Neurons + Brain + EEG Flashcards

1
Q

Two major systems of nervous system

A
  1. Central nervous system (CNS)
  2. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
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2
Q

The main parts of the central nervous system (4 - think CBC radio)

A
  1. Cerebrum - brain
  2. Brain stem
  3. Cerebellum
  4. Spinal cord
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3
Q

Main part of the PNS

A

The remaining nerves outside the CNS (outside the cerebrum)

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4
Q

Main role of the PNS system

A

Connects the brain to the outside world

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5
Q

Name the number : spinal nerves and cranial nerves

A
  1. Spinal : 31 pairs
  2. Cranial : 12 pairs
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6
Q

T/F : The PNS system is the primary processing center

A

F : it is the CNS

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7
Q

Say “u-u-u-u-u”!
You probably used your facial nerve (aka the seventh cranial nerve or CN VII) for moving the lips while producing the sound. Cranial Nerve VII most likely belongs to:
A. CNS
B. PNS
C. Not sure

A

B. PNS

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8
Q

T/F : the fundamental unit of the nervous system is the axon, because it is responsible for the transmission/speed of the signal

A

F : the neuron is the fundamental unit

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9
Q

T/F : the affective neuron transmits electrical signals and the motor neuron transmits chemical signals

A

F : a neuron transmits both kinds of signals

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10
Q

Name all parts of the neuron

A
  1. Dendrites
  2. Cell body
  3. Axon
  4. Myelin sheath
  5. Nodes of Ranvier
  6. Axon terminal
  7. Synapse
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11
Q

Primary function of nodes of Ranvier + what they are

A

gaps in between segments of myelin sheath along the axon
they allow signal to accelerate the signal by skipping over certain distances

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12
Q

What is the synapse

A

the space where chemicals in neurotransmitters will transfer info to neighbouring neurons

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13
Q

Function of dendrites + what they are

A

tree like extensions that receive signals from other neurons
They increase the surface area for receiving incoming signals

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14
Q

During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which statement is true?

  1. Both sodium and potassium ions flow into the neuron, neutralizing the resting potential.
  2. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to enter the neuron, making the interior more positive.
  3. Potassium ions enter the neuron, causing the interior to become less negative.
  4. Sodium-potassium pumps actively depolarize the neuron by expelling potassium ions.
A
  1. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to enter the neuron, making the interior more positive.
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15
Q

The transmission speed of an action potential along an axon is directly influenced by axonal diameter and myelination. According to the information provided, which of the following statements accurately describes this relationship?

A. Thinner axons, whether myelinated or unmyelinated, transmit impulses faster due to reduced internal resistance.
B. Thicker axons transmit impulses faster than thinner axons, and myelination further increases this speed through saltatory conduction.
C. Myelination decreases transmission speed in thicker axons by increasing the capacitance of the axonal membrane.
D. Axonal diameter only affects transmission speed in unmyelinated axons; myelinated axons transmit impulses at a constant rate regardless of diameter.

A

B. Thicker axons transmit impulses faster than thinner axons, and myelination further increases this speed through saltatory conduction.

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16
Q

The establishment and maintenance of the resting membrane potential are critical for neuronal excitability. Which of the following contributes most significantly to the negative resting membrane potential of a neuron, as described in the slides?

A. The equilibrium potential of sodium ions (Na+) due to high permeability at rest.
B. The equal distribution of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions across the cell membrane.
C. The action of the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions against their concentration gradients.
D. The passive diffusion of chloride ions (Cl-) into the cell, driven by their concentration gradient.

A

C. The action of the sodium-potassium pump, which actively transports ions against their concentration gradients.

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17
Q

During neural impulse transmission, the transition from depolarization to repolarization is crucial for the generation of an action potential. According to the slides, what is the primary mechanism responsible for initiating repolarization?

A. The continued influx of sodium ions (Na+) through voltage-gated channels.
B. The inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels combined with the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.
C. The activation of the sodium-potassium pump to restore ion balance.
D. The influx of chloride ions (Cl-) to counteract the positive charge inside the cell.

A

B. The inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels combined with the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels.

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18
Q

T/F : the soma will combine electrical signals received from dendrites to bring them down the axon.

A

True

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19
Q

Function of axon + what it is

A
  1. long, slender projection that conducts electrical impulses away from soma
  2. responsible for transmitting the neuron’s electrical signals to other cells, either neurons or muscles
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20
Q

Thicker axons transmit ______ signals than thinner signals, which transmit _____ signals.

