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JMP Y2S1 > Pass Y2S1 formative revision: Pat > Flashcards

Pass Y2S1 formative revision: Pat Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 65-year-old male presents to the GP with increasing lethargy, fatigue and exhaustion. Which of the following will lead to a normocytic anaemia?
    a. Folate deficiency
    b. Pernicious anaemia
    c. Alcohol use disorder
    d. Chronic kidney disease
A

d. Chronic kidney disease

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2
Q

Why does CKD lead to normocytic normochromic anaemia?

A

Reduced EPO

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3
Q
  1. An exchange student presents to the GP complaining of fatigue and lethargy. Routine bloods show low MCV, high MCHC. RBC membranes are also fragile. What would be seen on blood smear?
    a. Sickle cell anaemia
    b. Schistocytes
    c. Spherocytes
    d. Normal red cells
    e. Target cells
A

c. Spherocytes

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4
Q

What do target cells indicate?

A

Liver disease, some thalassaemia’s and spleen problem/specectomy

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5
Q

What do schistocytes look like?

A

Helmet looking cells (army helmets)

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6
Q
  1. A patient presents to the emergency department following massive haemorrhage. Which of the following will reflect their blood results 5 days later?
    a. Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia with normal reticulocyte count
    b. Normocytic, normochromic anaemia with decreased reticulocyte count
    c. Macrocytic, normochromic anaemia with normal reticulocyte count
    d. Macrocytic, normochromic anaemia with elevated reticulocyte count
    e. Normocytic, normochromic anaemia with high reticulocyte count
A

e. Normocytic, normochromic anaemia with high reticulocyte count

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7
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of anaemia of chronic disease?
    a. Downregulate intestinal DMT1 transporters
    b. Increased iron excretion via FET1 proteins
    c. Reduced activity of ferroportin
    d. Downregulation of transferrin
A

c. Reduced activity of ferroportin

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8
Q

What do we get in the liver during chronic disease?

A

Hepcidin

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9
Q

What does Hepcidin do?

A

Hepcidin is a regulator ofironmetabolism. Hepcidin inhibitsirontransport by binding to theironexport channel ferroportin

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10
Q
  1. The intrinsic and common pathways are measured using which lab test?
    a. aPTT
    b. PT
    c. TT
    INR
A

a. aPTT

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is involved in the formation of a primary platelet plug?
    a. Fibrinogen activation
    b. Serine protease amplification in the intrinsic pathway
    c. Tranexamic acid release
    d. Chemical mediators including ADP and TXA2
A

d. Chemical mediators including ADP and TXA2

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following would be consistent with a clotting factor disorder?
    a. Urinary tract bleeding
    b. Menorrhagia
    c. Epistaxis
    d. Haemarthroses
    e. Oral bleeding
A

d. Haemarthroses

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13
Q

What kind of disease is von Willebrand disease?

A

Platelet disease

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14
Q
  1. What pathogen causes rheumatic fever?
    a. Golden staph
    b. HIV
    c. Campylobacter
    d. Salmonella
    e. Group A Streptococcus
    f. Group B Streptococcus
    e. E. Coli
A

e. Group A Streptococcus

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15
Q
  1. Frank is a 60-year old farmer who presents with a skin lesion. Your provisional diagnosis is melanoma. What clinical findings most support a melanoma diagnosis?
    a. Asymmetrical, irregular border, <4mm, smooth surface
    b. Asymmetrical, irregular border, >6mm, bleeding surface
    c. Symmetrical, irregular border, <4mm, bleeding surface
    d. Symmetrical, regular border >6mm, smooth surface
A

b. Asymmetrical, irregular border, >6mm, bleeding surface

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of an anticoagulant?
    a. Activate TXA2
    b. Activate Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
    c. Inhibit cAMP production
    d. Inhibit platelet phosphodiesterase
    e. Increase activity of COX
A

d. Inhibit platelet phosphodiesterase

17
Q
  1. How do histamines cause vasoconstriction?
    a. Histamine H2 receptor antagonist
    b. Reduce NO mobilisation
    c. Reduce kinase activity
    d. Reduce vesicle mobilisation
A

b. Reduce NO mobilisation

18
Q

What are antihistamines mechanism (agonist/antagonist etc)?

