Specimen Collection and Processing Flashcards

0
Q

How long should the specimen collection be postponed when the patient is under antibiotic therapy?

A

Wait 1 week after antibiotic therapy

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1
Q

Method for obtaining anaerobic bacteria

A

Aspiration

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2
Q

Level scheme of prioritization where the specimen is “critical” due to invasive collection or severity of disease

A

Level 1

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3
Q

Level scheme of prioritization with organisms that easily multiply; processed immediately

A

Level 1

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4
Q

7 specimens under Level 1 priority

A
  • CSF
  • brain
  • blood
  • heart valves
  • pericardial fluid
  • bronchoalveolar lavage
  • amniotic fluid
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5
Q

Level scheme of prioritization that may contain other organisms

A

Level 2

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6
Q

Level scheme of prioritization that may be unprotected/unpreserved and may quickly degrade or have rapid overgrowth of contamination, changing the nature of the specimen

A

Level 2

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7
Q

7 specimens under level 2 priority

A
  • Sputum
  • pus
  • tissue
  • drainage from wounds
  • bone
  • feces
  • stool
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8
Q

Level scheme of prioritization whose specimen requires quantitation (colony counting & quantitative tissue biopsy)

A

Level 3

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9
Q

2 specimens under level 3 priority

A
  • urine

- catheter tips

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10
Q

Level scheme of prioritization whoses specimen is in a transport media

A

Level 4

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11
Q

3 specimens under level 4 priority

A
  • feces and urine in preservative

- swabs in holding medium

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12
Q

7 body sites that are normally sterile

A
  • CSF
  • serous fluids
  • lower respiratory tract
  • bladder
  • bone marrow
  • blood
  • tissue
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13
Q

7 body sites that have normal commensal flora

A
  • mouth
  • nose
  • upper respiratory tract
  • gastrointestinal tract
  • female genital tract
  • urethra
  • skin
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14
Q

2 specimens obtained from the upper respiratory tract

A
  • throat cultures

- nasopharyngeal cultures

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15
Q

Bacteria obtained from throat cultures

A

Group A streptococci

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16
Q

Type of sterile swab used for throat cultures

A

Calcium alginate

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17
Q

5 infections detected in throat cultures

A
  • streptococcal infections
  • whooping cough
  • epiglotitis
  • oral thrush
  • gonorrhoea
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18
Q

Organism that causes oral thrush

A

Candida albicans

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19
Q

2 bacteria obtained from nasopharyngeal cultures

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis

- Staphylococcus aureus

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20
Q

3 infections detected by nasopharyngeal cultures

A
  • pertussis
  • middle ear infections
  • indentification of carrier state
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21
Q

4 infections detected by lower respiratory tract specimens

A
  • bronchitis
  • pneumonia
  • tuberculosis
  • histoplasmosis
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22
Q

3 specimens for lower respiratory tract

A
  • sputum
  • gastric contents
  • transtracheal aspirations
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23
Q

Specimen for lower respiratory tract for children and orderly who cannot cough out sputum

A

Gastric contents

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24
Q

Specimen for lower respiratory tract when the patient cannot produce gastric contents

A

Transtracheal aspiration

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25
Q

Time for best specimen of sputum

A

Early morning (deep cough & no saliva)

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26
Q

What is the time limit of refrigeration of histoplasmosis specimen when it is delayed?

A

Refrigerate not more than 1-3 hours

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27
Q

Specimen when the physician requires anaerobic culture for lower respiratory tract

A

Aspirations

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28
Q

Presentation of results for lower repiratory tract

A

Bartlett’s Classification (sputum only)

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29
Q

4 cells scanned for their presence in the Bartlett’s classification

A
  • squamous epithelial cells (SECs)
  • polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)
  • alveolar macrophages (AMs)
  • columnar cells (CC)
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30
Q

Interpretation of PMNs in Bartlett’s classification

A

Bacterial pneumonia

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31
Q

Interpretation of AMs and CCs in Bartlett’s classification

A

Lower respiratory tract specimen was collected properly

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32
Q

Interpretation of SECs in Bartlett’s classification

A

Oral flora contamination

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33
Q

Describe prurulent secretions

A

Greater than 25 PMNs and less than 10 SECs per low power field

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34
Q

Describe oral secretions

A

Greater than 25 SECs and less than 10 PMNs per low power field

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35
Q

Describe respiratory secretions

A

Predominance of AMs and CCs (greater than 10 PMNs per low power field)

36
Q

What should be done with prurulent secretions?

A

Culture the specimen

37
Q

What should be done with oral secretions?

A

Recollect specimen

38
Q

Specimen for gastrointestinal tract

A

Rectal swab

39
Q

Infection detected by gastrointestinal tract specimens

A

Gastroenteritis

40
Q

3 methods of collection for urine

A
  • Clean catch midstream specimen
  • catheterized specimen
  • suprapubic aspiration
41
Q

Infection detected in urine specimen

A

Urinary tract infections

42
Q

What is the time limit of refrigeration of urine specimen if there is delay?

A

Refrigerate not more than 24 hours

43
Q

4 screening tests done before colony count of urine

A
  • Griess test
  • Triphenyltetrazolium chloride
  • Automated methodologies
  • Bac-T-Screen
44
Q

Urine screen test that is a chromophoric test for the presence of organic nitrite compounds

A

Griess test

45
Q

Urine screen test as a redox indicator; used to indicate cellular respiration

A

Triphenylbetrazolium Chloride

46
Q

Urine screen test for ATP production

A

Automated methodologies

47
Q

Calibration of urine inoculating loop

A

1 uL (0.001 mL) of urine

48
Q

Value for bacteriuria

A

Values greater than 1.0x10^5 CFU/mL

49
Q

Values considered to be contaminated or may represent cultures taken during periods of recovery from UTI after antibiotics have been initiated

A

Values between 1.0x10^3 and 1.0x10^5 CFU/mL

50
Q

Unit used in urine colony counting

A

CFU/mL

51
Q

Most common bacteria in urine

A

Escherichia coli

52
Q

3 infections detected in blood

A
  • bacteremia
  • septicemia
  • unexplained shock
53
Q

2 factors that affect positive blood cultures

A
  • stage of the disease

- collection time

54
Q

Collection time for subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)

A

24-48 hours (3-4 cultures)

55
Q

Collection time for endocarditis

A

Anytime

56
Q

Collection time for brucellosis

A

During exacerbation of symptoms or elevation of temperature

57
Q

Collection time for shredding of bacteria in the blood

A

30-45 mins before the fibrile episode

58
Q

Volume of blood needed from adults

A

20-30 mL/culture set (10 mL blood/bottle)

59
Q

Volume of blood needed for infants

A

1-5 mL/culture set

60
Q

3 types of bacteria that will be detected in blood cultures

A
  • aerobic
  • anaerobic
  • capnophilic
61
Q

Percent of CO2 during areobic or anaerobic incubation of blood culture

A

5-10% CO2

62
Q

Ideal anticoagulant for blood used in blodd culture

A

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) AKA liquoid

63
Q

What is the time limit for refrigeration of blood sample when there is delay?

A

Refrigerate for 1-2 hrs

64
Q

3 susbtances used to identify Peptococcus anaerobius, N. gonorrhoeae, and Gardnerella vaginalis

A
  • sodium amylosulfate
  • sodium citrate
  • osmotic stabilizer (10-30% sucrose)
65
Q

3 bacteria identified using sodium amylosulfate, sodium citrate, and osmotic stabilizer (10-30% sucrose)

A
  • Peptococcus anaerobius
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Gardnerella vaginalis
66
Q

Medium used in blodd culture

A

Biphasic medium; 1:10 ratio (1 mL blood, 10 mL medium)

67
Q

Blood culture positive result for gram negative rods

A

Uniformly turbid with gas bubbles

68
Q

Blood culture positive for meningococci and pneumococci

A

Less distinct turbidity

69
Q

Blood culture positive result for ß-hemolytic streptococci

A

Cotton ball colonies on top of sedimented red cell with clear upper layer

70
Q

Blood culture positive result for pathogenic species of staphylococci

A

Large jelly-like coagulum throughout the broth

71
Q

Blood culture positive result for bacillus species and saprophytic fungi (non-pathogenic)

A

Thick pellicle on the surface of the medium with hemolysis

72
Q

Blood culture positive result for Clostridium species

A

Marked hemolysis with unpleasant odor and gas under pressure

73
Q

Blood culture positive result for Bacteriodes species

A

Less gas than Clostridium spp. but a foul odor

74
Q

Blood culture positive result for Haemophilus

A

No change in medium

75
Q

How long should blood cultures be then declared negative?

A

After 7 days

76
Q

Incubation period for Brucellosis

A

21 days

77
Q

Skin contaminants in blood culture

A

Diphtheroid bacilli

78
Q

4 organisms involved in fatal transfusions

A
  • Pseudomonas (B. anthracis)
  • citrobacter
  • achromobacter
  • late lactose fermenting enteric organisms
79
Q

How is cerebrospinal fluid collected?

A

Lumbar puncture

80
Q

2 bacteria detected in CSF

A
  • N. meningitidis
  • H. influenza

Fastidious bacteria

81
Q

3 transport medium used for specimens with anticipated delay

A
  • Stuart’s medium
  • Amie’s medium
  • Cary-Blair medium
82
Q

Transport medium that increases viability of pathogens

A

Stuart’s medium

83
Q

Transport medium that is a substitute for Stuart’s medium

A

Amie’s medium

84
Q

Transport medium for stool specimens and enteric pathogens

A

Cary-Blair medium

85
Q

Specimen for male genital tract

A

Urethral discharge

86
Q

3 specimens for female genital tract

A
  • uterine cervix
  • urethra
  • cervix
87
Q

Transport medium for genital tract specimen

A

Gono-Pak/JEM-BEC