A

faster; slower

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21
Q

T/F : the Myelin sheath is made up of chemicals and fat, where the chemicals will further get secreted into the signal

A

F - just a fatty layer

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22
Q

Two functions of myelin sheath

A
  1. Increases electrical impulse speed
  2. Protects nerve fiber
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23
Q

Name the difference between a motor neuron and a sensory neuron

A
  1. Motor - signals from CNS to muscles (voluntary + involuntary)
  2. Sensory - sensory info from sensory organs –> CNS
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24
Q

T/F : the motor neurons going from CNS to our arms ONLY transmit voluntary actions

A

False - motor neurons play key role in movement, both involuntary or voluntary

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25
Q

Motor neurons run signals from CNS to muscles, causing them to relax/contract

A

contract

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26
Q

Main function of SENSORY neuron (think Electric Love)

A

Converting external stimuli into internal electrical impulses

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27
Q

T/F : interneurons facilitate both external and internal communication between the sensory inputs and the motor outputs

A

False : just INTERNAL, not EXTERNAL

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28
Q

T/F : interneurons help to create new neurons internally

A

True : crucial role in neurogenesis

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29
Q

The myelin sheath is particularly important in neurons because it:
A. Generates the electrical impulses needed for neural communication..
B. Speeds up the transmission of electrical impulses along the axon.
C. Speeds up the collection of signals from the dendrites to the cell body.
D. Connects the central nervous system to muscles and glands.

A

B. Speeds up the transmission of electrical impulses along the axon.

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30
Q

What is the main function of the axon terminal in a neuron?
A. To collect signals from the dendrites of another neuron.
B. To cover the axon and speed up neural transmission.
C. To regenerate damaged neural fibers.
D. To release neurotransmitters into the synapse.

A

D. To release neurotransmitters into the synapse.

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31
Q

The difference between grey and white matter is that white matter is ________

A

myelinated

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32
Q

T/F : the cerebrum houses more grey matter than white matter

A

F

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33
Q

All of the following but TWO are roles of the grey matter in cerebrum versus white matter.

  1. Sensory perception
  2. Connection between different brain regions
  3. Speech
  4. Emotions
  5. Decision making
  6. Speeding up transmission of nerve signals
  7. Memory
A
  1. Connection between different brain regions
  2. Speeding up transmission of nerve signals
    - both of these are the primary functions of WHITE matter
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34
Q

The cerebrum is a major component of the central nervous system. According to the information provided in the slides, which of the following is a primary function associated with the cerebrum?

A. Regulating basic life functions such as breathing and heart rate.
B. Coordinating movement and maintaining posture.
C. Processing sensory information, initiating voluntary movements, and enabling higher-level cognitive functions.
D. Transmitting sensory and motor information between the body and the brain.

A

C. Processing sensory information, initiating voluntary movements, and enabling higher-level cognitive functions.

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35
Q

Gray matter and white matter are two distinct types of tissue found in the brain. Which statement accurately describes the composition and primary function of white matter, according to the slides?

A. White matter is primarily composed of neuronal cell bodies and dendrites and is involved in muscle control and sensory perception.
B. White matter is composed of axons coated with myelin sheaths and facilitates rapid transmission of nerve signals between different brain regions.
C. White matter is mainly composed of glial cells and capillaries and is responsible for the brain’s decision-making processes.
D. White matter is composed of unmyelinated axons and is involved in local communication within specific brain regions.

A

B. White matter is composed of axons coated with myelin sheaths and facilitates rapid transmission of nerve signals between different brain regions.

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36
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is divided into several key components. According to the slides, which of the following structures is considered part of the CNS?

A. Cranial nerves
B. Spinal nerves
C. The brain stem
D. Peripheral nerves

A

C. The brain stem

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37
Q

Neural impulses transmission

A

process by which neurons send and receive signals.

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38
Q

Other name for neural impulse transmission

A

conduction of action potentials

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39
Q

Name the neural activities that are fundamental and functioning action potentials (STMR)

A
  1. Sensing
  2. Thinking
  3. Moving
  4. Regulating internal body processes
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40
Q

Name the 6 general steps in neural impulse transmission

A
  1. Resting potential
  2. Depolarization (rising)
  3. Repolarization (falling)
  4. Hyperpolarization
  5. Refractory period
  6. Restoration
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41
Q

At resting potential, the membrane potential during resting potential is positive/negative, at ____mV, but at the depolarization phase, it is positive/negative, at _____mV

A

negative; -70mV
positive; +40mV

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42
Q

What ‘structure’ helps the membrane have a negative resting potential?

