STEP 1 Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Trastuzimab toxicity

A

Binds to HER2 receptor

Can have cardiotoxicity, usually just causes a decrease in myoxyte contractility

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2
Q

What happens to endometrial cells when progesterone stimulation stops

A

Release of prostoglandins that cause vasoconstriction and release of metalloporteases that causes apoptosis

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3
Q

Symptoms of neuroblastoma

A

Tumor of neural crest origin

Nonrhythmic eye movement and jerking movements of the trunk and limb are high indication

Usually have abdominal mass - adrenal gland

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4
Q

What is punctured during a direct suprapubic cysotomy

A

Anterior abdominal apeneurosis

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5
Q

Most common site of anal fissures

A

Posterior midline distal to dentate line

Occurs there because less direct blood supply

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6
Q

How to diagnose tetanus

A

Clinical diagnosis

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7
Q

Effect of prolactin on sex hormones

A

High levels of prolactin suppress GnRH so can get lower LH and FSH - ammenorhea

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8
Q

Role of citrate in the urine

A

Citrate binds excess calcium and prevents the fomration of calcium stones

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9
Q

What does hemoglobin release when it binds oxygen

A

It becomes more acidic so it releases protons - occurs in the lungs

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10
Q

Common medications associated with constipaption

A
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11
Q

Most protective drug to give during heart failure

A

Beta blocker

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12
Q

SX of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Fatigue and jaundice due to hemolytic anemia

Thrombosis - release of prothrombotic chemicals from lysed RBC

Pancytopenia

Hemosiderinuria after a few days

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13
Q

Biochemical change seen in alzheimers

A

Not enough Ach signaling in the nucleus basalis

This occurs because a deficiency in choline acetyltransferase

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14
Q

Organisms that can commonly cause eryhteme multiforme and MOA

A

Herpes and mycoplasma pneumonia

Circulating antigen is phagocytosed by peripheral mononuclear cells and DNA is given to keratinocytes. Cytotixic T-cells then see the foreign DNA and begin an immune cascade that causes epithelial damage

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15
Q

Treatment for pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Ketogenic diet

High intake of the ketogenic AA - lysine and leucine

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16
Q

Causes of vascular calcifications

A

Metabolic insults that cause epithelial cells to differentiate into osteoblast-like cells

Common in chronic kidney disease becuase:

  1. Electrolyte imbalance - hyperphsophatemia and hypercalcitemia (from dialysis)
  2. Chronic inflammation
  3. Atherosclerosis
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17
Q

What ion does GABA cause to come into the cell

A

Chloride - has an equilobirum of -75 so hyperpolarizes the cell

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18
Q

Immune change with aging

A

Fewer production of naive B and T lymphocytes - those that are produced are often turned into memory cells of previously encountered infections

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

How does rhabdo cause renal damage

A

Release of myoglobin causes ATN - caused by release of heme pigment

If blood is positive but no RBC, suggestive of Rhabdo

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21
Q

Most common causes of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Gram negative bacilli

E.coli, klebsiella, proteus, pseudomonas

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22
Q

Most common cause of increased maternal alpha fetal protein

A

Incorrect aging - often underestimate age when there is irregular meses

Other causes would be multiple fetuses, open neural tube defect/abdominal defect

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23
Q

What is the first step in the formation of atherosclerosis

A

Damage to epithelial cells

Allows for entrance of cholesterol and inflammation where monocytes come and become macrophages and eat cholesterol – foam cells. Smooth muscle then migrates to form hard cap

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24
Q

Cascade of Gq receptor

A

GDP is converted to GTP which allows for conversion of PIP2 by phospholipase C into DAG and IP3. This triggers release of Ca2+ that activates protein kinase C

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25
Q

What kind of bias occurs when loss-to-follwup occurs more in a certain group

A

Attrition bias - a form of selection bias

Makes it look like no correlation exists when there is

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26
Q

How does glycosuria cause hyperfiltration

A

Because SGLT2 also brings up Na, there will be less sodium delivered to the macula densa when glucose is high. This triggers renin and ultimately higher angiotension II that constricts efferent arteriole. This causes hyperfiltration

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27
Q

What is the axonal reaction

A

Occurs in the cell body when a part of the axon has been severed.

