Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Small animal (fourth year) > Soft tissue surgery (urogenital) > Flashcards

Soft tissue surgery (urogenital) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the only accessory sex organ of male dogs?

A

prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the accessory sex organs of male cats?

A

prostate
bulbourethral gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where is the prostate located pre puberty?

A

pelvic position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

where is the prostate located after puberty?

A

partially pelvic and partially abdominal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the function of the prostate?

A

produce fluid facilitating motility and viability of spermatozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the clinical signs of prostatic disease?

A

anorexia, lethargy, weight loss, pyrexia
urinary - dysuria, haematuria, urethral discharge, urine retention
defaecatory - tenesmus, ribbon-like faeces, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are possible ways to investigate prostatic disease?

A

rectal palpation
abdominal palpation
urinalysis and urine bacteriology
radiograph/ultrasound
prostatic wash and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the main diseases of the prostate?

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia
prostatits
abscessation
cysts
neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does is benign prostatic hyperplasia see in?

A

middle aged/old entire dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the main presenting sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

dyschezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does benign prostatic hyperplasia feel on a rectal exam?

A

symmetrically enlarged and pain-free prostate with homogenous consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is benign prostatic hyperplasia treated?

A

castration - resolves in days
antiandrogen injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what causes prostatitis?

A

ascending infection via the urethra (E. coli most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the clinical signs of prostatitis (abscessation)?

A

dyschezia, dysuria, pelvic limb stiffness, anorexia, lethargy. pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does prostatitis feel on rectal palpation?

A

painful asymmetrically enlarged prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is prostatitis (abscessation) treated?

A

long course antimicrobials (4-6 weeks)
castration
ultrasound guided drainage (risk of relapse)
partial prostatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the antibiotics used for prostatitis (abscessation)?

A

fluroquinolones
TMPS (trimethoprim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the difference between a prostatic and paraprostatic cyst?

A

prostatic cyst develops inside the capsule of the prostate
paraprostatic cysts attach to the capsule of the prostate but don’t communicate with the parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how are prostatic/paraprostatic cysts treated?

A

ultrasound guided drainage
surgical resection and omentalisation
castration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the clinical signs of prostatic/paraprostatic cysts?

A

caudal abdominal mass, abdominal distention, urinary incontinence, dysuria, urine retention, dyschezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most common prostatic neoplasia?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the clinical signs of prostatic neoplasia?

A

dysuria, haematuria, urinary retention, tenesmus, weight loss, lethargy, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how can prostatic neoplasia differ from other causes of prostatic enlargement when imaged?

A

mineralisation may be present with neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are som possible treatments for prostatic neoplasia?

A

usually palliative care
cystotomy tube or urethral stent
analgesia - NSAIDs
radiation therapy
castration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how often do prostatic neoplasms metastasise?

A

very common - lungs, lymph nodes, bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the indications for castration?

A

population control
behavioural benefits
prevent androgen related disease
testicular disease - neoplasia, trauma, abscess…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

when are testes normally descended in dogs?

A

by 40 days after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how old should a dog be before diagnosing cryptorchidism?

A

at least 6 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how is a cryptorchid testicle found if it isnt palpable?

A

exploratory coeliotomy - retroflex bladder and identify ductus deferens, following this will lead to the testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the three types of testicular neoplasia?

A

interstitial cell (leydig)
Sertoli cell tumours
seminoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the clinical signs of Sertoli cell tumours?

A

symmetrical alopecia, prostatic enlargment, pendulous prepuce, penile atrophy, gynecomastia, attraction for other males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which testicular neoplasia is rarely metastatic?

A

leydig cell tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is phimosis?

A

inability to protrude the penis from the prepuce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is a common complication of phimosis?

A

infection/irritation due to urine pooling in the prepuce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what can cause phimosis?

A

infectious, trauma, neoplasia
congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is paraphimosis?

A

inability to retract penis into prepuce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how can paraphimosis be treated medically?

A

lubricant, hyperosmolar solutions, cold packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what can cause paraphimosis?

A

mating
trauma
neoplasia
foreign body
congenital

39
Q

what can cause paraphimosis?

A

mating
trauma
neoplasia
foreign body
congenital

40
Q

how can paraphimosis be treated surgically?

A

enlargement of preputial opening
partial penile amputation
phallopexy (fix penis in prepuce)

41
Q

what are the indications for ovariohysterectomy?

A

eliminate unwanted pregnancy
eliminate inconvineunce of oestrus
decreased risk of mammary neoplasia
treat/prevent - pyometra, metritis, neoplasia, prolapse…

42
Q

what are the advantages of ovariohysterectomy before the first season?

A

reduce risk of mammary neoplasia
less haemorrhage (smaller vessels)
reduced inconvenience to owner

43
Q

what are the disadvantages of ovariohysterectomy before the first season?

A

anaesthesia risk
juvenile behaviour
juvenile hypoplasitc vulva
juvenile disease
obesity

44
Q

what are some contraindications for ovariohysterectomy before the first season?

A

juvenile vaginitis
juvenile urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence

45
Q

when is the best time to perform elective ovariohysterectomy?

A

between seasons (anaestrus)
>6-8 weeks postpartum
combined with C-section

46
Q

why should you not perform ovariohysterectomy when a bitch is in season?

A

increase size of uterine vessels (haemorrhage)
uterine turgidity (more fragile)

47
Q

what phase of the oestrus cycle does cystic endometrial hyperplasia occur?

A

luteal

48
Q

why is cystic endometrial hyperplasia and pyometra seen during the luteal phase?

A

progesterone stimulates growth/activity of endometrial glands, reduces myometrial activity and suppresses local immune response

49
Q

what is the most common pathogen associated with pyometra?