  1. The collective Na+
  2. The collective K-
  3. The balanced number of inner-outer layered Na+ and K-
  4. The Na+, K- pump
A
  1. The Na+, K- pump
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43
Q

T/F : during action potential, ONLY Na+ have a channel, and they move in and out of it respective to the given action potential phase

A

F : both sodium and potassium have channels on TOP of the pump

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44
Q

During depolarization, what triggers the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels?

  1. A rush of Na+ bouncing around in the outer layer of the membrane.
  2. A decrease in volume, causing a temporary hole to form large enough for the Na+ to come in
  3. A strong stimulus that reaches the excitement threshold
A
  1. A strong stimulus that reaches the excitement threshold
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45
Q

During depolarization, the rush of sodium ions causes the neuron to become more positive/negative

46
Q

T/F : during repolarization, sodium and potassium channels open and close at the same time

A

false - sodium closes and then potassium opens

47
Q

Hyperpolarization

A

When membrane potential may temporarily become more negative than the resting potential

48
Q

T/F : During hyperpolarization, the neuron is more sensitive to new stimuli because the more negative side allows it to be ‘shocked’ more.

A

F - it is less sensitive

49
Q

Refractory period

A

Time after action potential and during the hyperpolarization where NO new action potential can start

50
Q

What does the sodium potassium pump do?

A

it returns the original ion distribution, moving sodium and potassium ions where needed

51
Q

During which phase of the action potential do the potassium channels open?
A. Rising phase of the action potential.
B. Depolarization phase.
C. Repolarization phase.
D. Hyperpolarization phase.

A

C. Repolarization phase.

52
Q

Major parts of the brain

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem

53
Q

4 lobes of cerebrum

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

54
Q

Surface of cerebrum = ______

55
Q

The cortex has a variety of ______ and _______

A

ridges; grooves

56
Q

Name both kinds of grooves

A
  1. Sulcus
  2. Fissure
57
Q

In the brain, the shallow groove is called the ______ and the deep groove is called ______

A

sulcus; fissure

58
Q

Given the information on lateralization of brain function, if a person suffers damage primarily to Broca’s area, which of the following deficits would MOST likely result?

A. Difficulty understanding spoken language.
B. Impairment in producing fluent, grammatical speech.
C. Loss of visual processing capabilities.
D. Inability to recognize familiar faces.

A

B. Impairment in producing fluent, grammatical speech.

59
Q

Based on the slides, if a patient exhibits difficulty in comprehending spoken language but can still produce fluent speech (though it may lack meaning), which area of the brain is MOST likely affected?

A. Broca’s area
B. Motor cortex
C. Wernicke’s area
D. Auditory cortex

A

C. Wernicke’s area

60
Q

Considering the functions of the motor cortex, which of the following would be MOST affected by damage to this area?

A. Understanding spoken language.
B. Planning and executing voluntary movements.
C. Recognizing visual patterns.
D. Regulating emotional responses.

A

B. Planning and executing voluntary movements.

61
Q

Based on the information provided in the slide deck, what is the arcuate fasciculus’ main function?

A. Regulating motor movements of the face.
B. Processing auditory information for language comprehension.
C. Connecting Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area, facilitating language processing.
D. Coordinating visual and auditory input.

A

C. Connecting Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area, facilitating language processing.

62
Q

Primary function of frontal lobe + where it is

A
  1. front of cerebrum
  2. Major role in planning physical (motor) movement for ALL parts of body
63
Q

Primary function of parietal lobe + where it is

A
  1. top of cerebrum, behind frontal lobe(s)
  2. processes INCOMING sensory information
64
Q

Primary function of temporal lobe + where it is

A
  1. side of cerebrum
  2. contains PRIMARY auditory center
65
Q

Primary function of occipital lobe + where it is

A
  1. back of cerebrum
  2. processes visual info
66
Q

Primary function of cerebellum + location

A
  1. under cerebrum
  2. receives input from different systems
67
Q

T/F : the cerebellum sends information to the sensory cortex to assist in fine tune sensory skills

A

F - the motor cortex; fine tuned motor skills

68
Q

The brainstem houses WHAT 3 structures?

A

Midbrain; pons; medulla oblongata

69
Q

the function of the brainstem (4) - think Valentine’s day and BP

A
  1. Breathing
  2. Heart rate
  3. Blood pressure
  4. relay center for messages between brain + spinal cord
70
Q

The brainstem is mentioned as a component of the Central Nervous System. Based solely on the slide deck provided, which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the brainstem’s function?

A. The brainstem is responsible for higher-level cognitive processes such as decision-making and language comprehension.
B. The brainstem directly connects the peripheral nervous system to sensory organs.
C. Based on the slide deck, it is only possible to determine that the brainstem is part of the central nervous system (CNS).
D. The brainstem is primarily involved in motor coordination and balance.

A

C. Based on the slide deck, it is only possible to determine that the brainstem is part of the central nervous system (CNS).

71
Q

primary function of basal ganglia (think MOVE IT!)

A

receives and modifies movements (info) from primary motor cortex

72
Q

location and function of thalamus

A
  1. Near the center of the brain
  2. Main relay station for sensory info GOING TO cerebral cortex
73
Q

Based only on the limited information presented there, which of the following statements BEST reflects the thalamus’s role in language processing

A. The thalamus directly controls the motor movements necessary for speech articulation.
B. The thalamus is the primary center for language comprehension, allowing individuals to understand spoken words.
C. The thalamus serves as a crucial relay station, processing and transmitting sensory information to the cerebral cortex, including language-related input.
D. The slide provides insufficient information to determine the thalamus’s role in language processing.

A

D. The slide provides insufficient information to determine the thalamus’s role in language processing.

74
Q

T/F : the amygdala is responsible for processing emotions such as anger, pleasure, and fear

75
Q

T/F : the amygdala is important for figuring out the storage of memories in the brain

76
Q

Which structure is known as the ‘emotion center’?

77
Q

T/F : the amygdala sends info to other nuclei in the thalamus, which processes emotions attached to language

A

F - all is true but the other nuclei, which is in the BASAL ganglia

78
Q

Broca’s area is located in the right/left hemisphere and the frontal/temporal lobe and Wernicke’s area is located in the right/left hemisphere and the frontal/temporal lobe

A

left; frontal
right; temporal

79
Q

Which speech brain structure is responsible for speech PRODUCTION and language PROCESSING

  1. Auditory cortex
  2. Sensory lobe
  3. Broca’s area
  4. Wernicke’s area
A
  1. Broca’s area
80
Q

Brain structure required for language COMPREHENSION

  1. Auditory cortex
  2. Sensory lobe
  3. Broca’s area
  4. Wernicke’s area
A
  1. Wernicke’s area
81
Q

Main 2 functions of motor cortex (speech wise - what does a MOTOR do)

A
  1. Coordinates movements needed for speech
  2. Sends signals to speech muscles for speech prod.
82
Q

T/F : the temporal lobe is located IN the auditory cortex

A

F - aud IN temp

83
Q

Main 2 functions of auditory cortex (2 things PER functions = 4 total)

A
  1. Processing + understanding sounds
  2. Monitoring + adjusting speech
84
Q

weird named structure for written language into VERBAL (think Blair’s stepdad)

A

angular gyrus

85
Q

which 2 ‘vroom vroom’ structures are involved in planning COMPLEX MOVEments and even speech

A

Supplementary Motor area
Pre-motor cortex

86
Q

Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for speech production and is typically located in the posteterior-inferior aspect of the frontal lobe in the left hemisphere?
A. Wernicke’s Area
B. Auditory Cortex
C. Broca’s Area
D. Angular Gyrus

A

C. Broca’s Area

87
Q

The Arcuate Fasciculus is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects which two areas of the brain, playing a crucial role in coordinated and fluent speech?
A. Motor Cortex and Auditory Cortex
B. Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s Area
C. Angular Gyrus and Supplementary Motor Area
D. Auditory Cortex and Angular Gyrus

A

B. Broca’s Area and Wernicke’s Area

88
Q

T/F : we are NOT able to use EEG to make clinical diagnoses about the functioning of one’s brain

A

F - we can

89
Q

function of EEG

A

detects fluctuations in electrical activity in brain

90
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of brain wave categorized into a type?

