Spinal + Cranial Nerves Flashcards

1
Q

The PN is composed of _____ and ______

A

nerves; ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where do spinal nerves come from?

A

Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where do cranial nerves come from?

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name the 3 types of peripheral nerves and their function

A
  1. Sensory - info from body to brain + spinal cord
  2. Motor - info from brain and spinal cord TO body
  3. Mixed - have both sensory and motor fibers (both jobs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F : There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves

A

F - cranial = 12 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Spinal nerve function

A

Responsible for motor, sensory and autonomic signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F : each spinal nerve innervates a very specific body region, which is known as the sarcomere

A

F - a dermatome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F : each nerve pair is linked to a specific segment of the spinal cord

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 3 SENSORY cranial nerves

A

Olfactory, Optic and vestibulochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient has suffered nerve damage, and the doctor determines it affects a nerve outside of the cerebrum, brain stem, and spinal cord. Based on Slide 7, this nerve is MOST likely part of the:

A. Central Nervous System (CNS)
B. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
C. Cerebellum
D. Brain Stem

A

B. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 62-year-old patient reports a recent loss of taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of their tongue, along with dry eyes. Neurological examination reveals weakness in facial expression muscles on the same side. Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST likely affected?

a) Trigeminal (CN V)
b) Facial (CN VII)
c) Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
d) Vagus (CN X)

A

b) Facial (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient presents with difficulty shrugging their shoulders and turning their head to the left against resistance. Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST likely involved in this patient’s presentation?

a) Hypoglossal (CN XII)
b) Accessory (CN XI)
c) Vagus (CN X)
d) Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

A

b) Accessory (CN XI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A neurologist is examining a patient who reports double vision (diplopia) when looking downwards. Which cranial nerve is MOST likely impaired?

a) Oculomotor (CN III)
b) Trochlear (CN IV)
c) Abducens (CN VI)
d) Optic (CN II)

A

b) Trochlear (CN IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the functions of each sensory cranial nerve (olfac., optic, vestibcoch)

A
  1. Smell
  2. Sight
  3. Hearing/balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the 5 mOtOr cranial nerves

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, accessory, hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Main functions of the motor cranial nerves

A

Mainly control muscle movements in the eyes, neck and tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 4 mixed cranial nerves

A

trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Main functions of the mixed cranial nerves

A

Carries both sensory and motor fibers + has diverse functions include facial sensation, organ control and taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name cranial nerves I-V + their functions

A

CNI - Olfactory : smell
CNII - Optic : vision
CNIII - Oculomotor : eyelid + eyeball movement
CNIV - Trochlear : moves eye downward + laterally
CNV - Trigeminal : facial sensation, chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name cranial nerves VI-XII + their functions

A

CNVI - Abducens : turns eye laterally controls
CNVII - Facial : facial expression, taste, salivation, tear secretion
CNVIII - Vestibucochlear : hearing + balance
CNIX - Glossopharyngeal : taste, senses carotid BP
CNX - Vagus : aortic BP, slows HR, stimulates digestive organs, taste
CNXI - Accessory : controls trapezius + sternocleidomastoid, swallowing movements
CNXII - Hypoglossal : controls muscles of the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

John felt a mosquito bite on his right cheek. Which cranial nerve helped John feel that mosquito bite?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
C) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)

A

B) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Vestibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII) is essential for which of the following functions?
A) Chewing and mastication
B) Hearing and balance
C) Taste and salivation
D) Movement of the tongue

A

B) Hearing and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F : John, a 35 year old healthy male, gets serious damage to his abducens cranial nerve, and he is told that he could suffer from a speech difficulty. Is this true?

A

F - abducens refers to eye, so he would have damage in his eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A patient presents with slurred speech, difficulty forming words, and noticeable weakness in their lower facial muscles. The neurologist suspects damage to a cranial nerve crucial for articulation. Which of the following cranial nerves is MOST likely affected?

a) Trigeminal (CN V)
b) Facial (CN VII)
c) Vagus (CN X)
d) Vestibulocochlear (CN VIII)

A

b) Facial (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A speech-language pathologist is evaluating a patient who underwent surgery for a brainstem tumor. The patient exhibits significant difficulty with tongue movement, impacting their ability to produce clear consonant sounds. Which cranial nerve has MOST likely been affected by the surgery?

a) Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
b) Vagus (CN X)
c) Accessory (CN XI)
d) Hypoglossal (CN XII)

A

d) Hypoglossal (CN XII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A patient recovering from a stroke demonstrates nasal speech and difficulty with swallowing. Assessment reveals weakness in the soft palate. Which cranial nerve is MOST likely impaired?

a) Facial (CN VII)
b) Vagus (CN X)
c) Trigeminal (CN V)
d) Abducens (CN VI)

A

b) Vagus (CN X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A patient diagnosed with Bell’s Palsy exhibits paralysis of the facial muscles on one side. This condition directly impacts which aspect of speech production?

a) Respiration
b) Phonation
c) Articulation
d) Resonance

A

c) Articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve V

A

trigeminal : Activates muscles for mastication, impacting articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve VII

A

Facial : Controls facial expressions (e.g., lip movement) essential for articulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve IX

A

Glossopharyngeal : For movements in the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve X

A

Vagus : Vital for movements in the larynx, pharynx and velum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which cranial nerve is impacted by voicing and nasality

A

Vagus - X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve XI

A

Accessory : respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

IN SPEECH production : function of cranial nerve XII

A

Hypoglossal : Controls tongue movements crucial for articulating consonants and vowels.

35
Q

To be able to diagnose speech disorders, it is important to recognize _____ nerve dysfunctions

spinal; cranial

36
Q

The individual in the image exhibits a drooping mouth. If a nerve is related to this, which nerve should it be?
A) Cranial Nerve V
B) Cranial Nerve VII
C) Cranial Nerve X
D) Cranial Nerve XII

A

B) Cranial Nerve VII

37
Q

The spine is composed out of ____ vertebrae

38
Q

5 regions in the 33 vertebrae in spinal nerves (think CTLSC)

A
  1. Cervical
  2. Thoracic
  3. Lumbar
  4. Sacral
  5. Coccygeal
39
Q

how many cervical vertebrae are there?

40
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae are there?

41
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae are there?

42
Q

how many sacral vertebrae are there?

43
Q

how many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

44
Q

T/F : every spinal nerve is composed of either afferent or efferent motor fibers

A

F - composed of both afferent and efferent motor fibers

45
Q

the cervical nerves (c1-c8) control what parts of the body

A

neck, shoulders, arms and hands

46
Q

Which spinal nerves control the chest, the mid back AND some parts of the abdominal muscles

A

thoracic nerves

47
Q

the lumbar and sacral nerves innervate …. (4) - think lower half and lumbar support

A

lower abdomen; legs; bowel; bladder

48
Q

T/F : The phrenic nerve originates from the thoracic spinal nerves T1-T12.

A

F - from cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, C5

49
Q

What is the primary function of the phrenic nerve?
a) Innervating muscles of the arm
b) Providing motor innervation to the diaphragm
c) Carrying sensory information from the thoracic region
d) Controlling muscles of the lower abdomen

A

b) Providing motor innervation to the diaphragm

50
Q

The phrenic nerve is MOST crucial for:
a) Voluntary movement of the limbs
b) Respiration
c) Digestion
d) Maintaining balance

A

b) Respiration

51
Q

Damage to the phrenic nerve can result in : (1 main, 2 points)

A

Diaphragmatic paralysis or dysfunction

52
Q

Between the spinal nerves, what fills the gap

A

a cushioning disk

53
Q

afferent (sensory) nerves originate from the ventral(anterior)/dorsal(posterior) root ganglion and enter the spinal cord through the dorsal/ventral root

A

dorsal; dorsal

54
Q

efferent (motor) nerves originate from the ventral(anterior)/dorsal(posterior) horn of spinal cord and exit through the dorsal/ventral root

A

ventral; ventral

55
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the phrenic nerve?
A. It provides motor innervation to the muscles of the arm.
B. It carries sensory information from the thoracic region to the spinal cord.
C. It provides motor innervation to the diaphragm, essential for breathing.
D. It transmits sensory information from the cervical region to the brain.

A

C. It provides motor innervation to the diaphragm, essential for breathing.

56
Q

Skeletal muscles are composed of what primary 4 things

A
  1. Muscle fibers
  2. Connective tissue
57
Q

T/F : A skeletal muscle fiber can be innervated by multiple motor neurons to allow for finer control of contraction force.

A

F - Each muscle fiber is innervated by only one motor neuron, although a single motor neuron innervates many muscle fibers

58
Q

T/F : The length of the sarcomere remains constant during muscle contraction, as the actin and myosin filaments themselves shorten.

A

F - The sarcomere shortens during contraction due to the actin and myosin filaments sliding past each other; the filaments themselves do not shorten

59
Q

T/F : each single muscle fiber IS a single muscle cell, and it is surrounded by a plasma membrane called the sarcolemma

60
Q

Muscles fibers contain _______ (think MAYOnnaise) which are made up of repeating units called the __________ which are the standard units of muscle fibers

A

myofibrils; sarcomeres

61
Q

T/F : Tom thinks the the arrangement of the sarcomeres in muscle fibers in series allows them to have a smooth look. Is he right?

A

F - they look striated

62
Q

define a fascicle (in skeletal muscles)

A

a bundle of muscle fibers

63
Q

T/F : only the strongest muscle fibers contain myofibril

A

F - every fiber has it

64
Q

T/F : the sarcomeres are the units of contraction and are a collection of myofilaments of the expansion proteins ‘myosin’ and ‘actin’

A

F - all true but it is CONTRACTILE proteins

65
Q

name the hierarchy in skeletal muscle : start = whole muscle

A
  1. whole muscle
  2. Fascicles
  3. Muscle fiber = muscle cell = myocyte
  4. Myofibrils
  5. sarcomeres - collection of units of contraction
  6. Proteins - myosin + actin
66
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the primary mechanism driving skeletal muscle contraction?

a) Boyle’s Law, where increased volume within the muscle cell decreases pressure, causing the muscle to shorten.
b) The Bernoulli Principle, where increased blood flow velocity through muscle capillaries results in a pressure differential that shortens muscle fibers.
c) The Sliding Filament Theory, where actin and myosin filaments within sarcomeres slide past each other, shortening the sarcomere and thus the entire muscle.

A

c) The Sliding Filament Theory, where actin and myosin filaments within sarcomeres slide past each other, shortening the sarcomere and thus the entire muscle.

67
Q

Explain the sliding filament theory

A

Stimulation –> myosin filaments IN sarcomere PULL on ACTIN filaments which causes the shortening of sarcomeres –> muscle contraction

68
Q

the 3 stages of the sliding filament theory - explain using the filament terms

A
  1. Attach - myosin heads attach to the actin above or below it
  2. Bend - myosin heads bend and slide over the actin, causing them to lose their initial shape + shorten
  3. Release - release of the attachment between myosin head/filament and actin filament
69
Q

T/F : myosin heads first bend themselves then attach to the actin filament, stimulating muscle contraction

A

F - attach then bend

70
Q

Motor unit

A

Single motor neuron + ALL the muscle fibers it controls

71
Q

T/F : no matter the how big the movement required is for muscle contraction (gross vs fine motor skills), the size of the motor unit remains the same, there are just more or less of them.

A

F - fine = smaller unit, gross = larger unit

72
Q

Describe the chain of events in skeletal muscles with the activation of motor units

A
  1. Group of muscles get activated
  2. Group gets fatigued
  3. Groups gets deactivated
  4. Neighbouring group gets activated
73
Q

T/F : one muscle = one motor unit

A

F - can have MANY

74
Q

Motor units controls a ______ of fibers in the muscle (think Venn diagram)

75
Q

What is the basic functional unit of a muscle fiber that is responsible for muscle contraction?
A. Motor Unit
B. Myofibril
C. Sarcolemma
D. Sarcomere

A

D. Sarcomere

76
Q

Liam is a student studying brain anatomy. He is interested in separating the sensory nerves from the motor nerves. Which of the following sets contains only motor nerves?

A. Trochlear nerve, Abducens nerve, Hypoglossal nerve
B. Olfactory nerve, Vestibulocochlear nerve, Vagus nerve
C. Optic nerve, Trigeminal nerve, Facial nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve, Oculomotor nerve, Accessory nerve

A

A. Trochlear nerve, Abducens nerve, Hypoglossal nerve

77
Q

James, a speech therapist, is working with a patient who has difficulty moving their tongue during speech production. After assessing the patient’s condition, James suspects an issue with a cranial nerve responsible for tongue movement. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely affected?

A. Cranial Nerve V
B. Cranial Nerve VII
C. Cranial Nerve XII
D. Cranial Nerve IX

A

C. Cranial Nerve XII

78
Q

John is trying to learn about afferent and efferent nerves. Which of the following accurately describes the difference between afferent and efferent nerves?

A. Afferent nerves exit the spinal cord, while efferent nerves enter the spinal cord.
B. Afferent nerves only control voluntary movements, while efferent nerves control involuntary movements.
C. Afferent nerves transmit sensory information to the brain, while efferent nerves transmit motor information from the brain.
D. Afferent nerves transmit motor information, while efferent nerves transmit sensory information.

A

C. Afferent nerves transmit sensory information to the brain, while efferent nerves transmit motor information from the brain.

79
Q

Which of the following best describes the filament theory of muscle contraction?

A. Myosin filaments disintegrate, allowing actin filaments to contract.
B. Actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, causing sarcomeres to shorten.
C. Actin and myosin filaments remain stationary while the sarcomere contracts.
D. Sarcomeres lengthen as myosin and actin filaments push each other away.

A

B. Actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, causing sarcomeres to shorten.

80
Q

T/F : Emma, a 45-year-old librarian, recently experienced a traumatic facial injury during a biking accident. Doctors found that the trigeminal nerve on her right side was severely damaged. Based on Emma’s scenario, is the following statement likely true or false?

“Emma will have problems with chewing due to weakened jaw muscles.”

81
Q

Liam, a 50-year-old chef, complained of persistent dizziness, unsteady gait, and ringing in his left ear after an acoustic neuroma surgery. Doctors confirmed partial damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve.

True/False Statement:
“Liam is likely experiencing balance and hearing problems as a result of vestibulocochlear nerve damage.”

82
Q

T/F : The Trigeminal, Facial, and Vagus nerves are crucial for speech production because they control movements of the jaw, lips, and vocal folds, respectively.

83
Q

T/F : The nerves innervating the diaphragm, the most important muscle to breathing, originate from the three of the thoracic vertebrae.