See swelling of the body with pushing of the nucleus and nissl substance to the periphery as more protein is produced for regeneration

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28
Q

What systemic effect is often seen in autosomal dominant PKD

A

Cysts and vessel abnormalities - especially berry aneurysm

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29
Q

How is lithium excreted

A

In the kidneys, filtered and absorbed in the proximal tubule

Diuretics cause volume depletion that lead to resorption of sodium and lithium in the proximal tubule - can cause overdose

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30
Q

Cancer that can be caused by celiac disease

A

T-cell lymphoma

caused by chornic activation. of T cells with monoclonal expansion

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31
Q

How does pregnancy cause gall stones

A

Increased estrogen induces HMG-CoA to produce more cholesterol

Progesterone causes reduced bile acid synthesis and gall bladder hypomotility

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32
Q

How does pregnancy impact the intestine

A

Progesterone causes small bowel hypomotility - less smooth muscle activated and less motilin

Uterus can also impede the small intestine

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33
Q

Salicylate poisoning acid/base levels

A

Should see about normal pH

There is a metabolic acidosis because salicylic acid uncouples oxygen phosphorylation so get lactic acidosis

There is respiratory alkalosis because of stimulation of the medullary respiratory center

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34
Q

What is seen in peripartum cardiomyopathy

A

The heart expands with eccentric hypertrophy due to an increase volume, which allows for an increase in compliance. However, over time there is left ventricular failure with reduced ejection fraction

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35
Q

What is occuring during the first few weeks of TB infection

A

Bacteria are able to grow unchecked inside macrophages due to cord factor

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36
Q

How does CF predespose for bacterial infections

A

Thick, viscous secretions allow for a good environment for colonization of gram negative rods like pseudomonas - formation of macrocolonies

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37
Q

What is achondroplasia

A

Autosomal dominant mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) that causes dwarfism

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38
Q

How do opioids cause hypotension

A

Release of histamines

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39
Q

What is subclavian steal

A

Occurs when there is is stenosis of the subclavian artery proximal to the entrance of the vertebral artery. The vertebral artery on the ipsalateral side will reverse flow to supply blood to the arm

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40
Q

How to diagnose giant cell arteritis

A

Apparently you can use an elevated sed rate and c-protein

Then if those. are positive would do anartery. biopsy

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41
Q

Why does trisomy 21 predispose for early alzheimers

A

The amyloid precursor. protein gene is on chromosome 21 - get accumulation of beta amyloid plaques

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42
Q

What is myotinic dystrophy

A

Autosomal dominant CTG nucleotide repeat in DMPK gene - abnormal myotonin protein kinase

Myotonia (difficulty relaxing muscles), cataracts, baldness, gonadal atrophy

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43
Q

Effect of TMP/SMX on electrolytes

A

Can cause hyperkalemia

Impairs sodium/potassium exchange in the distal tubule, can have worse side effects if diuretics, ACEi, ARB, elderly

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44
Q

Diagnosis of. narcolepsy

A

Low levels of hypocretin-1 in CSF or lack of sleep latency (rapid entrance into REM)

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45
Q

How to diagnose anklyosing sponylitis

A

X-ray of pelvis (see inflammatory arthritis) and spine (fusion of syndesmophytes - bamboo spine)

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46
Q

Side effects of low-potency vs high-potency antipsychotics

A
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47
Q

MOA of n-acetylcysteine in acetopminophen toxicity

A

Serves as a source of glutathione which can metabolize NAPQI

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48
Q

Risk factors for esophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Barret’s esophagus, obesity (increased gasric pressure), smoking, smoked meats

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49
Q

What is seen on liver biopsy in biliary atresia

A

Inflammation and proliferation of small bile ducts - caused by fibrous destruction of the extrahepatic tree

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50
Q

Greatest risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

Smoking

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51
Q

Most common sites for cholesterol emboli

A

Vessels in the kidney, skin, GI, and CNS

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52
Q

What is lambert-eaton

A

Autoantibodies to presynaptic Ca2+ channels causes a drop in Ach release - proximal muscle weakness, autonomic sx, hyporeflexia

Improves with use

Associated with small cell lung cancer

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53
Q

Lab changes seen after starting chemo with high cell turnover

A

Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, increaased uric acid, increased lactate dehydrogenase

All spill out of cell

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54
Q

Changes in testosterone levels with aging

A

Drop in free and total testosterone

Compensatory increase in in LH

Increase in sex-hormone binding globulin

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55
Q

What organs contain high levels of smooth er

A

Helps produce steroid hormones

Gonads, adrenals, liver

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56
Q

Adverse effects of SERMS

A

Hot flashes, venous thromboembolism

Tamoxifen: Uterine hyperplsia, uterine sarcome

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57
Q

Most common tracts impacted in cobalamin deficiency

A

DCML, lateral corticospinal, spinocerebellar

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58
Q

Structure most likely injured in posterior hip dislocation

A

Sciatic nerve

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59
Q

What is DiGeorge Syndrome

A

Microdeletion of 22q11

Defective development of pharyngeal pouches

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60
Q

What is buspirone

A

Anxiolytic

Serotonin (5Ht1) and Dopmaine (D2) agonsit

Wont cause dependence like benzos

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61
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

Group out autosomal dominant progressive hereditary nerve disorders related to defective myelin proteins - PMP22 gene duplication

Foot deformities (pes cavus, hammer toe), lower extremity weakness, sensory deficits

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62
Q

How do SNRIs reduce neuropathic pain

A

Increase norepinephrine in central synpases which allows for inhibiution of pain pathways

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63
Q

What kind of receptor does glucagon use

A

Gs

Effects mediated through protein kinase A

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64
Q

What can reduce gynecomastia in men who take GnRH and testosterone inhibitors

A

Tamoxifen - SERM that will work to block a relative increase in estrogen in the breast

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65
Q

Cytokines associated with atopic dermatitis

A

Hyper Th2 response: IL-4 and IL-13 – increases IgE, increase vascular permeability, impair further immunity

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66
Q

Most likely brain areas affected in thiamine defiency associated wernicke korsakov

A

Mammilary bodies

thalamus, periaqueductal gray, locus ceruleus

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67
Q

Metabolism of sublingual nitro vs oral isosorbide dinitrate

A

Nitro - directly into venous circulation, quick onset

Isosorbide dinitrate - GI absorbption, high first pass metabolism (higher dose)

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68
Q

What is the benefit of a polyclonal immune response

A

Different Ig from different plasma cells can bind to different epitopse on the same antigen, so multiple Igs can be against a single antigen

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69
Q

Affinity vs avidity

A

Affinity - How strong the bond of a single binding site is with the antigen

Avidity - How strong the entire Ig binds (so usually higher for IgM)

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70
Q

How is accuracy measured

A

Area under the curve

Basically number of true positives and true negatives / all measured

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71
Q

What accumulates in pseudogout

A

Calcium PYROPHOSPHATE

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72
Q

Features of drug induced liver injury

A

Basically looks like viral hepatitis - fever, jaundice, anorexia, nausea, RUQ pain, rash, myalgia

Liver will be atrophied and shrunken with centrilobular necrosis and inflammation of the portal tracts and parenchyma

High ALT/AST, prolonged PTT (low factor VII)

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73
Q

Where are NADH, FADH2, and GTP produced?

A
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74
Q

What is icthyosis vulgaris

A

Dry and cracking skin due to fillagrin mutation that causes defective keratinocyte desquamation

Also see many palmar creases

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75
Q

Why is SIADH euvolemic

A

When an increase in BV is seen, the RAAS system is suppressed and natreuretic peptide is produced that leads to higher GFR with loss of sodium - see more hyponatremia

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76
Q

Path of CSF

A

Lateral ventricles, interventricular foramen of monro, third ventricle, cerebral aquedcut, fourth ventricle, formane of luschka and megende, subarachnoid space

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77
Q

Drugs with a lower dose that are given more frequently have:

A

Lower average drug and peak levels and lower level of side effects

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78
Q

Where does the quadriceps femoris attach

A

To the tibial tubercle

Osler-Schattler syndrome occurs in young athletes when there as an avulsion at the tibial tubercle because bone grows too fast and tendons cant keep up

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79
Q

Milrinone MOA

A

PDE3 inhibitor

Increases inotropy and vasodilates

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80
Q

What is food induced allergic proctolitis

A

Usually seen in neonates, painless bloody/mucus stools thaat are caused by non-IgE mediated allergy to certain food - just avoid that food

Inflammation of the distal colon with eosinophils

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81
Q

How can giant cell arteritis cause blindness

A

Ischemic optic neuropathy, central retinal occlusion, cerebral infarct

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82
Q

Mannitol MOA

A

Rapidly increases tubular or plasma osmolality which causes fluid to shift out of cells - can be good as a diuretic or in cerebral edema (from tissues to plasma)

Can be dangerous in CHF or pulmonary edema

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83
Q

What do muscle biopsies look like in duchenes muscular distrophy

A

Muscles are replaced by fat and fibrour tissue - firbofatty muscle replacement

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84
Q

SX of short bowel syndrome

A

Occurs after bowel resection or in crohns

Diarrhea after meals, weight loss, B12 deficiency (loss of distal illeum)

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85
Q

What is posttransplant lymphoproliferative disorder

A

Immunosuppression leads to less cytotoxic T cell surveillance so EBV can trigger unchecked proliferation of B cells

WIll get B cell symptoms - night weats, lymphadenopathy, weight loss and will see monoclonal B cell proliferation

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86
Q

What would pyruvate kinase deficiency look like

A

Pyruvate kinase converts phosphoenolpyruvate into pyruvate and yields one molecule of ATP

RBC dont have mitochondria so rely on this reaction to make pyruvate which eventually becomes lactate, their major source of energy. Without pyruvate kinase, ATP cant be produced so RBC lose ability to maintain membrane and transport cations - leads to hemolysis

Would see splenomegaly due to red pulp hypoplasia - removing damaged RBC

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87
Q

Changes in renal blood vessels due to malignant hypertension

A
  1. Fibrinoid necrosis - amorphous pink material due to cell death and fibrin deposition. Smudged necrotic endothelial cells
  2. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis - activated platelets and injured cells release growth factors that lead to layers of smooth muscle cell and collagen with a narrows lumen - onion skinning
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88
Q

What is an acute dystonic reaction

A

Occurs after giving a antipsychotic - acute, involuntary contraction of a major muscle group

Occurs due to dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatial pathway

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89
Q

Function of hormone sensitive lipase

A

Converts triglycerides in adipose tissue into glycerol and free fatty acids

90
Q

Sx and findings of cerebral palsy

A

Motor delay, hypotonia, hyperreflexia, early hand preference

Will see periventricular focal necrosis becuase of sparse blood flow (if premature)

91
Q

What nerve can be injured in an orbital floor fracture

A

Infraorbital nerve, continuation of maxillary nerve

Parasthesia of upper lip, upper cheek, upper gingiva

92
Q

How can CF cause diabetes

A

Thick accumulations in the pancreas can damage endocrine functions (islet cells) so B cell function occurs with less insulin production

93
Q

What happens to pulm vascular resistance, CO, and plasma volume at high altitude (hypoxia)

A

PVR - increase (vasoconstriction)

CO - increase due to sympathetic activity

Plasma - dicrease. Hypoxia inhibits aldosterone causing diuresis

Eryhtropoeitin is produced to raise hematocrit

94
Q

What HIV med causes a reaction if HLA-B57 positive

A

Abacavir

95
Q

Which binds both Xa and thrombin - heparin or LMWH

A

Heparin - it has a longer pentasaccharide sequence so can bind antithrombin and then either Xa or thrombin

96
Q

How does sodiummbicarb treat salicylate poisoning

A
  1. Bicarb binds free H+ which fascilitates conversion of salicylate to the charged lipophilic form which traps it in the bloodstream
  2. Alkalinizes the urine which has the same effect and traps salicylates in the urine
97
Q

SX of ALS

A

Anterior horns affected - LMN signs

Lateral corticospinal tracts affected - UMN signs

98
Q

What are the indirect and direct pathway

A
99
Q

Effect of desmopressin on clotting

A

Increase circulating vactor VIII and endothelial secretion of vWF to stop bleading

100
Q

SX of secondhand smoke in children

A

Recurrent infections - pneumonia, otitis media due to impaired mucociliary and macrophage function

Asthma

101
Q

Fx of fibrillin

A

Major component of microfibrils - forms a sheath around elastic fibers - in blood vessels, lens, periosteum

Acts as a scaffold for connective tissue cells

102
Q

What fetal cells does zika target

A

Neural progenitor cells

103
Q

What conditions cause xanthelasmas

A

Xanthelasmas are deposits of lipid laden macrophages in the skin caused by chronic collestatic procceses like obstructive billiary lesions or PBC

104
Q

Where is the most common site of aortic rupture during traumatic injury

A

The aortic isthmus - it is thethered by the ligamentum arteriosum

105
Q

Why are diabetics at risk of hypoglycemia with exercise

A

In non-diabetic people, exercise leads to uptake of glucose by muscles and a subsequent reduction in insulin and release of glucagon. This leads to gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

In diabetics, there is no insulin regulation

106
Q

Greatest risk factors for Abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Age > 65

Smoker

Male

107
Q

Positive vs negative selection in thymus

A

Positive - comes first. Only T cells that are able to bind to self MHC molecules are allowed to survive

Negative - second. T cells that bind with high affinity to MHC I or II undergo apoptosis

108
Q

How can fibrates cause gall stones

A

They inhibit cholesterol 7 alpha hydroxylase which is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of bile acids - cholsterol accumulates in the bile undesolved

109
Q

What CN exits the brain at the. cerebellar peduncle

A

CN V

110
Q

Side effects of carbamazapine

A

It is a sodium channel blocker

Bone marrow suppression

Hyponatremia

111
Q

Two biggest. contribitors to angiogenesis

A

VEGF. ( vascular endothelial growth factor) and Fibroblast growth factor

112
Q

Pathophys of Graft versus host disease

A

Donor T cells survive and travel into host and recognize host MHC as foreign - donor CD4 and CD8 cells participate in destruction

113
Q

What enzyme and regulator regulate the first state in conversion on pyruvate for gluconeogenesis

A

Pyruvate carboxylase to oxaloacetate (in mitochondria) - activated by increased Acetyl-coa

114
Q

What are the steps in de novo purine synthesis

A

Starts with Ribose 5-phosphate which is converted to PRPP

PRPP to 5-phosphoribosylamine then to IMP

115
Q

What causes a non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

A

Damage to valves in the presence of a hypercoagulable state - like malignancy or SLE

116
Q

At what levels does the psoas msucle attach to the spine

A

T12-L5

117
Q

How can administration of O2 lead to hypercaprnia in COPD exacerbation

A

Before O2, pulmonary vessels constrict in areas of low ventilation

When O2 is given, these vessels dilate but there is still low ventilation so there is a perfusion-ventilation mismatch

118
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris vs bullous pemphigoid age difference

A

Pemphigus is 40-60

Phemphigoid is over 60

119
Q

What is presbyopia

A

The age related hardening of the lens - loss of accomodation with far vision - the image is focused behind the retina

If the person had myopia before then this can be helpful

120
Q

What are the 3 Ds of botulism

A

Diplopia, dysphagia, dysphonia

Get a muscarinic block as well as actual muscle block - anything that uses Ach

121
Q

What causes kidney damage in multiple myeloma

A

Light chain cast nephropathy - immunoglobulins are too big to be flitered but kappa and lambda light chains can

122
Q

How can beta adronergics lead to hypokalemia

A

They activate the Na/K/ATP pump that increases intracellular potassium movement

123
Q

Abx that cause long QT

A

Macrolides and floroquinolones

124
Q

Cellular changes seen in pulmonary fibrosis

A

Damage leads to a drop in type I pneumocytes. This leads to an increase in type II that cant differentiate because of damage to cell fate pathway. There is an increase in lung fibroblasts

125
Q

SX of phenylketonuria

A

Lack of pigment - hair, sking, brain

Seizures

Musty odor

Intellectual disability

126
Q

What hemoglobin chains are produced by the fetus

A

First few weeks produces embryonic hemoglobin (gower) with two zeta and two epsilon chains

Then fetal hemoglobin is made with two alpha and two gamma

127
Q

What growth factor triggers fibrosis and smooth muscle migration in an atheroma

A

Platelets adhere to abnormal epithelium and secrete platelet derived growth factor

128
Q

What are the final branches of the brachial plexus

A

MARMU

musculocutaneos

axillary

radial

median

ulnar

129
Q

What is missclassification bias

A

Incorrect classification of participants based on exposure/age/etc

Recall bias can be a form of missclassification bias in case-control trials because relying on interviews to estalbish classification

130
Q

How can those with 17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency survive

A

In the mineralcorticoid pathway (unblocked), there is increased production of coricosterone, a weak glucorticoid

131
Q

First line tx for status epilepticus and MOA

A

IV Benzos

Works by enhancing the effect of GABA - binds to GABA-A receptor and stimulates more calciumr elease

132
Q

What gene is mutated in FAP

A

APC - loss of function

133
Q

4 Ts cancers found in the anterior mediastinum

A

Thymoma

Teratoma (and other germline tumors)

Terrible (lymphoma)

Thyroid neoplasm

134
Q

Drugs that increase the effects of methadone

A

-azole drugs

ciprofloaxacin, clarithromycin

cimetidine

fluvoxamine

135
Q

Why does hematuria occur in BPH

A

New, friable. blood vessels in the enlarged area of the prostate

136
Q

What are the length anf time constant in nerves

A

Length constant is how far an impulse can go without needing another ion channel impulse, increased with more myelin

Time constant is how quickly the neuron will respond to a change in membrane permeability - decerease with myelin (responds more quickly)

Demyelination = decreased length contant, increased time constant

137
Q

How do glucorticoids induce apoptosis

A

They can reduce expression of bcl-2

138
Q

Location of acute vs chronic lung cancer rejection

A

Acute - perivascular infiltration in the small blood vessels, can spread to alveoli

Chronic - submucosal inflammation of small airways (bronchiolitis obliterans)

139
Q

What is neurosarcoidosis

A

Sarcoid involvement of the hypothalamus - would lead to prolactin release due to less inhibition by dopamine

140
Q

What enzyme takes over in fructose metabolism in a fructokinase deficiency

A

Hexokinase - shunts fructose to glycolysis

141
Q

How can hypovolemia cause gout flairs

A

Hypovolemia leads to an increase in sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule which is tied to the absorption of uric acid - increased uric acid

142
Q

What areas are most affected by Alzheimers

A

Temporoparietal lobes and hippocampus, but it is diffuse

143
Q

Landmarks for a pudendal nerve block

A

Ischial spine and sacrospinal ligament

144
Q

Location most likely to cause intraventricular hemorrahge in newborns

A

The germinal matrix - doesnt have as many supporting cells

145
Q

How does nitroprusside affect heart function

A

Equally dilates arteries and veins so leads to a decrease in preload and afterload - same SV

146
Q

Area of heart conduction from fastest to slowest

A

Purkinje, atrial muscle, ventricular muscle, AV node

147
Q

Ramelteon MOA

A

Melatonin agonist

Good for elderly - fewer side effects

148
Q

Benzos MOA

A

Bind to GABA-A receptors and increase frequency of chloride chanel opening

149
Q

What is eosinophilic esophagitus

A

TH2 hyperactivity that lead to eoisinophils invading the esophageal mucosa

Rings, linear furrows, whitish papules

150
Q

Phases of cells in stroke

A
151
Q

Nerves associated with perianal reflex

A

S2-S4

152
Q

Acute vs chronic lung injury due to radiation

A

Acute - exudate, hyaline membranes

Chronic - TGF-B leads to dense fibrous bands with reduction in volume

153
Q

What is lipofuscin

A

Accumulates with age

Lysosomal breakdown products = lipid polymers, phospholipids from lipid peroxidation

154
Q

Location and type of neuron affected in huntingtons

A

GABAergic neurons in the caudate nucleus

155
Q

Most often cause of atrial flutter

A

Re-entrent circuit in the travocuspid isthmus - area between the tricuspid and inferior vena cava

156
Q

Areas of the spinal column impacted in B12 deficiency

A

Dorsal columns - loss of proprioception

Lateral corticospinal - UMN signs

Axonal degeneration of peripheral nerves - parasthesias

157
Q

Features of subacture thyroiditis

A

Increased T3/T4/TBG

Decreased TSH

Decreased uptake of. radioactive iodine - less emtabolic activity because less stimualtion by TSH

Diffuse enlargment with decreased blood flow

158
Q

Mutation in xeroderma pigmentosum

A

Deficiency in DNA nucleotide excision repair

159
Q

How does NO lead to vasodilation

A

Catalyzes conversion of GTP to cGMP which leads to a decrease in intracellular calcium and activation of myosin light chain phosphatase. Leads to dephosphoryaltion of myosin light chain causing relaxation

160
Q

Pathophys of Reye syndrome

A

Mitochondrial damage that leads to impaired fatty acid metabolism (beta-oxidation)

161
Q

What antibodies are seen in polymyositis

A

Antinuclear antibodies especially anti-tRNA synthetase antibodies (anti-Jo1)

162
Q

Brain area first impacted by ischemia

A

Pyramidal cells of the hippocampus

163
Q

What is hidradenitis suppurative

A

Obstruction of folliculopilosebaceous units that leads to large ulcers and nodules in the axilla, groin, medial thighs

164
Q

Damage to the radial nerve at what muscle is caused by repetitive pronation/suppination

A

Supinator muscle - see finger drop (loss of extension)

165
Q

How does radiation induce damage

A

Double strand DNA breaks

Creation of reactive oxygen species

166
Q

What makes elderly people more susceptible to heat stroke

A
  1. Tonic contraction of peripheral vasculature
  2. Reduced sweat gland density
  3. Loss of rete pegs and dermal capilaries - loss of effective. epidermal area for heat transfer
167
Q

What do eosinophils look like

A

Bi-lobed and have orange-pink granules (major basic protein)

168
Q

What can cause forward slippage of a vertabra

A

Sponylolisthesis - break of the pars interarticularis

169
Q

Which steps of the TCA cycle require thiamine

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase (to make succinyl-coA) and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

170
Q

What nerve lies below the piriform recess

A

internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve - carries sensory innervation above the vocal cords

Important for cough reflex

171
Q

How to find GFR

A

Use inulin or creatinine

GFR = (Urine concentration x urine flow rate)/(Plasme concentration)

172
Q

How to find RPF

A

Use PAH because totally filtered

RPF = (urine PAH x flow rate)/(serum PAH)

173
Q

How to find filtration fraction

A

FF = GFR/RPF

174
Q

Why can thrombocytopenia occur in pregnancy

A
  1. Increased plasma volume with little increase in platelet level
  2. Sequestration/consumption of platelets in the placenta
175
Q

FIndings for pericarditis

A

Pleural chest pain

Can cause a pericardial effusion that causes decreased stroke volume so get tacchycardia, low voltage ECG (blocking heart), electrical alternans (swinging heart)

176
Q

Cause of lymphadenopathy in bacterial infection

A

Increased size and number of germinal centers - this is where B cells mature and select for high affinity binding

In viral infections, the paracortical regions may enlarge more ( T cells)

177
Q

How can cancer cause hypercoagulability

A

Adenocarcinomas produce a thromboplastin-like substance that can product intravascular coagulations that tend top migrate

Seen in migratory thrombophlebitis

178
Q

Most common cause of neonatal low T4

A

Thyroid dysgenesis

179
Q

TX for diptheria

A

Diptheria antitoxin and abx (penicillin, erythromycin)

180
Q

What does metastatic melanoma look like

A

Cells of variable pigments with abnormal nuclei (multiple)

181
Q

Labs for herpes encephalitis

A

High cell count with lymphocytes and erythrocytes

Normal glucose, high protein

182
Q

Letrozole and clomiphene MOA

A

Letrozole - aromatase inhibitor that stops conversion of androgens to estrogens so more FSH/LH is produced

Clompihene - binds to estrogen receptors in hypothalamus and pituitary and depletes them so less negative feedback and more FSH/LH

183
Q

Which alveolar cells release elastase

A

Neutrophils - balanced by a-1-antitrypsin

Alveolar macrophages - balanced by tissue inhibitors of metaloproeteases

184
Q

Simulation of what nerve would help in obstructive sleep apnea

A

Hypoglossal - would push the tongue forward

185
Q

What enzyme deficiency can cause diabetes

A

Glucokinase

It is necessary to turn glucose into ATP which triggers release of insulin

186
Q

Diagnosis of a gastrinoma

A

Suggestive if there are ulcers beyond the duodenal bulb

If secretin is given, more gastrin will be released (secretin usually decreases gastrin release)

187
Q

What are hamartomas

A

Tumors made out of the tissue of the organ where they originate but are just disorganized growth - benign

188
Q

What are alpha and beta in biostats

A

Alpha - probability of type I error (so p value)

Beta - probability of type II error

Power = 1 - B

189
Q

What would absence of HLA-DR cause

A

Absent MHC-II

MHC- II is HLA-DQ, DR, DP

MHC-I is HLA-A, B, C

190
Q

Signs of vitamin A overuse

A

Intracranial htn (papilledema), skin changes, hepatosplenomegaly

191
Q

How to diagnose trichamonas vaginalis

A

Wet mount saline microscopy - look for trophozoite

192
Q

Interpretation of Weber and Rhinne tests

A

Weber - on forhead, should be the same. If conductive hearing loss, heard best in affected ear. If sensorineural, head best in unaffected ear

Rhine - place on mastoid then shift to ear, should be heard longer through air. If heard better through bone, then conductive on affected ear. Sensorineural would have AC>BC bilaterally

193
Q

How to tell primary vs secondary polycythemia vera

A

Primary PV will have an increase in plasma volume with luekocytosis, thrombocytosis, and splenomegaly

194
Q

What is seen on biopsy in rheumatic fever

A

Large group of multinucleated giant cells (aschoff body) and cells with linear “caterpillar” chromatin (Anitchskow cells)

195
Q

What are glycosyltransferases (bacteria)

A

Enzymes that add peptidoglycan to the growing chain in the bacterial cell wall

196
Q

MOA of mycophenolate and mofetil

A

They inhibit IMP dehydrogenase, so target the purine synthesis pathway to slow DNA replication (immunosuppression)

197
Q

TX for someone who has a subarachnoid hemorhage

A

A selective calcium channel blocker to prevent vasospasm

Something like nipodipine

198
Q

Side effects of bisphosphonates

A

Esophagitus, osteonecrosis of the jaw, atypical bone fractures

199
Q

What are some conditions with polygenetic inheritence

A
200
Q

MOA of the “Z” medicines for insomnia

A

They are nonbenzodiazapenes that bind the the GABAa receptor and are agonists. Very specific and only cause hypnotic effect

201
Q

Function of HFE and transferrin

A

They serve as a receptor that monitors iron loads

Mutation in hemachromatosis leads to chronic actication and uptake of iron from the intestines (DMT 1)

Also leads to less hepcidin release by the liver which allows for increased ferrorportin levels - higher circulating iron

202
Q

Side effects of bile resins

A

GI stuff

Increased release of VLDL from the liver which increases triglycerides (apparently)

203
Q

What is the main blood supply to the femoral head

A

Medial circumflex artery (most likely to be damaged in a fracture)

204
Q

Is GFR v creatine linear?

A

No, at the steady state, large changes of GFR wont impact creatinine

But at the extreme low of GFR, creatinine is greatly impacted

205
Q

What is abetalipoproteinemia

A

A defect in the MTP (microsomal transport protein) gene that causes a lack of ApoB-100 and ApoB-48 so no chylomicrons or VLDL

Get no fat absoprtion - steattorhea, failure to thrive, intellectual disability, retinitis, ataxia

Biopsy shows lipid laden enterocytes

206
Q

What is cardiac index

A

Cardiac output per body surface area

207
Q

What is sorbitol usually degraded into

A

Fructose

208
Q

What is rheumatic factor an antobody for

A

For the Fc portion of IgG

209
Q

What is the first thing to measure in metabolic alkalosis

A

Urine chloride

Low chloride can cause a defect in secretion in bicarb

210
Q

What is Hartnup disease

A

A kidney defect in the interstial transporter for neutral amino acids

Includes tryptophan so can get niacin deficiency

211
Q

What muscle is the main supinator of the arm

A

Biceps brachii

Also flexes the elbow

212
Q

What part of the brain processes unconcious proprioception

A

The anterior lobe of the cerebellum

213
Q

Most likely spot for a diverticulum to form

A

Sigmoid colon

214
Q

Area of the nephron most suscpetible to ischemia

A

Proximal tubule - metabolically very active

215
Q

Most likely site for metastasis in osteosarcoma

A

Lungs

216
Q

Benze exposure can cause …

A

AML

217
Q

Where are abnormal cells in myasthenia gravis cells made

A

Thymus - there is often a thymoma

218
Q

What is lipid A

A

Part of the gram negative LPS outer membrane

219
Q

What innervates the gastrocnemeus and soleus

A

Tibial - allows for plantar flexion

220
Q
A