  1. Delta
  2. Theta
  3. Alpha
  4. Zeta
  5. Gamma
  6. None of the above
  7. All of the above
A
  1. Zeta - it is BETA
91
Q

explain the 10-20 system

A

it is the system for the placement of electrodes

92
Q

the 10-20 system is based on the relationship between electrode _____ and underlying ________ cortex area

A

location; cerebral

93
Q

name the 4 main ‘landmarks’ for EEG placement (the proportionate distances)

A
  1. Nasion - front
  2. Inion - back
  3. 2 preauricular points (on side of each ear)
94
Q

In EEG placements, the distance between lobe electrodes is more likely to be 10/20 but the distance between an electrode and the side of the head is 10/20

95
Q

Which of the following statements about the International 10-20 System for EEG electrode placement is false?
A. It uses four anatomical landmarks: the nasion, inion, and two preauricular points.
B. The system ensures proportional accuracy across different head sizes.
C. The electrode locations correspond to underlying areas of the cerebral cortex.
D. The “10” and “20” refer to the percentage of the total circumference of the skull.

A

D. The “10” and “20” refer to the percentage of the total circumference of the skull.

96
Q

T/F : using EEG, we can monitor conditions like epilepsy and sleeping disorders

97
Q

ERPs : describe N100/P200 + role in SPEECH

A

Negative peak 100ms after onset followed by Positive
- phonetic ODDBALL

98
Q

ERPs : describe N400 + role in SPEECH

A

Negative peak after ~ 400ms from onset
- SEMANTIC weirdo

99
Q

ERPs : describe P600 + role in SPEECH

A

Positive peak after ~600ms from onset
- SYNTAX weirdo

100
Q

Say you heard someone say “Out of all the nice cars, only the small green one mewed.” Which of ERP will be triggered by this?
A. N100-P200
B. N400
C. P600
D. Not sure yet

101
Q

Considering the electrode placement at T4, which function is primarily associated with the brain area beneath this electrode?
A. Visual processing and spatial awareness.
B. Auditory processing and language comprehension.
C. Executive functions and decision making.
D. Motor coordination and balance.

A

B. Auditory processing and language comprehension.

102
Q

Consider the sentence: “The cat quickly ate the purple refrigerator.” Which ERP component would most likely be elicited by the word “refrigerator” in this context?

A. N100-P200
B. N400
C. P600
D. No ERP would be triggered

103
Q

A child learning English hears the sentence, “She is eating an apple.” Later, they hear, “He are eating an apple.” Which ERP component is most likely to be elicited by the word “are” due to the grammatical error?

A. N100-P200
B. N400
C. P600
D. No ERP would be triggered

104
Q

To treat medically intractable epilepsy, some patients undergo a surgical procedure where a specific structure in the brain is severed or removed. After the procedure, the left and right hemispheres of the brain can no longer communicate directly, leading to a condition known as “split-brain.”
Based on the description of “split-brain” patients, which part of the brain is affected during the operation?

A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
C. Cerebellum
D. Corpus callosum

A

D. Corpus callosum

105
Q

The myelin sheath is known to increase the speed of neural signal transmission. This is achieved by:

A. Directly generating action potentials along the axon.
B. Allowing impulses to jump between nodes.
C. Facilitating continuous electrical conduction along the axon.
D. Preventing ion leakage across the axon membrane.

A

B. Allowing impulses to jump between nodes.

106
Q

During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which statement is true?

A. Both sodium and potassium ions flow into the neuron, neutralizing the resting potential.
B. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to enter the neuron, making the interior more positive.
C. Potassium ions enter the neuron, causing the interior to become less negative.
D. Sodium-potassium pumps actively depolarize the neuron by expelling potassium ions.

A

B. Sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to enter the neuron, making the interior more positive.

107
Q

Which statement best describes the role of the frontal lobe?

A. It plays a key role in visual processing and recognition of spatial patterns.
B. It is responsible for processing incoming sensory information from the body.
C. It is the primary center for processing auditory information and language comprehension.
D. It contains regions that coordinate planning and execution of voluntary movements, including speech.

A

D. It contains regions that coordinate planning and execution of voluntary movements, including speech.

108
Q

T/F : John is interacting with a new patient who appears to have difficulty in coordinating the fine motor movements required for speech, resulting in slurred and imprecise articulation. However, their ability to understand language and form coherent sentences remains intact. He suspects that the patient’s basal ganglia is likely not working properly. Could it be true?

109
Q

T/F : The visual cortex, located in the occipital lobe, processes visual information that can aid in speech comprehension.

110
Q

T/F : The following sentence will likely trigger a P400 peak in the signals obtained via EEG.
“She doesn’t have the slightest idea where is the book.”