Ch. 20 - Enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

0
Q

Cytochrome oxidase reaction of enterics

A

Cytochrome oxidase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Carbohydrate fermented by all enterics

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Enterics that do not reduce nitrates to nitrites

A
  • Erwinia

- Pantoea agglomerans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Non-motile enterics

A
  • Shigella

- Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Structure that enables enterics to be motile

A

Pili (fimbriae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Gram reaction of enterics

A

Gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Oyxygen requirements of enterics

A

Facultatively anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Culture media used for presumptive identification of enterics

A
  • MAC
  • HEA
  • XLD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rapid fermenting enterics

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Escherichia
  • Enterobacter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Late fermenting enterics

A
  • Citrobacter
  • Hafnia
  • Pantoea
  • Serratia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Non-fermenting enterics

A
  • Proteus
  • Edwardsiella
  • Morganella
  • Providencia
  • Yersinia
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heat-stable antigen; located on the cell wall; made up of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

O antigen/somatic antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Heat-labile antigen on the surface of flagella; structures responsible for motility; made up of proteins

A

H antigen/flagellar antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Heat-labile antigen; found in capsular polysaccharide; covers the O antigen

A

K antigen/capsular antigen/envelope antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Place where O/somatic antigen is found

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Substance that makes up O/somatic antigen

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Place where H/flagellar antigen is found

A

Surface of flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Substance that makes up H/flagellar antigen

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Place where K antigen is found

A

Capsular polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Heat-stable antigen

A

O/somatic antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 heat-labile antigens

A
  • H/flagellar antigen

- K/capsular/envelope antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Organ where E. coli is commonly isolated from

A

Colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Antigens of E. coli used for the identification of strains associated with serious enteric disease

A

O and H antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Antigen of E. coli that masks O antigen during bacterial agglutination by specific antiserum

A

K antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Carbohydrates fermented by E. coli

A
  • glucose
  • lactose
  • trehalose
  • xylose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IMViC results for E. coli

A

I: +
M: +
V: -
C: -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cause of UTIs in humans

A

Uropathogenic E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Virulence factors for uropathogenic E. coli

A
  • pili
  • cytolysins
  • aerobactin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Virulence factor of uropathogenic E. coli which allows adherence to epithelial cells

A

Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Virulence factor of uropathogenic E. coli that kills immune effector cells and inhibits phagocytosis and chemotaxis of certain WBCs

A

Cytolysins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Virulence factor of uropathogenic E. coli that allows the bacterial cell to chelate iron

A

Aerobactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

E. coli that causes diarrhea of infants and adults in tropical and subtropical climates

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Common names of the disease caused by ETEC

A
  • Traveler’s diarrhea
  • Montezuma’s Revenge
  • Turista
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 types of toxins produced by ETEC

A
  • heat-labile toxin (LT)

- heat-stable toxin (ST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fragment of heat-labile toxin of ETEC that activates adenylate cylase; causes hypersecretion of electrolytes and fluid (watery diarrhea); ATP to cAMP

A

A (active)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Fragment of heat-labile toxin of ETEC that confers specificity; provides entry for the A portion

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Toxin by ETEC that stimulates guanylate cylase which causes increased production of cGMP

A

Heat-stable toxin (ST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The only E. coli strain that grows in blood agar

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

E. coli strain with the same toxins with Vibrio cholerae

A

ETEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

E. coli strain that is Shigella-like

A

Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Test previously used to determine virulence of Shigellae and EIEC

A

Sereny Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Test used to detect the invasiveness of EIEC

A

Monolayer cell cultures with human epithelial-2 cells (Hep-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

E. coli strain that causes the stool to have large amounts of mucus but no blood

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

E. coli strain that is noninvasive and does not produce toxins

A

EPEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Test used yo identify EPEC

A

Serologic typing with pooled antisera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Other name of Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)

A

E. coli 0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Former name of EHEC

A

Verotoxic E. coli (VTEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2 cytotoxins produced by EHEC

A
  • verotoxin I

- verotoxin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cytotoxin by EHEC that is phage-encoded identical yo Shiga toxin (Stx); damages Vero cells; neutralized by the antibody against Stx

A

Verotoxin I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cytotoxin by EHEC; biologically similar but immunologically different from Stx; AKA Shiga toxigenic E. coli

A

Verotoxin II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Appearance of EHEC from stool culture in SMAC

A

Colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Culture medium used to identify EHEC

A

SMAC (MAC agar containing sorbitol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

2 types of Enteroadherent E. coli

A
  • diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC)

- enteroaggregative (EAEC)

53
Q

E. coli strain associated with both UTI(chronic or reccuring) and diarrheal disease; causes cystitis in children and acute pyelonephritis in pregnant women

A

Diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC)

54
Q

Disease caused by DAEC in children

A

Cystitis

55
Q

Disease caused by DAEC in pregnant women

A

Acute pyelonephritis

56
Q

E. coli strain that packs in an aggregative “stacked brick” pattern; causes diarrhea by adhering to the surface of the intestinal mucosa (Hep2 cells)

A

Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)

57
Q

Escherichia sp. isolated from CSF, wounds and blood; yellow-pigmented

A

E. hermannii

58
Q

Escherichia sp. isolated from humans with infected wounds; yellow-pigmented colonies

A

E. vulneris

59
Q

Escherichia sp. associated with diarrheal disease in children

A

E. albertii

60
Q

6 genus under Tribe Klebsiella

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Cronobacter
  • Hafnia
  • Enterobacter
  • Pantoea
  • Serratia
61
Q

MRVP reaction of Tribe Klebsiella

A

MR (-) and VP (+)

62
Q

Most commonly isolated Klebsiella sp.

A

K. pneumoniae

63
Q

Substance that makes up the capsule of K. pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide

64
Q

Organism that frequently causes lower respiratory tract infections among hospitalized patients and immunocompromised hosts

A

K. pneumoniae

65
Q

Klebsiella sp. that is identical to K. pneumoniae; indol (+) and ornithine (+); from blood and stool cultures

A

K. oxytoca

66
Q

Klebsiella sp. responsible for atrophy of the nasal mucous membranes with fetid odor; isolated from blood and stool cultures

A

K. ozanae

67
Q

Klebsiella sp. that causes Rhinoscleroma; causes destructive granuloma of the nose and pharynx

A

K. rhinoscleromatis

68
Q

Infection of the nasal cavity that manifests as an intense swelling and malformation of the entire face and neck

A

Rhinoscleroma

69
Q

2 Klebsiella sp. isolated from urine, blood and the respiratory tract

A
  • K. ornithinolytica

- K. planticola

70
Q

2 culture media for the growth of Tribe Klebsiella

A
  • Simmons citrate agar

- potassium cyanide broth

71
Q

Enterobacter sp. that is the predominant isolate; causes UTI and wound infections

A

E. cloacae

72
Q

Enterobacter sp. that resembles E. aerogenes; has strong urease activity

A

E. gergoviae

73
Q

Enterobacter sp. that causes endocarditis and meningitis

A

E. aerogenes

74
Q

Enterobacter sp. that resembles E. cloacae; yellow-pigmented; associated with neonatal sepsis

A

E. sakazakii

75
Q

Enterobacter sp. that causes osteomyelitis following traumatic wounds; lactose negative; ONPG positive

A

E. taylorae (E. cancerogenus)

76
Q

Organism from Tribe Klebsiella that is associated with contaminated IV fluids; yellow-pigmented; negative to ADH, LDH and ODC

A

Pantoea agglomerans

77
Q

Serratia sp. that causes pneumonia and septicemia; clinically significant

A

S. marcescens

78
Q

Serratia sp. that ferments arabinose

A

S. liquefaciens

79
Q

Serratia sp. that has rancid or potato-like odor; ferments sucrose, raffinose and ornithine

A

S. odorifera

80
Q

Part of Tribe Klebsiellae that is not known to cause gastroenteritis but occasionally isolated from stool cultures

A

Hafnia

81
Q

Hafnia sp. that is negative to lactose, sucrose, sorbitol, citrate, DNAse, and lipase

A

H. alvei

82
Q

Hafnia sp. that grows in beer wort of breweries; not isolated clinically

A

H. alvei biotype 1

83
Q

3 genera under Tribe Proteeae

A
  • Proteus
  • Providencia
  • Morganella
84
Q

MRVP reaction of Tribe Proteeae

A

MR (+) and VP (-)

85
Q

Urease activity of Proteus

A

Rapid

86
Q

Genera in Tribe Proteeae that causes acute glomerulonephritis

A

Proteus

87
Q

2 Proteus sp. with ‘swarming’ motility in BA

A
  • P. mirabilis

- P. vulgaris

88
Q

Distinct odor of P. mirabilis and P. vulgaris

A

Burnt chocolate

89
Q

2 Proteus sp. that are H2S+

A
  • P. vulgaris

- P. mirabilis

90
Q

Indole and ornithine reactions of P. mirabilis

A

Negative indole, positive ornithine

91
Q

Indole and ornithine reactions of P. vulgaris

A

Positive indole, negative ornithine

92
Q

Proteus sp. isolated from patients with diarrhea

A

P. penneri

93
Q

Proteus sp. isolated from gypsy moths; characterized by large amounts of slime it produces