A

E. coli (Pasteurella, Pseudomonas, Klebsiella…)

50
Q

what are the clinical signs of pyometra?

A

PUPD, lethargy, inappetence, vomiting, pyrexia, dehydration, abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, gait abnormalities

51
Q

what are some possible changes on haematology of a dog with pyometra?

A

anaemia
left shift
banded neutrophilia
low platelet numbers

52
Q

what is the first thing to do when presented with a pyometra?

A

stabilise and give antimicrobials

53
Q

what is the only time medical management would be considered for pyometra treatment?

A

if bitch is of high breeding value (high risk of reoccurrence)

54
Q

how can pyometra be managed medically?

A

uterine emptying - prostaglandins, progesterone receptor antagonists
antimicrobials

55
Q

what progesterone receptor antagonist can be used to treat pyometra medically?

A

aglepristone

56
Q

what must be present for a uterine stump pyometra to occur?

A

progesterone source

57
Q

what is the main clinical sign of ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

signs of recurrent oestrus

58
Q

what are the risk factors that predispose to uterine stump granuloma?

A

poor aseptic technique
use of non-absorbable suture material
if excessive uterine body is left in situ

59
Q

what is the main clinical sign of a fistulae associated with using inappropriate suture material for an ovariohysterectomy?

A

draining tracts on flank, inguinal region or medial thigh

60
Q

what causes vaginal hyperplasia?

A

oedematous enlargement of vagina during proestrus/oestrus under the influence of oestrogen

61
Q

where does oedema of vaginal hyperplasia usually arise from?

A

ventral floor of vagina

62
Q

how is a vaginal prolapse treated?

A

prevent self trauma
apply lubricant
reduce and apply purse string suture

63
Q

what is an episiotomy?

A

incision between vulva and anus

64
Q

what are the indications of an episiotomy?

A

surgical exploration of vagina
excise vaginal mass
repair vaginal lacerations
treat strictures/congenital defects
facilitate manual foetal extraction

65
Q

what should always be placed before performing an episiotomy?

A

urinary catheter (can visualise the urethral opening and stay away from it)

66
Q

what is episioplasty?

A

reconstructive procedure to remove excess skin folds around the vulva

67
Q

what are some possible ovarian neoplasms seen in dogs?

A

germ cell - teratoma, teratocarcinoma
epithelial - adenoma, adenocarcinoma
sex cord stromal - granulosa cell tumours

68
Q

what are some possible uterine neoplasm seen in dogs?

A

leiomyomas
leiomyosarcomas

69
Q

what are the most common neoplasms seen in entire female dogs?

A

mammary tumours

70
Q

how many pairs of mammary gland do dogs have?

A

5

71
Q

which lymph nodes drain the mammary glands?

A

inguinal, sublumbar, axillary, prescapular, thoracic

72
Q

what supplies blood to the mammary glands?

A

cranial/caudal epigastric

73
Q

what are the possible surgical treatments for mammary neoplasia?

A

lumpectomy
simple mastectomy
regional mastectomy
chain mastectomy

74
Q

what is the surgical treatment used for mammary neoplasia in cats?

A

chain mastectomy (aggressive and metastatic in cats)

75
Q

what nerve mainly controls the bladder filling/storage phase?

A

hypogastric

76
Q

what receptors are triggered to cause the detrusor muscle to relax?

A

beta-adrenoreceptors

77
Q

what receptors are triggered to cause the urethral smooth muscle and trigone to contract?

A

alpha-adrenoreceptors

78
Q

what nerve allows for somatic (voluntary control) of the bladder filling/storage phase?

A

pudendal

79
Q

what nerve controls the bladder emptying phase?

A

pelvic nerve (parasympathetic system)

80
Q

what are typical findings of an abnormality associated with the bladder filling phase?

A

patients can urinate normally
patients can empty bladder normally
patients dribble urine between urinations
patients have reduced bladder capacity

81
Q

what are the differential diagnoses for abnormalities associated with the filling phase of the bladder?

A

ectopic ureter
reduced pressure at the bladder neck
involuntary contractions

82
Q

what can cause reduced pressure at the neck of the bladder leading to urinary incontinence?

A

congenital/acquired urinary sphincter mechanism incontinence
intrapelvic/hypoplastic bladder
bladder neck mass

83
Q

what can cause involuntary contractions of the bladder?

A

bacterial infection
cystic calculus
drugs
FeLV
bladder neck neoplasm

84
Q

what are the typical signs of an abnormality associated with the emptying phase of the bladder?

A

distended bladder
constant urine dribble
no normal urination

85
Q

what are some differentials for abnormalities of the bladder emptying phase?

A

partial/complete urethral obstruction
chronic bladder distention
dyssynergia (muscular disturbance)

86
Q

when does incontinence usually occur with urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence?

A

when bitch is relaxed (sleeping…)

87
Q

what are some causes of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence?

A

low urethral tone
spayed prior to first season (hormonal)
obesity
intrapelvic bladder

88
Q

what animals is congenital urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence seen in?

A

juvenile bitches prior to their first season

89
Q

how is congenital urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence treated?

A

wait until first season - most resolve after this

90
Q

what can be done to medically treat urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence?

A

increase muscle tone - phenylprpanolamine, ephedrine, estriol
reduce contributing factors - obesity, UTI

91
Q

what are possible options for surgical treatment of urethral sphincter mechanism incontinence?

A

colposuspension (relocate bladder neck cranially)
urethropexy
artificial urethral sphincter
submucosal urethral injections of blocking agents

92
Q

what are ectopic ureters?

A

congentital abnormality when ureter bypasses the bladder to empty into urethra, vagina or rectum

93
Q

how are surgical ureters treated?

A

treat associated UTI
surgery before irreversible secondary changes occur

Small animal (fourth year) (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions