Palsy?
    a. Intact forehead innervation
    b. Ptosis
    c. Loss of taste in anterior 2/3 tongue
    d. Loss of salivation from the parotid gland
A

c. Loss of taste in anterior 2/3 tongue

68
Q

What does taste in anterior 2/3 of tongue?

A

Facial nerve –> hence can help confirm a bells palsy

69
Q
  1. A 45-year-old female presents to the ED concerned she is having a stroke. On cranial nerve examination, you notice she has a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the lesion likely located?
    a. Left optic nerve
    b. Right optic nerve
    c. Optic chiasm
    d. Left optic tract
    e. Right optic tract
A

e. Right optic tract

70
Q
  1. A patient presents to the ED with a high energy trauma to the humerus. A surgeon explores the cubital fossa for signs of damage and see a damaged median nerve. Which of the following functions would not be affected?
    a. Pincer grip
    b. Opposition
    c. Thumb adduction
    d. Thumb flexion
    e. Thumb abduction
A

c. Thumb adduction

71
Q

What A movement does the median nerve do?

A

LOAF –> does abduction –> LOAF Bread (B for abduction)

72
Q
  1. Migration studies in multiple sclerosis suggest that there is a critical age that predisposes or protects against multiple sclerosis. What is this age?
    a. 5
    b. 15
    c. 25
    d. 35
    45
A

b. 15

73
Q
  1. A patient is stabbed in the spinal cord and has a hemisection on the left side. How would they present?
    a. Pain and thermal affected on the ipsilateral side, proprioception on the contralateral side
    b. Pain and proprioception affected on the contralateral side, thermal affected on the ipsilateral side
    c. Pain and thermal affected on the contralateral side, proprioception on the ipsilateral side
    d. Pain and proprioception on the ipsilateral side, thermal affected on the contralateral side
A

c. Pain and thermal affected on the contralateral side, proprioception on the ipsilateral side

74
Q
  1. A 28-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a history of feeling more tired than usual. She has also noted some tingling on her left upper arm. She reports that she had a period of double vision one month ago for 4-5 days. She noticed that she has increased urinary frequency. What provisional diagnosis would you consider is most likely?
    a. GBS
    b. MS
    c. MG
    d. Poliomyelitis
A

b. MS

75
Q
  1. Which of the following valences refers to the most bioavailable form of iron?
    a. Fe+
    b. Fe2+
    c. Fe3+
    d. Fe4+
A

b. Fe2+

76
Q
  1. Which of the following will lead to a microcytic anaemia?
    a. Vit B12 deficiency
    b. Pernicious anaemia
    c. Chronic kidney disease
    d. Iron deficiency
A

d. Iron deficiency

77
Q
  1. A patient who has had Rheumatoid arthritis for 10 years presents complaining of fatigue and lethargy. Which of the following would most likely represent their blood findings?
    a. Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia
    b. Microcytic, hyperchromic anaemia
    c. Normocytic, normochromic anaemia
    d. Macrocytic, normochromic anaemia
    e. Megaloblastic anaemia
A

a. Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia

78
Q
  1. The intrinsic and common pathways are measured using which lab test?
    a. aPTT
    b. PT
    c. TT
    d. INR
A

a. aPTT

79
Q
  1. Aspirin’s anti-coagulation effects come mostly from reducing
    a. PGF2a
    b. PGFD2
    c. PGE2
    d. TXA2
    e. PGI2
A

d. TXA2

80
Q
  1. P2Y12 receptor antagonists such as Clopidogrel
    a. Increase ADP release
    b. Reduce ADP release
    c. Decrease cAMP
    d. Increase cAMP
    e. Decrease PDE
    f. Increase PDE
A

d. Increase cAMP

81
Q
  1. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of an anticoagulant?
    a. Activate TXA2
    b. Activate Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
    c. Inhibit cAMP production
    d. Inhibit platelet phosphodiesterase
    e. Increase activity of COX
A

d. Inhibit platelet phosphodiesterase

82
Q
  1. Polyarteritis Nodosa is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
    a. Type I
    b. Type II
    c. Type III
    d. Type IV
A

c. Type III

83
Q

What condition is commonly linked to polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Hep B

84
Q
  1. A 15-year old boy presents to the GP complaining of hearing loss following his school swimming carnival a few days ago. When you perform a Rinne test, air conduction > bone conduction for both ears. On Weber test, he says the sound is louder on the right. What do you suspect?
    a. Left conductive hearing loss
    b. Left sensorineural hearing loss
    c. Right conductive hearing loss
    d. Right sensorineural hearing loss
A

b. Left sensorineural hearing loss

85
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the function and structure of the Golgi tendon apparatus?
    a. Muscle stretch and arranged in parallel with muscle fibres
    b. Muscle stretch and arranged in series with muscle fibres
    c. Muscle tension and arranged in parallel with muscle fibres
    d. Muscle tension and arranged in series with muscle fibres
A

d. Muscle tension and arranged in series with muscle fibres

86
Q
  1. A 7-year-old boy presents to the ED with general malaise, difficulty swallowing and weakness of limbs. The onset of symptoms follows a recent gastro infection 2 weeks ago. On examination, neck muscles, as well as both proximal and distal arm and leg muscles are noted to be weak. Tendon reflexes are reduced bilaterally (upper and lower) but the sensation is only mildly affected. Which of the following options describes the most likely underlying condition?
    a. Myasthenia Gravis
    b. Polymyositis
    c. Poliomyelitis
    d. Spinal cord compression
    e. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (GBS)
A

e. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (GBS)

87
Q
  1. A young woman presents with right-sided loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation. She also exhibits ipsilateral loss of proprioception. Which anatomical structure has likely been damaged?
    a. Right dorsal column
    b. Left spinothalamic tract
    c. Left dorsal column
    d. Right spinocerebellar tract
    e. Left spinothalamic tract
A

a. Right dorsal column

88
Q

What travels in dorsal column?

A

Fine touch
Vibration
Proprioception

89
Q

What travels in spinothalamic column?

A

Pain
Temp
Crude touch

90
Q
  1. John, 70, presents with eye troubles. He has 6/6 acuity with glasses, although his eyes feel heavy and he gets double vision after an hour of reading. His eyes recover after short rest but get worse after shorter and shorter rest times. No other tiredness is noted. What disease is likely?
    a. Degeneration of CNS
    b. Demyelination
    c. Inflammatory polyneuropathy
    d. Disease of the NMJ
A

d. Disease of the NMJ

91
Q
  1. A parasternal heave on cardiovascular examination would suggest
    a. Left atrial hypertrophy
    b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    c. Right atrial hypertrophy
    d. Right ventricular hypertrophy
A

d. Right ventricular hypertrophy

92
Q
  1. A 50-year-old male is BIBA to the emergency department with frank haematemesis, BP 85/55 and altered consciousness. The patient is tachycardic SOB. If further examination revealed caput medusae and splenomegaly, which of the following would you believe to be the most likely culprit?
    a. Mallory-Weiss tear
    b. Gastric Ulcer
    c. Oesophageal varices
    d. Barrett’s oesophagus
A

c. Oesophageal varices

93
Q
  1. A patient presents to the GP clinic complaining of constipation, weight gain and insensitivity to cold. Which of the following serum markers would you expect to find in an elevated concentration?
    a. TSHrAb
    b. Anti-TPO antibodies
    c. Elevated T4
    d. Albumin
A

b. Anti-TPO antibodies

94
Q

What is anti-tpo antibodies in?

A

Hashimotos thydoiditis (hypothyroid)

95
Q

What is TSHrAB found in?

A

Graves disease (hyperthyroidism)

96
Q
  1. A patient recently had an appendectomy and was recovering well for 3 days until he experienced nausea and vomiting. Upon auscultation, he had no audible bowel sounds. What is your most likely diagnosis?
    a. Adhesions
    b. Paralytic ileus
    c. Gastroenteritis
    d. Sigmoid volvulus
A

b. Paralytic ileus

97
Q
  1. A bodybuilder has a normal diet and consumes protein supplements. Which of the following would this lead to?
    a. Increased gluconeogenesis in the liver
    b. Increased amino acids converted to ketoacids for body usage
    c. Increased urea synthesis in the kidneys
    d. Increased ammonia synthesis in the liver
A

d. Increased ammonia synthesis in the liver

98
Q
  1. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a hypertension and mild hyperkalaemia. Which of the following anti-hypertensives has the added bonus of reducing potassium?
    a. Labetalol
    b. Ramipril
    c. Spironolactone
    d. Hydrochlorothiazide
    e. Nifedipine
A

d. Hydrochlorothiazide

99
Q

Why does Hydrochlorothiazide and frusemide reduce potassium and help hypertension?

A

Works in DCT and blocks Na+/Cl-

100
Q
  1. A 73-old- female presents to the emergency department with acute gastroenteritis, dehydration and fatigue. Which of the following pieces of information from history would make you suspect a C. Difficile infection?
    a. Drinking from still-water reservoir when going for a hike
    b. Cross-contamination on meat preparation
    c. Drinking of tap water in a developing country
    d. Recent UTI and treatment
A

d. Recent UTI and treatment

101
Q
  1. What is most true regarding the migrating motor complex?
    a. Stimulated by food ingestion
    b. Ensures food moves into the oesophagus instead of the trachea
    c. Moves undigested food from the small intestine to the large intestine
    d. The dilation of the rectum to accommodate an increasing faecal load
A

c. Moves undigested food from the small intestine to the large intestine

102
Q
  1. A 56-year-old male presents to the rheumatology clinic with ongoing pain for his rheumatoid arthritis, he is initiated on ibuprofen for pain control. What effect does this have on the kidneys?
    a. Afferent arteriole dilation
    b. Afferent arteriole constriction
    c. Efferent arteriole constriction
    d. Efferent arteriole dilation
A

b. Afferent arteriole constriction

103
Q
  1. Which of the following would you expect to see in an individual with Addison’s disease?
    a. Hypotension
    b. Hypokalaemia
    c. Hypernatremia
    d. Hypopigmentation
    e. Hypoglycaemia
A

a. Hypotension

104
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Adrenal insufficiency –> InAddison’s disease, your adrenal glands, located just above your kidneys, produce too little cortisol and, often, too little aldosterone.

105
Q
  1. A 3-year-old girl presents to the GP with her mother. Her mother is concerned as she is smaller than other children of her age and has difficulty gaining weight. She has also noticed that recently, her daughter’s stools have become pale and greasy and she is often bloated. On examination, the girl appears pale and underweight for her age. She has some abdominal distension and there is muscle wasting of the buttocks. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this history and examination?
    a. Crohn’s disease
    b. Ulcerative colitis
    c. Cow’s milk protein allergy
    d. Coeliac disease
    e. Hirschsprung’s disease
A

d. Coeliac disease

106
Q
  1. Am I super proud of all of you and are you all going to do amazing in the exam?
    a. Yes
    b. Yes
    c. Yes
    d. Yes
A

All of the above –> YES

JMP Y2S1 (24 decks)

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