A

P. myxofasciens

94
Q

Morganella sp. documented to cause UTI but has not been isolated

A

M. morganii

95
Q

Providencia sp. associated with UTI and occasional nosocomial outbreaks

A

P. rettgeri

96
Q

Providencia sp. associated with nosocomial outbreaks in burn units; isolated from urine cultures

A

P. stuartii

97
Q

Edwardsiella sp. that is a human pathogen; source of GI infection, wound infections and abscesses; biochemically similar to E. coli; does not grow in Simmons citrate

A

E. tarda

98
Q

Edwardiella sp. that is isolate from snakes, birds and water

A

E. hoshinae

99
Q

Edwardsiella sp. that causes enteric septicemia in fish

A

E. ictaluri

100
Q

Medium where all Citrobacter sp. will grow

A

Simmons Citrate agar

101
Q

Citrobacter sp. that can be isolated in diarrheal stool cultures; extraintestinal pathogen; associated with endocarditis in IV drug abusers

A

C. freundii

102
Q

Citrobacter sp. that is responsible for nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses

A

C. diversus (C. koseri)

103
Q

Colony description of Salmonella

A

Metallic colonies with black ring (BSA and BGA)

104
Q

What substance inhibits the growth of Salmonella sp. in media?

A

Potassium cyanide

105
Q

3 antigenic structures of Salmonella spp.

A
  • Somatic O antigens (Groups A, B, C, and D)
  • Flagellar H antigen (1, 2, 3, and 4)
  • Vi antigen
106
Q

Phase of Flagellar H antigen of Salmonella spp.; occurs only in small number of serotypes; antigens agglutinate only with homologous antisera; specific phase

A

Phase 1

107
Q

Phase of Flagellar H antigen of Salmonella spp.; occurs among several strains; reacts with heterologous antisera; non-specific phase

A

Phase 2

108
Q

Antigenic structure of Salmonella; surface polysaccharide capsular antigen; prevents phagocytosis; often blocks O antigen during serologic typing; can be removed by heating

A

Vi antigen

109
Q

Salmonella sp. that causes enteric fever: typhoid and paratyphoid

A

S. typhi

110
Q

Salmonella sp. that causes septicemia

A

S. choleraesuis

111
Q

Salmonella spp. that causes gastroenteritis

A
  • S. typhimurium

- S. enteritidis

112
Q

An agglutination test for the presence of antibodies against Salmonella organisms that cause typhoid fever

A

Widal Test

113
Q

Antigen in Widal test that signifies active infection of Salmonella spp.

A

O antigen

114
Q

Antigen in Widal test that signifies past immunization or infection

A

H antigen

115
Q

Antigen in Widal test that signifies of being a carrier

A

Vi antigen

116
Q

Test for Salmonella spp. endotoxins; amebocytes of horse crab (visible gel)

A

Limulus Test

117
Q

Test for Salmonella spp. enterotoxins; ballooning of the intestinal tract (accumulation of fluid)

A

Ileal Loop Test

118
Q

Bacillary dysentry caused by Shigella spp.; bloody, mucoid diarrheic stool with pus cells and fishy odor

A

Shigellosis

119
Q

Shigella sp. that is most prevalent in the US; releases beurotoxin and enteroxin

A

S. dysenteriae

120
Q

2 toxins produced by S. dysenteriae

A
  • beurotoxin

- enterotoxin

121
Q

Yersinia sp. that caused the Black Death

A

Yersinia pestis

122
Q

2 stains used fot Y. pestis; bipolar staining (intense staining)

A
  • methylene blue

- Wayson stain

123
Q

Appearance of Y. pestis after staining with Wayson stain or methylene blue

A

Safety-pin appearance

124
Q

Yersinia sp. with stalactite patterns

A

Y. pestis

125
Q

3 forms of Y. pestis

A
  • bubonic/glandular
  • septicemic
  • pneumonic
126
Q

Yersinia sp. associated with enterocolitis; ingestion of contaminated water, pork, beef or milk products; fecal-oral transmission

A

Y. enterocolitica

127
Q

Colony appearance of Y. enterocolitica

A

Red “bull’s-eye” colonies with colorless halo (CIN medium)

128
Q

Yersinia sp. that causes lymphadenitis in children

A

Y. psedotuberculosis

129
Q

Yersinia sp. that spreads to mesenteric lymph nodes when ingested; caseuos swelling

A

Y. pseudotuberculosis