A

Inverse agonists

19
Q
  1. A woman comes in with joint pain and stiffness. You suspect she has rheumatoid arthritis. What is most likely correct about rheumatoid arthritis?
    a. Decreased release of cytokines
    b. Increased activity of osteoclasts
    c. Increased activity of osteoblasts
    d. Decreased activity of osteoclasts
    e. Type I hypersensitivity
A

b. Increased activity of osteoclasts

20
Q

What serum test is specific to Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

anti-ccp

21
Q
  1. What is the underpinning pathology in osteoarthritis?
    a. Proliferative synovitis and pannus formation
    b. Crystal deposition disease
    c. Articular cartilage degeneration
    d. Hyperuricaemia
    e. Anti-CCP antibodies
    f. Unregulated Th1 and classically activated macrophages
A

c. Articular cartilage degeneration

22
Q

What is the pathology of RA?

A

Proliferative synovitis and pannus formation

23
Q

What causes gout?

A

Hyperuricaemia

24
Q

What causes pseudogout?

A

Crystal deposition disease

25
Q
  1. A motorbike rider presents to the emergency department with a loss of sensation in the outer upper arm. An X-ray of the arm reveals a surgical neck fracture. Which nerve is most likely damaged?
    a. Median nerve
    b. Radial nerve
    c. Axillary nerve
    d. Musculocutaneous nerve
    e. Ulnar nerve
A

c. Axillary nerve

26
Q
  1. A 63-year-old woman complained about pain and deformity in the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints (DIP and PIP) and at the base of the thumb for several months. She also complained about stiffness of her hands in the morning but indicated that it does not last more than 30 minutes. The most likely diagnosis is:
    a. Psoriatic arthritis
    b. Rheumatoid arthritis
    c. Septic arthritis
    d. Osteoarthritis
    e. Osteoporosis
A

d. Osteoarthritis

27
Q

What is symptom differences in terms of locations and stiffness in osteoarthritis vs RA?

A

OA –> can be DIP and PIP –> stiffness gets better after 30mins in morning
RA –> not in DIP –> stiffness lasts longer than 30min-60mins

28
Q
  1. What nerve elicits the triceps reflex?
    a. C4
    b. C5
    c. C6
    d. C7
    e. T1
A

d. C7

29
Q
  1. A 17-year-old boy falls off his motorbike and suffers a laceration to the left knee on the medial aspect. There is numbness down the medial leg and foot. No motor deficits were found on examination. What nerve is involved?
    a. Deep fibular
    b. Femoral
    c. Sural
    d. Saphenous
    e. Superficial fibular
A

d. Saphenous

30
Q
  1. A patient presents with a torn medial collateral ligament of knee. What sign might you see?
    a. Abnormal lateral rotation of the knee during extension
    b. Abnormal valgus movement of the knee
    c. Posterior tibial displacement
    d. Anterior displacement with anterior drawer test
    e. Inability to fully extend knee
A

b. Abnormal valgus movement of the knee

31
Q

What is valgus movement of the knee?

A

Knee Valgusrefers to a moment during a squat or jumpingmovementwhere thekneescave in toward one another.

32
Q
  1. The myelin sheath surrounding CNS nerves are made from which cell type?
    a. Microglia
    b. Oligodendrocytes
    c. Satellite cells
    d. Schwann cells
    e. Astrocytes
A

b. Oligodendrocytes

33
Q
  1. A woman comes into the GP clinic with haematuria and urinary incontinence. She describes stinging on urination. She also reports pain in the suprapubic area. There is no history of fevers or chills. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Urge incontinence
    b. Stress incontinence
    c. Cystitis
    d. Pyelonephritis
A

c. Cystitis

JMP Y2S1 (24 decks)

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