Small Ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organisms is known to be a blood sucker of the abomasum in sheep and goats?

  • Fasciola gigantica
  • Ostertagia ostertagii
  • Strongyloides spp
  • Haemonchus contortus
A

Answer: Haemonchus contortus

Explanation
The correct answer is Haemonchus contortus.
Ostertagia is not considered a blood sucker; instead this organism invades the abomasal wall.

Strongyloides spp are intestinal threadworms that migrate to the intestines by first penetrating the oral mucosa or the skin, entering the bloodstream, and then heading for the heart. Afterward, they travel to the lungs and trachea, where they are swallowed and enter the intestines. Fasciola gigantica is a liver fluke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A farmer comes to you because many of his sheep are dying acutely. You perform a necropsy which shows dark blue, hemoglobin filled kidneys. This is most consistent with what condition of sheep?

  • Iron deficiency
  • Leptospirosis
  • Urea toxicity
  • Copper toxicity
A

Answer: Copper toxicity

Explanation
The correct answer is copper toxicity. Sheep are highly susceptible to copper toxicity. Because this causes an acute hemolytic crisis, the most common signs are acute death, icterus, depression, hemoglobinuria, increased respiratory rate, and weakness. Pathology often shows dark, hemoglobin filled kidneys (“gun metal blue”). Goats and cattle are less susceptible to copper toxicity.

***PowerLecture: Nutritional Management and Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Several members of a recently shorn flock of sheep have developed abscesses in the mandibular, prescapular, parotid, and prefemoral lymph nodes. You lance an abscess and obtain some of the thick, white to greenish pus for culture. After growing on an agar plate for 48 hours you note that there are several small whitish-to-opaque colonies which can be easily pushed across the plate like a hockey puck. What is your diagnosis?

  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus ovis
  • Corynebacterium pyogenes
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
A

Answer: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Explanation
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes caseous lymphadenitis in sheep and goats. The clinical signs and culture results are classic for C. pseudotuberculosis (especially the hockey puck feature).

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

***PowerLecture: Caseous Lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Many young (<9 months) rams in a herd develop swelling and edema around the head and neck. There is a serohemorrhagic exudate and local tissue necrosis. What is the most likely cause?

  • Clostridium novyi type A
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium bovis
  • Clostridium chauvoei
A

Answer: Clostridium novyi type A

Explanation
The correct answer is Clostridium novyi type A. Cl novyi type B causes Black disease, a liver disorder, in sheep.

Type C is usually nonpathogenic. Type D is also called Cl hemolyticum and causes redwater (bacillary hemoglobinuria) in cattle and sheep.

This is a description of bighead, a disease in young rams where the clostridial organism, which is present in soil and feces, enters through wounds received from head butting and causes the signs described.

Treatment is generally debridement, disinfection, and penicillin.

***PowerPage: Clostridial Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infection of the pregnant ewe with what virus can result in lambs that have dark and hairy fleece around the head and shoulder that grow poorly and tremor?

  • Bluetongue virus
  • Akabane virus
  • Cache Valley Virus
  • Border disease virus
A

Answer: Border disease virus

Explanation
The correct answer is border disease virus. Ewes infected during gestation can have lambs that are aborted, macerated, or mummified but surviving ones may exhibit the “hairy shaker” syndrome described due to infection of hair follicles and the cerebellum. The other viruses listed can cause abortions but cause different signs in the lambs. Bluetongue can cause hydranencephaly. Akabane can cause dystocia and arthrogryposis.

Cache Valley virus can cause brachygnathia, hydranencephaly, microencephaly, and spinal cord hypoplasia.

***PowerPage: Border Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You are called to a goat dairy in Mississippi and asked to perform a postmortem on several 3- to 5-month old kids, which are pale. You note that the abomasum contains many Haemonchus contortus. Other animals of various ages appear anemic (pale, rapid HR, and weak). The owner has been treating all her goats with fenbendazole at two-month intervals for several years now. What is the explanation for this anemia likely to be?

  • Hypobiotic larvae
  • Resistant parasites
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Copper deficiency anemia
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
A

Answer: Resistant parasites

Explanation
Haemonchus is a blood sucker and causes anemia. Haemonchus, Ostertagia, and some other trichostrongyles can become resistant to anthelmintics. In addition, some anthelmintics are not as effective against hypobiotic larvae. You should recommend several management changes and use a new anthelmintic such as ivermectin.

**PowerPage: Caprine Intestinal Worms
**
PowerLecture: Intestinal Worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the cause of grass tetany in goats?

  • Magnesium toxicity
  • Calcium deficiency
  • Copper deficiency
  • Mycotoxins
  • Magnesium deficiency
A

Answer: Magnesium deficiency

Explanation
The correct answer is magnesium deficiency. Magnesium is important for nervous system function and many enzymatic reactions. The skeletal reserves of magnesium are much smaller than the calcium reserve.
Magnesium deficiency leads to grass tetany. Magnesium toxicity is rare. Grass tetany usually occurs in lactating animals in the early spring on pastures that are well-fertilized with nitrogen and potassium, because high levels of these inhibit magnesium absorption from the Gl tract. Copper deficiency causes enzootic ataxia. If you chose mycotoxins, you were probably thinking of grass staggers, which is a different disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What species are primarily affected by both internal and external caseous lymphadenitis, a manifestation of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?

  • Goats and pigs
  • Pigs and horses
  • Cows and sheep
  • Sheep and goats
  • Horses and cows
A

Answer: Sheep and goats

Explanation
The cutaneous abscesses caused by this organism also affect cattle. Horses experience pectoral abscesses, internal abscesses, and other sites, as well ulcerative lymphangitis (also caused by C. pseudotuberculosis) of the limbs.

***PowerLecture: Caseous Lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bluetongue will affect primarily which species with clinical signs of illness?

  • Goats
  • Cows
  • Horses
  • Sheep
  • Pigs
A

Answer: Sheep

Explanation
The correct answer is sheep. Cattle may suffer reproductive losses, but they rarely show clinical signs of the systemic disease. Culicoides gnats vector bluetongue virus. Bluetongue is in the Reoviridae family. In sheep, the virus causes vasculitis and leakage of serum resulting in initial signs that include fever, edema of the face, muzzle, lips, and ears, and respiratory difficulty. Ptyalism and hyperemia will also be present. You can expect to see large amounts of mucopurulent nasal discharge. The tongue might be cyanotic (hence the name of the disease). Oral lesions will be present that will progress to ulcers and thus need to be differentiated from other ulcer producing diseases such as foot-and-mouth disease. Pulmonary edema and lameness are also often present. Bluetongue also causes teratogenic and reproductive effects both in sheep and cattle. If you see a picture of a stillborn or weak calf with “white eye calf syndrome” it is possibly a result of being infected with bluetongue. These calves have white eyes because they are born with congenital cataracts.

***PowerLecture: Blue Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following disorders of goats can be controlled by genetic testing?

  • Beta mannosidosis
  • Penile papillomas
  • Scrapie
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
A

Answer: Beta mannosidosis

Explanation
Beta mannosidosis is a disorder of Anglo-Nubian goats that causes fatal neurological symptoms in newborns and is an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance.

Scrapie is a prion-cused disorder. In sheep, scrapie can be controlled by genetic testing to eliminate the susceptible animals. To date that is not possible with goats. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a bacterial disease known as boils. Papillomas are viral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the most common etiological agents of contagious footrot in sheep?

  • Prevotella melaninogenicus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Dermatophilus congolensis and Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Trueperella pyogenes and Dichelobacter nodosus
  • Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
A

Answer: Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum

Explanation
Remember, these pathogens are highly contagious in sheep. As with cattle, the lesion will be in the interdigital space.

Trueperella pyogenes (formerly Arcanobacterium pyogenes) may cause footrot in cattle.

Prevotella melaninogenicus is one of the main causes of footrot in cattle, along with Fusobacterium necrophorum.

Dermatophilus congolensis is responsible for strawberry footrot in sheep. 10% zinc sulfate foot baths can be used to treat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lameness in sheep and goats due to infectious footrot is associated with wet conditions. What microorganism is considered essential for the disease to occur?

  • Brucella ovis
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Dichelobacter nodosus
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
A

Answer: Dichelobacter nodosus

Explanation
Formerly called Bacteroides nodosus, this organism is the key to diagnosing infectious (contagious) footrot.
Fusobacterium necrophorum is also often present as a secondary invader in cases of footrot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A male goat presents for vocalizing and straining to urinate. He has been kicking at his abdomen. You detect crystals adherent to the hairs around the prepuce (see image). What condition should you suspect and try to rule out first?

  • Lower intestinal obstruction
  • Urinary tract obstruction
  • Acute severe pyelonephritis
  • Upper intestinal obstruction
A

Answer: Urinary tract obstruction

Explanation
The correct answer is urinary tract obstruction due to calculi. This should be suspected in all male and castrated male goats (and sheep) with non-specific signs of disease or discomfort because it is so common. Common clinical signs associated with urinary tract obstruction are vocalization and dribbling of urine. Heaving or forceful abdominal contractions may be seen. Hematuria, dysuria, prolonged urination, and apparent abdominal pain are also common signs. The most important step of evaluation is exteriorization of the penis and examination of the urethral process because this is the most common site of blockage. In severe cases the entire urethra may be filled with calculi.

***PowerLecture: Urolithiasis In Ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Several young sheep (3-4 months old) in a flock are showing signs of depression, head pressing, opisthotonos, diarrhea and blindness. As you investigate this problem, you realize that the farmer has been mistakenly feeding them horse feed. What disease do the sheep most likely have?

  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Brain abscesses
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
  • Listeriosis
A

Answer: Polioencephalomalacia

Explanation
The correct answer is polioencephalomalacia (thiamine deficiency). This most commonly occurs in lambs being fed diets that are high in concentrates or molasses such as horse feed. This occurs because in normal lambs, ruminal bacteria produce sufficient thiamine to meet their requirements. Excess feeding of concentrates leads to ruminal acidosis, decreases the population of thiamine-producing bacteria, and increases production and activity of ruminal thiaminase. Other causes of polioencephalomalacia are bracken fern ingestion due to thiaminase in the plant, overdose of amprolium which is a thiamine analog, and high dietary sulfate.

Clinical signs include cortical blindness, head pressing, and incoordination progressing to recumbency, opisthotonos and convulsions. Treatment is with thiamine replacement. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical signs and necropsy findings, but blood thiamine levels and erythrocyte transketolase activity can be measured.

Classic necropsy lesions are a soft, edematous cerebral cortex with gray-yellow discoloration and flattened gyri.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A farmer complains to you that many of his sheep have been doing poorly. You visit his flock and find many listless, emaciated adult sheep that are dyspneic and tachypneic. The sheep have normal temperatures, appetites, and no adventitious lung sounds. What is your top differential?

  • Oestrus ovis infestation
  • Ovine Progressive Pneumonia
  • Pasteurella pneumonia
  • Chlamydia psittaci pneumonia
A

Answer: Ovine Progressive Pneumonia

Explanation
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia is caused by a lentivirus, also known as Maedi-Visna virus. This generally causes a chronic, progressive condition, and affected sheep tend to be afebrile and maintain their appetites as long as they do not develop secondary bacterial pneumonia. This is in contrast to Pasteurella pneumonia, which tends to be much more acute. Clinical signs of Oestrus ovis tend to be more confined to the nares. Chlamydial pneumonia is rare in sheep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following organisms is known to be a blood sucker of the abomasum in sheep and goats?

  • Haemonchus contortus
  • Strongyloides spp
  • Fasciola gigantica
  • Ostertagia ostertagii
A

Answer: Haemonchus contortus

Explanation
The correct answer is Haemonchus contortus. Ostertagia is not considered a blood sucker; instead this organism invades the abomasal wall. Strongyloides spp are intestinal threadworms that migrate to the intestines by first penetrating the oral mucosa or the skin, entering the bloodstream, and then heading for the heart. Afterward, they travel to the lungs and trachea, where they are swallowed and enter the intestines. Fasciola gigantica is a liver fluke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An adult sheep presents with clinical signs of shaking its head, rubbing its nose, and stomping its feet. It has mucopurulent nasal discharge, stridor, and is sneezing. What insect is most likely responsible for this sheep’s signs?

  • Simulium
  • Culicoides
    -Melophagus ovinus
  • Oestrus ovis
  • Tabanus
A

Answer: Oestrus ovis

Explanation
The correct answer is Oestrus ovis. This fly deposits larvae in the nostrils of the sheep using its ovipositor. The larvae migrate up the nasal passage into the dorsal turbinates and sinuses where they develop for weeks before coming out. Excessive infestations result in clinical signs and may elicit a hypersensitivity reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious abortion in sheep in North America?

  • Leptospira
  • Bluetongue virus
  • Campylobacter
  • Coxiella
  • Brucella
A

Answer: Campylobacter

Explanation
Campylobacter infection (or vibriosis) is the most significant cause of abortion in sheep in North America. C. jejuni is the most common and C. fetus is the other main cause of abortion. Other common causes are Toxoplasma and Chlamydia psittaci. Bluetongue is much less common. Brucella ovis rarely causes abortion in sheep although it does cause epididymitis. Sheep are not very susceptible to abortion from leptospirosis. Q fever, or Coxiella burnetii, is an uncommon cause of abortion and is more of concern due to zoonotic potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A goat dairy is experiencing diarrhea 2 to 3 weeks after weaning at 6 weeks of age. You find numerous Eimeria oocysts in the feces. In addition to improving sanitation in the kid pens and decreasing exposure to Eimeria, which of the following can also be recommended?

  • Feed coccidiostat preventative to kids starting at weaning
  • Treat all kids at weaning with tetracyclines for 5 days
  • Treat all kids for 5 days with Ivermectin at weaning
  • Vaccinate against Eimeria caprina
A

Answer: Feed coccidiostat preventative to kids starting at weaning

Explanation
Amprolium and other preventive drugs can be effectively used to suppress clinical coccidiosis. There is no vaccine.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A farmer complains to you that many of his sheep have been doing poorly. You visit his flock and find many listless, emaciated adult sheep that are dyspneic and tachypneic. The sheep have normal temperatures, appetites, and no adventitious lung sounds. What is your top differential?

  • Ovine Progressive Pneumonia
  • Chlamydia psittaci pneumonia
  • Oestrus ovis infestation
  • Pasteurella pneumonia
A

Answer: Ovine Progressive Pneumonia

Explanation
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia is caused by a lentivirus, also known as Maedi-Visna virus. This generally causes a chronic, progressive condition, and affected sheep tend to be afebrile and maintain their appetites as long as they do not develop secondary bacterial pneumonia.

This is in contrast to Pasteurella pneumonia, which tends to be much more acute. Clinical signs of Oestrus ovis tend to be more confined to the nares.

Chlamydial pneumonia is rare in sheep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 3-year old Nubian male goat presents with a history of breaking into a bag of grain meant for horses. What disease process are you concerned about?

  • Rumen acidosis (grain overload)
  • Acute hypocalcemia
  • Rumen alkalosis
  • Abomasal impaction
A

Answer: Rumen acidosis (grain overload)

Explanation
The correct answer is acute rumen acidosis. Excessive consumption of grain or other readily fermentable carbohydrate will lead to replication of Streptococcus bovis and other gram positive bacteria in the rumen at first, lowering the rumen pH precipitously to below 4.5 and causing an increase in lactic acid. Lactobacilli will subsequently multiply due to the favorable conditions created. The goat cannot metabolize the D-lactic acid made by bacteria (mammals can only process L -Lactic acid which they produce themselves), and a systemic lactic acidosis results. Clinical signs include rapid HR, depression, anorexia, fluid-filled rumen, scleral injection, staggering, diarrhea after 24 hours, and damage to rumen mucosa.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of these routes are likely methods of transmission of Mycoplasma pneumonia in goats?

  • Venereally and via insect vector
  • Transmammary and aerosol
  • Transplacental and fecal-oral
  • Via blood transfusion and urine contamination
A

Answer: Transmammary and aerosol

Explanation
The correct answer is transmammary and aerosol. In goats, Mycoplasma pneumonia is caused by the Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides ( large colony type) and M. capricolum. The organism is transmitted orally to kids through contaminated milk or colostrum. In adults, it is thought to be transmitted through the external auditory meatus or direct inhalation. The incubation period is approximately 6-10 days but can be up to several weeks. Affected animals will typically show signs of respiratory disease (fibrinous pneumonia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Several kid goats age 10 to 12 weeks on a large goat dairy have developed high fevers, swollen and painful joints, and respiratory signs including tachypnea and dyspnea. One has died, and a post mortem exam reveals fibrinopurulent polyarthritis and interstitial pneumonia. Which is the agent most likely to be the cause of this outbreak?

  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Trueperella pyogenes (formerly Arcanobacterium pyogenes)
  • Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides
  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Mannheimia hemolytica
A

Answer: Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides

Explanation
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides of the large-colony (LC) type is responsible for major problems in the US goat population. It can also cause acute septicemia and CNS signs in kids. Carrier goats maintain the infection in a herd, where it is transmitted to kids through milk or colostrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A sheep presents to you with a history of rubbing its wool raw in areas along the lumbar regions. The sheep has had substantial weight loss in the past few months and has become quite fractious. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Bacterial meningitis
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Rabies
  • Scrapie
A

Answer: Scrapie

Explanation
The correct answer is scrapie. Scrapie is an afebrile neurologic disease of sheep that is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic disease. It is one of the transmissible encephalopathies (like mad cow disease) caused by a prion. Clinical signs depend on the regions of the brain that are affected but usually include behavior changes including aggressiveness, failure to herd, unsteady gait, floppy ears, self-mutilation (pruritus), and in end stages, blindness, seizures, and an inability to swallow. Rabies is a differential for this sheep although clinical signs of rabies are usually more rapid in progression, with an ascending paralysis. However, aggression and any other neurologic signs can be seen with rabies. Bacterial meningitis in sheep is frequently associated with tail docking and presents as a progressive ascending paralysis. Neck pain is also frequently present. Clinical signs of listeriosis are usually loss of the ability to eat, dehydration, and often asymmetrical cranial nerve V or XII signs, including dropped jaw, loss of saliva, and dysphagia.

**PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases
**
PowerLecture: Scrapie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Several ewes in a large flock, all of which are in late gestation, have not been able to rise to the standing position. They are being fed good quality grass and alfalfa hay. It is December and the weather is cold. They have reduced feed intake and the most severely affected individuals appear blind and depressed. The physical exam is otherwise not very revealing except that all have significant ketonuria. Which of the following disorders is the most likely and must be ruled out?

  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Amsinckia toxicity
  • Liver flukes
  • Pregnancy toxemia
  • Type 2 ostertagiasis
A

Answer: Pregnancy toxemia

Explanation
Pregnancy toxemia is the result of multiple fetuses and insufficient energy intake in late gestation. Cold weather increases energy needs and often precipitates this disorder. Being overweight initially seems to make this disorder more likely. Affected ewes often have low calcium and potassium and high beta-hydroxybutyrate levels.

***PowerLecture: Reproductive Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A sheep presents in a sitting position with apparently normal forelimbs and hyperreflexia of the hind limbs. Where would you localize the lesion to?

  • Cerebrum
  • C6-2 myelopathy
  • L4-S3 myelopathy
  • T3-L3 myelopathy
  • Brainstem
A

Answer: T3-L3 myelopathy

Explanation
The correct answer is T3-L3 myelopathy. With a T3-L3 myelopathy, thoracic limbs would be normal because the nerve roots to the limbs emerge from the spinal cord cranial to the injury. Hyperreflexia to the pelvic limbs is an upper motor neuron sign indicating a lesion cranial to L4. A C6-2 myelopathy would cause lower motor neuron signs to the thoracic limbs. Cerebral and brainstem lesions would be unlikely to cause this type of lesion distribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A sheep presents to you for nasal discharge and face rubbing. You perform cytology on the copious discharge and note numerous eosinophils and mast cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Actinomyces sinusitis
  • Melophagus ovinus infestation
  • Oestrus ovis infestation
  • Enzootic nasal tumor
  • Sheep diphtheria (Fusobacterium necrophorum)
A

Answer: Oestrus ovis infestation

Explanation
The correct answer is Oestrus ovis infestation. Adult flies deposit larvae around the animals’ nostrils; the larvae then migrate up the nasal passages into the turbinates and sinuses. With time and multiplication of the larvae, hypersensitivity develops with the marked clinical signs of nasal discharge and face rubbing and shaking.

Secondary bacterial infection can occur. The discharge usually contains numerous eosinophils and mast cells, which confirms the diagnosis in this case. Further confirmation could be achieved with radiographs showing mineralized bots or with endoscopy, but this is not usually necessary.

Enzootic nasal tumor could have similar clinical signs but tends to cause more dyspnea and would not have the eosinophils and mast cells seen in the discharge.

Fusobacterium causes necrotic laryngitis in sheep when there is perforation to the mucous membranes. Clinical signs are more of coughing and dyspnea; there would not be nasal discharge.

Actinomyces pyogenes infection is also unlikely to cause nasal discharge and if it did, you would not observe eosinophils and mast cells in the discharge.

Treatment of Oestrus ovis is with ivermectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

You examine a herd of sheep and find that many sheep have proliferative, crusting lesions of the mucocutaneous junctions of the mouth and nose. They are otherwise relatively healthy, although some of the nursing females have similar lesions on their udders. The farmer reports that many of his sheep have had these before and that it eventually just goes away. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Foot-and-mouth disease
  • Bluetongue
  • Contagious ecthyma
A

Answer: Contagious ecthyma

Explanation
The correct answer is contagious ecthyma. FMD, VSV, and bluetongue cause vesicles and ulcers rather than proliferative, crusting lesions and usually will have other systemic signs as well; also, they are unlikely to recover spontaneously. Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic poxvirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most common site of obstruction in male goats with urolithiasis?

  • External urethral sphincter
  • Urethral process
  • Trigone
  • Internal urethral sphincter
A

Answer: Urethral process

Explanation
The correct answer is the urethral process. The most common sites of obstruction in male goats are the urethral process and the distal sigmoid flexure. This is because these regions are narrower intraluminally and are physically predisposed to getting calculi stuck. Other sites including the trigone, ureter, and renal pelvis can obstruct from stones but are less common sites. Even when this obstruction is removed, re-obstruction commonly occurs as more stones leave the bladder.

***PowerLecture: Urolithiasis In Ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gossypol toxicity in young ruminants can cause sudden death as result of a________

  • Coagulopathy
  • Cardiomyopathy
  • Neuropathy
  • Hepatopathy
A

Answer: Cardiomyopathy

Explanation
The correct answer is cardiomyopathy. Another possibly correct answer is hepatopathy, since gossypol also affects the liver. However, sudden death is most likely from cardiac toxicity and secondary pulmonary edema.

An example of a toxin causing a neuropathy would be organophosphates, metaldehyde, astragalus or oxytropis.

An example of a toxin causing a coagulopathy would be bracken fern or sweet clover. An example of a toxin causing a hepatopathy would be fiddleneck (amsinkia), senecio, or ragwort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A goat owner brings you an animal for a post mortem. The 2-year old goat was purchased as a one-year old and since kidding 3 months ago has lost most of its muscle mass, was weak, and was not lactating effectively. Another goat has started to show the same signs and the owner is concerned about it spreading to his other 90 dairy goats. On post mortem the only abnormalities you find are the bowel mucosa is thickened in the ileocecocolic area, and the mesenteric lymph nodes are dark and enlarged (see photo). What is your diagnosis?

  • Paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)
  • Salmonellosis
  • Caprine lymphoma
  • Chronic wasting disease
  • Mycoplasma mycoides
A

Answer: Paratuberculosis (Johne’s disease)

Explanation
Caused by Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis, this disease may not cause obvious diarrhea in goats, but the gut lesions result in loss of albumin into the gut, and weight loss can be rapid and marked. The granulomatous bowel looks thickened and the lymph nodes enlarged. The other answer choices do not typically result in the classic histopathological change.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

***PowerLecture Enteric Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A 3-day-old Suffolk male lamb presents in sternal recumbency with increasing abdominal distension and mild colic (see image). The lamb was bright and alert for the first 2 days of life but has since stopped suckling its dam. Clinical examination reveals that the lamb has no anus. What should you recommend?

  • Medical management with antibiotics and analgesics are necessary until the problem resolves
  • This is normal in lambs and will resolve within 1-2 weeks
  • Surgical correction is frequently successful
  • There is no effective treatment and the lamb should be euthanized
A

Answer: ** Surgical correction is frequently successful

Explanation
Atresia of the colon, rectum and anus can all occur congenitally. Often, the clinical sign first noted is progressive abdominal distension. In this case, atresia ani was detected on clinical exam but atresia of the colon or rectum may require radiography to diagnose. Surgical establishment of anal patency can be performed for atresia ani whereas a permanent colostomy may be required for atresia of the colon and rectum.

If surgical correction is attempted, the animal should probably be neutered because of the potential genetic basis for this condition. To perform the surgical correction, a slight bulge in the skin may be present where the anus should be located in lambs or ultrasound can be used to detect the fluid filled rectum. After surgical preparation and local anesthetic injection, an incision to remove the skin over the rectum should be made.

Dost-cureically antibiotice and either mineral oil DeS or stool coftenere chould he diven as needed if noccible Post-surgically, antibiotics and either mineral oil, DSS, or stool softeners should be given as needed. If possible, twice daily insertion of a thermometer to prevent stricture is preferred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A goat herd is suffering from mastitis in does and concurrent polyarthritis and pneumonia in goat kids. The kids range from several days old to weaning age and have one or more swollen joints which are hot to the touch. Affected kids are running high fevers and are unwilling to move. Mastitic does have firm udders and brownish watery milk with occasional garget. The does are also depressed and febrile. The owner has tried treating with several different antibiotics and has had no success. What is your top differential?

  • E. coli
  • Trueperella pyogenes (formerly Arcanobacterium pyogenes)
  • Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides
  • White muscle disease
A

Answer: Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides

Explanation
The correct answer is Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides. Many times, this is a typical presentation in goats.

All the other choices are not going to result in concurrent mastitis in does and polyarthritis and pneumonia in kids. This is usually a milk-borne disease that is introduced by asymptomatic carriers. The fact that the owner treated without success is a huge clue because Mycoplasma is not responsive to antibiotic therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most common cause of infectious abortion in sheep in North America?

  • Coxiella
  • Campylobacter
  • Leptospira
  • Bluetongue virus
  • Brucella
A

Answer: Campylobacter

Explanation
Campylobacter infection (or vibriosis) is the most significant cause of abortion in sheep in North America. C. jejuni is the most common and C. fetus is the other main cause of abortion. Other common causes are Toxoplasma and Chlamydia psittaci. Bluetongue is much less common. Brucella ovis rarely causes abortion in sheep although it does cause epididymitis. Sheep are not very susceptible to abortion from leptospirosis. Q fever, or Coxiella burnetii, is an uncommon cause of abortion and is more of concern due to zoonotic potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What developmental defect is seen in lambs born from ewes infected with bluetongue virus during pregnancy?

  • Hydranencephaly
  • Cerebellar hypoplasia
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Cyclopia
A

Answer: Hydranencephaly

Explanation
The correct answer is hydranencephaly. This abnormality is a condition in which the brain’s cerebral hemispheres are like swiss cheese or absent and replaced by sacs filled with cerebrospinal fluid. Ewes infected with bluetongue virus while pregnant can have lambs with this defect.

***PowerLecture: Blue Tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Breeding two individual sheep that are both carriers of hereditary chondrodysplasia, an autosomal recessive trait, will result in what percentage of the offspring being affected and demonstrating this trait?

  • 100%
  • 10%
  • 25%
  • 0%
  • 50%
A

Answer: 25%

Explanation
25% of the offspring will be affected, 50% will be carriers and 25% will be normal without carrying the trait.
Ovine hereditary chondrodysplasia (Spider Lamb Syndrome) is an example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Zelda has owned a goat farm and creamery for three months. The previous owner no longer had the time to invest in the business, and Zelda purchased the farm at well below market rate. She still has a job in the city as an accountant, but she would like for the creamery to eventually be her primary source of income. Zelda does not have any previous experience with goats, but she is excited about the venture and wants to ensure the goats are cared for appropriately.

She has formed a strong emotional bond with several of the goats. Recently Zelda has been noticing that some of her favorite goats have diarrhea and don’t seem to feel well. Dr. Harper confirms infection with Haemonchus contortus.

Several of the goats have high FAMACHA scores. Which of the following is the most appropriate option for educating the owner about genetic selection for Haemonchus resistance?

  • Dr. Harper tells Zelda that the goats are infected with an intestinal parasite, administers an anthelmintic to all of the goats with high FAMACHA scores, and decides that discussion of genetic selection and possible culling is not necessary since the owner has formed a strong bond with the goats.
  • Dr. Harper explains that the goats have an intestinal parasite called the barber pole worm, reviews the FAMACHA scale with the owner using non-technical language, and cautions the owner that culling may need to be considered for goats who repeatedly have high FAMACHA scores.
  • Dr. Harper tells Zelda that the goats are infected with the barber pole worm, administers an anthelmintic to all of the affected goats, assures the owner that the goats will be feeling much better soon, and mentions that sometimes genetic selection is used to improve herd health.
  • Dr. Harper explains that the goats are infected with Haemonchus contortus, tells the owner to administer an anthelmintic, advises the owner to research genetic selection for Haemonchus resistance, and recommends that the owner read a textbook and several journal articles regarding Haemonchus management.
A

Answer: Dr. Harper explains that the goats have an intestinal parasite called the barber pole worm, reviews the FAMACHA scale with the owner using non-technical language, and cautions the owner that culling may need to be considered for goats who repeatedly have high FAMACHA scores.

Explanation
Diagnosis, prognosis and treatment options should be communicated in clear, non-technical language that the owner can easily understand. Providing the owner with easy-to-understand information that is designed for use by non-experts, such as the FAMACHA scale, is recommended. The prognosis of an illness should not be over-or under-stated. Presenting a realistic picture of the prognosis regarding herd health is important. Assuring the owner that the goats will recover is inappropriate. Discussion of standard herd management options including culling should not be omitted from a discussion about herd health and management options, even when the owner has a strong bond with animals in a production setting. The use of highly technical medical terminology should also be avoided when communicating with clients. Use of clear, common language is recommended. It is best to select appropriate educational resources that reflect the knowledge level of the client. While recommending textbooks and journal articles to highly knowledgeable and experienced goat producers might be a reasonable step, this owner’s low experience and training level would benefit more from non-technical resources designed for lay people. Instructing an inexperienced owner to administer an anthelmintic with no further direction is not ideal.

Source: Handbook of Veterinary Communication Skills. Edited by Carol Gray and Jenny Moffett. Wiley-Blackwell, 2010. Pages 25-38.

38
Q

What is the cause of grass tetany in sheep?

  • Copper deficiency
  • Mycotoxins
  • Calcium deficiency
  • Magnesium deficiency
  • Magnesium toxicity
A

Answer: Magnesium deficiency

Explanation
The correct answer is magnesium deficiency. Magnesium is important for nervous system function and many enzymatic reactions. The skeletal reserves of magnesium are much smaller than the calcium reserve.
Magnesium deficiency leads to grass tetany. Magnesium toxicity is rare. Grass tetany usually occurs in the early spring on pastures that are well fertilized with nitrogen and potassium because high levels of these inhibit magnesium absorption from the Gl tract. Copper deficiency causes enzootic ataxia. If you chose mycotoxins, you may have been thinking of grass staggers, which is a different disease.

39
Q

What causes swayback in sheep and goats?

  • Iron deficiency
  • Magnesium toxicity
  • Copper deficiency
  • Magnesium deficiency
A

Answer: Copper deficiency

Explanation
The correct answer is copper deficiency. Copper deficiency can be primary (due to low copper intake) or secondary (due to high molybdenum, sulfur, iron, or other factors such as alkaline soil, high selenium, zinc, vitamin C, etc). Copper deficiency can cause a number of signs including microcytic anemia, decreased production, faded hair, heart failure, infertility, swollen joints, gastric ulcers, and diarrhea. The two diseases that are specific to copper deficiency are enzootic ataxia and swayback, which are seen in young lambs and kids and are caused by lack of myelination. Clinical signs of progressive ascending paralysis, incoordination, muscle atrophy and weakness are most common.

40
Q

A 7-year-old ewe presents with abscessation of the supramammary lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Trueperella pyogenes
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • E. coli
  • Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus
  • Mycoplasma mycoides
A

Answer: Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Explanation
The correct answer is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This is a description of caseous lymphadenitis. This disease of sheep and goats is of economic importance because it causes weight loss and ill thrift, can become a herd problem, and could be a public health concern.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

***PowerLecture: Caseous Lymphadenitis

41
Q

You have encountered white muscle disease in a large commercial flock of sheep, and wish to examine the selenium status of the flock. You decide to collect samples. What samples should be collected in order to accurately assess the selenium status of the flock?

  • Urine for 20 random sheep to determine
    glutathione peroxidase activity
  • Blood from 20 random sheep for creatine
    kinase levels
  • 20 random pasture samples for Selenium
    analysis
  • Serum from 20 random sheep to determine
    vitamin E levels
  • Whole blood from 20 random sheep to determine selenium levels
A

Answer: Whole blood from 20 random sheep to determine selenium levels

Explanation
Whole blood selenium is preferred over plasma or serum levels.

If animals fall below 0.05 ppm Se, most of the animals will benefit from Se supplementation.
Those with marginal Se (0.05 to 0.06 ppm) may sometimes also benefit, while those over 0.07 ppm are considered normal.

42
Q

There are many adult sheep in a flock that are experiencing chronic weight loss. Some have diarrhea and submandibular edema. You perform a necropsy on an affected sheep and find thickened, corrugated intestines around the ileum. You find numerous acid-fast rods when you stain an ileocecal lymph node. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Clostridium perfringens type D
  • Caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis)
  • Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis)
  • Cryptosporidium parvum
A

Answer: Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis)

Explanation
The correct answer is Johne’s disease (Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis). You should have been able to make this your answer without the help of the finding of acid-fast rods but that makes the answer a ‘slam dunk: Johne’s is typically a disease of chronic wasting, affecting animals 2 years and older.

Cryptosporidium and Clostridium perfringens are causes of diarrhea but tend to be more acute and in lambs. Cryptosporidium does also stain acid-fast but is not a rod and would not be found in a lymph node; it is usually seen in fecal smears.

**PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases
**
PowerLecture: Enteric Disease

43
Q

Every time an owner shears his sheep, 10% develop large abscesses in their lymph nodes several weeks or even months after shearing. What should the owner do to control/prevent this problem the next time he shears his sheep?

  • Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep
  • Pretreat all animals by dipping in a solution of dilute Betadine (an aqueous iodine compound) in a dip tank
  • Develop a closed flock in which all replacements come from within the flock
  • To eliminate carriers of the disease from the flock, treat all affected animals with long acting tetracycline when you lance the abscesses later
A

Answer: Disinfect shears before shearing and between shearing sheep

Explanation
The correct answer is to disinfect shears before beginning and between shearing sheep. The sheep are most likely being infected with caseous lymphadenitis (also commonly called boils) which is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This organism is highly contagious and commonly transmitted at shearing when nicks and cuts occur. When you lance these abscesses, make sure to clean up the area thoroughly and decontaminate everything to avoid spreading the disease. The rancher should also consider vaccination against caseous lymphadenitis. Dipping in Betadine would be prohibitively expensive and likely to stain the wool and be ineffective. Neither other choice is useful in controlling caseous lymphadenitis.

***PowerLecture: Caseous Lymphadenitis

44
Q

Pregnancy toxemia may occur in ewes and does in the last 2-4 weeks of gestation secondary to insufficient energy intake. Which of the following compounds is the body deficient in?

  • Acetone
  • B-hydroxybutyric acid
  • Acetoacetic acid
  • Oxaloacetate
A

Answer: Oxaloacetate

Explanation
During times of negative energy balance the body is unable to produce enough oxaloacetate to feed into the citric acid cycle. This results in mobilization of fat and subsequent production of ketones. The other answer choices are ketones.

45
Q

What causes enzootic ataxia in goats and sheep?

  • Magnesium deficiency
  • Copper deficiency
  • Iron deficiency
  • Neospora caninum
A

Answer: Copper deficiency

Explanation
Copper deficiency can be primary (due to low copper intake) or secondary (due to high molybdenum, sulfur, iron, selenium, zinc, or other factors which inhibit absorption and promote excretion of copper). Copper deficiency can cause a number of signs including microcytic anemia, decreased production, faded hair, heart failure, infertility, swollen joints, gastric ulcers, and diarrhea. The two neurologic diseases that are specific to copper deficiency are enzootic ataxia (seen in lambs 1 to 2 months old) and swayback (seen congenitally or in very young lambs and kids). Clinical signs of progressive ascending paralysis are incoordination, muscle atrophy, and weakness. Copper deficiency leads to less myelin formation and to demyelinization.

46
Q

The image shows a one-month old lamb from an unvaccinated commercial flock which is unable to stand and shows muscle spasms and rigidity when stimulated. The lamb was tail docked and castrated at 3 days of age using elastrator bands on the tail and scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Selenium deficiency and white muscle disease
  • Spina bifida
  • Cerebellar hypoplasia
  • Tetanus
  • Spastic syndrome
A

Answer: Tetanus

Explanation
Since the lamb was from an unvaccinated ewe and was neither given tetanus antitoxin nor vaccinated against tetanus, the compatible clinical signs make tetanus the most likely correct diagnosis.

47
Q

What are the most common etiological agents of contagious footrot in sheep?

  • Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Dermatophilus congolensis and Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Trueperella pyogenes and Dichelobacter nodosus
  • Prevotella melaninogenicus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
A

Answer: Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum

Explanation
Remember, these pathogens are highly contagious in sheep. As with cattle, the lesion will be in the interdigital space.

Trueperella pyogenes (formerly Arcanobacterium pyogenes) may cause footrot in cattle.

Prevotella melaninogenicus is one of the main causes of footrot in cattle, along with Fusobacterium necrophorum.

Dermatophilus congolensis is responsible for strawberry footrot in sheep. 10% zinc sulfate foot baths can be used to treat.

48
Q

Lameness in sheep and goats due to infectious footrot is associated with wet conditions. What microorganism is considered essential for the disease to occur?

  • Dichelobacter nodosus
  • Brucella ovis
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
A

Answer: Dichelobacter nodosus

Explanation
Formerly called Bacteroides nodosus, this organism is the key to diagnosing infectious (contagious) footrot.

Fusobacterium necrophorum is also often present as a secondary invader in cases of footrot.

49
Q

A 2-year old registered Suffolk sheep has developed weight loss, nervousness, and pruritus, resulting in loss of much of its wool (see image). It has recently developed ataxia and teeth grinding. On the basis of these clinical signs you make a tentative diagnosis of scrapie. If scrapie is confirmed, what is the best approach to managing the flock?

  • Treat affected animals for 2 weeks with IM tetracyclines
  • Use stem cell therapy to insert the PrP gene into affected animals and related animals
  • Use corrals and pastures where the affected animal had been only for lambs under a year of age for the next year
  • Cull positive animals and treat all others in the flock with immunostimulants
  • Cull positives and breed for resistant flock based on pedigree
A

Answer: Cull positives and breed for resistant flock based on pedigree

Explanation
Scrapie is a spongiform encephalopathy, caused by a prion. The PrP gene appears to play a role in susceptibility.

Using known pedigrees (breed only unaffected animals) or genetic testing, a resistant or less susceptible flock can be bred. Affected and related animals should be culled and destroyed, as the prion may otherwise spread the disease.

50
Q

It is September and many adult sheep in a California flock appear acutely ill. Two have just died, and the owner has brought them to your clinic for a post mortem exam. Both have swollen edematous ears and muzzle. You perform a post mortem on these two and note white streaks in the skeletal muscles, ecchymotic hemorrhages in the lymph nodes and spleen, and subendothelial hemorrhage at the base of the pulmonary artery. Based on these findings you tentatively diagnose what condition?

  • Contagious ecthyma
  • Bluetongue
  • Sheep pox
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
  • Foot-and-mouth disease
A

Answer: Bluetongue

Explanation
Bluetongue causes widespread multisystemic vasculitis. There may be lameness associated with Zenkers degeneration of skeletal muscles (those white streaks). Other signs also include edema of the ears and face, loss of oral mucosa, and hemorrhages in lymph nodes and the spleen.

***PowerLecture: Blue Tongue

51
Q

A 3-year old female goat is displaying signs of decreased activity with right sided ptosis and drooling. On examination, you notice a decreased palpebral reflex on the right side. The goat has a temperature of 104F (40 C). What is the most important and appropriate therapy for the goat’s suspected condition?

  • Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours
  • Administer Thiamine 10 mg/kg every six hours
  • Administer 1 mg of Selenium and 500 units of Vitamin E once and then add supplementation to the feed
  • Administer levamisole 8 mg/kg once
A

Answer: Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours

Explanation
The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs which are most typical of Listeriosis in goats in contrast to other common neurologic conditions such as Polioencephalomalacia (thiamine or Vitamin B1 deficiency). This infection is most common in goats fed silage (although that information was not provided in this question).

Thiamine administration would not be inappropriate but is not the most critical therapy for Listeriosis.
The signs in this goat are not suggestive of white muscle disease which is caused by selenium deficiency. They are also not suggestive of lungworms or roundworms which might be treated with levamisole.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

52
Q

Five goats on a ranch with 125 meat goats have developed large submandibular and prescapular abscesses. What is your first course of action?

  • Isolate affected animals
  • Call state officials
  • Begin antibiotics
  • Lance abscesses
A

Answer: Isolate affected animals

Explanation
The correct answer is isolate affected animals. These goats are likely to be infected with caseous lymphadenitis (caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis) which can potentially be a herd problem since it is contagious.

***PowerPage: Caprine Caseous Lymphadenitis

***PowerLecture: Caseous Lymphadenitis

53
Q

A farmer calls you to examine his sheep flock because several newborn lambs have been born with domed heads, short limbs, and thick trunks. They also exhibit tremors and have fine hairy wool. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

  • Infection with Border Disease virus
  • Mineral deficiency
  • Plant intoxication
    -Bacterial infection
  • Genetic disorder
A

Answer: Infection with Border Disease virus

Explanation
These signs are consistent with infection with Border Disease virus, a pestivirus transmitted from the ewe to the fetus when infected before 80 days gestation. Ewes infected during gestation can have lambs that are aborted, macerated, or mummified but surviving ones may exhibit the “hairy shaker” syndrome described due to infection of hair follicles and the cerebellum. Border disease virus is a close relative of BVD virus.

***PowerPage: Border Disease

54
Q

A 5-year old ewe presents as a result of isolating herself. She had just twinned two months ago and she is not vaccinated. On physical examination, she has an enlarged left half of the udder. It is cold, blue, and black (see image). Serosanguinous milk can easily be expressed, and it is foul-smelling. With treatment, what is the prognosis for sheep with this condition?

  • Excellent (over 90% of affected sheep recover fully)
  • Grave (over 80% of affected sheep die or are euthanized)
  • Good (over 80% of affected sheep will recover and have adequate function)
  • Fair (less than 50% of affected sheep die or are euthanized)
A

Answer: Grave (over 80% of affected sheep die or are euthanized)

Explanation
Gangrenous mastitis is caused by Mannheimia spp. and Staphylococcus aureus and occurs sporadically during the first 3 months of lactation. It is generally associated with poor milk supply related to ewe undernutrition and over vigorous suckling by the lambs.

Despite antibiotic and supportive therapy, the prognosis is grave, and gangrenous udder tissue eventually sloughs leaving a large granulating surface with superficial bacterial infection. The granulation tissue continues to proliferate over the coming months. These ewes are unsuitable for breeding stock. The infected granulation tissue and resultant drainage lymph node enlargement would result in carcass condemnation (and raise genuine welfare concerns). The fleece is very poor because growth has occurred during this period of illness.

Affected ewes should be euthanized for welfare reasons at first presentation.

Control measures include ensuring ewes are well fed. Concentrates should be supplied to ewes and lambs when pasture is poor. No ewe should be expected to rear triplets. Teat lesions should be identified and treated with topical antibiotics.

55
Q

Obstructive urolithiasis (see image of stones in bladder) is most likely to occur in which of the following animals?

  • Bull
  • Boar pig
  • Wether goat
  • Female goat (doe)
  • Cow
A

Answer: Wether goat

Explanation
Castration in young animals reduces the diameter of the urethra and goats tend to be prone to developing uroliths. Obstructive urolithiasis occurs most frequently in castrated pygmy goats, then next is castrated males of other breeds of goats. The signs of obstruction are repeatedly posturing to urinate, straining, and vocalizing.

Intact bulls and pigs rarely experience obstructive urolithiasis and females have a large enough diameter urethra to pass most stones.

56
Q

Absence of dorsal lung sounds with audible ventral lungs sounds in a goat with dyspnea, tachypnea and normal temperature would indicate which of the following conditions?

  • Mannheimia hemolytica bronchopneumonia
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Ovine progressive pneumonia
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pneumothorax and collapsed lung
A

Answer: Pneumothorax and collapsed lung

Explanation
The collapsed lung can still be heard ventrally, but the dorsal thorax is quiet and air-filled. With pneumothorax, air can enter the thorax through a damaged lung or through a chest wall injury.

57
Q

A farmer complains to you that many of his sheep have been doing poorly. You visit his flock and find many listless, emaciated adult sheep that are dyspneic and tachypneic. The sheep have normal temperatures, appetites, and no adventitious lung sounds. What is your top differential?

  • Ovine Progressive Pneumonia
  • Chlamydia psittaci pneumonia
  • Pasteurella pneumonia
  • Oestrus ovis infestation
A

Answer: Ovine Progressive Pneumonia

Explanation
Ovine Progressive Pneumonia is caused by a lentivirus, also known as Maedi-Visna virus. This generally causes a chronic, progressive condition, and affected sheep tend to be afebrile and maintain their appetites as long as they do not develop secondary bacterial pneumonia. This is in contrast to Pasteurella pneumonia, which tends to be much more acute. Clinical signs of Oestrus ovis tend to be more confined to the nares. Chlamydial pneumonia is rare in sheep.

58
Q

What is the usual route of transmission of Mycoplasma pneumonia in sheep?

  • Transmammary
  • Aerosol
  • Mites
    -Fomites such as hands and brushes
A

Answer: Aerosol

Explanation
The correct answer is aerosol. Mycoplasma pneumonia, also referred to as enzootic pneumonia or atypical pneumonia, is caused primarily by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae in sheep. It is usually spread from older animals to younger animals by the respiratory route (aerosol). Note that this route is in direct contrast to transmission in goats which have a different species of Mycoplasma (M. mycoides ssp mycoides) that is primarily spread in milk.

59
Q

You have encountered white muscle disease in a large commercial flock of sheep, and wish to examine the selenium status of the flock. You decide to collect samples. What samples should be collected in order to accurately assess the selenium status of the flock?

  • Whole blood from 20 random sheep to determine selenium levels
  • Urine for 20 random sheep to determine glutathione peroxidase activity
  • Blood from 20 random sheep for creatine kinase levels
  • 20 random pasture samples for Selenium analysis
  • Serum from 20 random sheep to determine vitamin E levels
A

Answer: Whole blood from 20 random sheep to determine selenium levels

Explanation
Whole blood selenium is preferred over plasma or serum levels.

If animals fall below 0.05 ppm Se, most of the animals will benefit from Se supplementation. Those with marginal Se (0.05 to 0.06 ppm) may sometimes also benefit, while those over 0.07 ppm are considered normal.

60
Q

Ingestion of bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum) causes which of these signs in sheep?

  • Hematuria
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Polyarthritis
  • Colitis
  • Atypical pneumonia
A

Answer: Hematuria

Explanation
The correct answer is hematuria. Enzootic hematuria in sheep and goats is caused by ingestion of bracken fern.

It causes a hemorrhagic cystitis that progresses to neoplastic changes of the cells within the bladder. It can be severe enough to cause anemia, exercise intolerance, loss of body condition, tachypnea, tachycardia, and pallor.

61
Q

A nine-month old La Mancha goat was noticed to be losing weight over the last week. The owner brought the goat in from pasture and fed the goat 2 pounds of grain mix twice daily along with free choice of hay and alfalfa. Last night, the goat was seen staggering and bumping into things. Vaccinations are current and no other goats appear to be affected. On physical exam, the goat was found to be blind, with an intact pupillary light reflex. The goat was also opisthotonic, hypertonic, hyperreflexic, and tetraplegic. Where is the lesion?

  • C1-C6
  • Cerebrum
  • Brain stem
  • Cerebellum
A

Answer: Cerebrum

Explanation
The correct answer is cerebrum. The history and clinical signs described are compatible with grain overload, which will result in polioencephalomalacia. This disease will cause destruction of the gray matter in the cerebrum.

62
Q

Q fever can be acquired by humans from sheep. In humans it can cause fever, headache, fatigue, premature delivery, or abortion. What organism causes Q fever?

  • Nipah virus
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • Coxiella burnetii
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica
  • Hendra virus
A

Answer: Coxiella burnetii

Explanation
C. burnetii is a small gram negative spore-forming intracellular bacterium.

63
Q

The owner of a large flock of goats in the volcanic NE corner of California brings you two 2-month old kids that have died last night. He tells you that about 8 to 10 have died recently, and the only signs he sees are weakness and stiffness in some of them. You perform a post mortem and find pale white streaks in bundles of skeletal muscle of the limbs and diaphragm. Which disease is this most likely to be?

  • Bluetongue
  • Sarcocystosis
  • Nutritional myodegeneration
  • Myotonia
  • Clostridial myopathy
A

Answer: Nutritional myodegeneration

Explanation
Also known as white muscle disease, nutritional myodegeneration is caused by selenium and vitamin E deficiency. This disorder can strike mainly the heart or skeletal muscles. It occurs where soils are low in selenium, such as volcanic soils, and where green forage is scarce and vitamin E levels are low. Prevention is by supplementing these substances.

64
Q

A 6-month old wether sheep has been straining to urinate. You find the animal to be non-febrile but to have a rapid heart rate and respiratory rate. Ultrasound demonstrates a distended urinary bladder. Using sedation, you find several small stones lodged in the urethral process as shown in the picture. What is the best next step to take?

  • Place a percutaneous Foley catheter in the urinary bladder
  • Amputate the urethral process and observe for urination
  • Pass a retrograde urinary tract catheter and flush the stones back into the bladder
  • Perform surgery and pass a catheter from the bladder down the urethra and flush out all stones
  • Give urinary acidifiers per os
A

Answer: Amputate the urethral process and observe for urination

Explanation
Some sheep will only have stones in the urethral process, as it tends to be the narrowest diameter in the urethra. But in many cases there are additional stones in the urethra and/or bladder, and the animal will re-block. At that point, more aggressive procedures are indicated.

***PowerLecture: Urolithiasis In Ruminants

65
Q

A farmer comes to you because many of his sheep are dying. After you examine several of his sheep, you find that many are tachypneic, icteric, depressed and have hemoglobinuria. You suspect that there may have been a feed mixing error. What mineral excess is most likely responsible for these signs?

  • Calcium
  • Sulfur
  • Iron
  • Magnesium
  • Copper
A

Answer: Copper

Explanation
The correct answer is copper. Sheep are highly susceptible to copper toxicity. Because this causes an acute hemolytic crisis, the most common signs are acute death, icterus, depression, hemoglobinuria, increased respiratory rate, and weakness. Pathology often shows dark, hemoglobin filled kidneys (“gun metal blue”). Goats and cattle are less susceptible to copper toxicity.

***PowerLecture: Nutritional Management and Diseases

66
Q

Several young goats under one year of age in a herd of 50 goats have scabby lesions around their mouths and noses, as shown in the photo. They also have low-grade fever and appear reluctant to eat hay, so they are falling behind the group. The owner is concerned because this condition appears to be spreading. You examine three affected kids and find that under the scabs is what appears to be proliferative granulation tissue. You advise the owner that the diagnosis is_______?

  • Foot-and-mouth disease
  • Bovine papular stomatitis
  • Contagious ecthyma
  • Malignant catarrhal fever
  • Pseudocowpox
A

Answer: Contagious Ecthyma

Explanation
Also known as orf or soremouth, this parapoxvirus disease is common in lambs and kids. Humans can also be affected. Rarely fatal, it nonetheless can make affected kids or lambs end up smaller than their age mates.

Lesions occasionally also occur on the teats of the dams. The scabs dry up in 2 to 4 weeks and fall off, with the virus overwintering in the scabs on the ground until more susceptible animals appear next year.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

67
Q

What is the usual treatment for a doe infected with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in the mammary gland?

  • Antibiotics
  • Frequent milking every 2 hours
  • Vaccinate affected animals against caseous lymphadenitis
  • Cull or isolate
A

Answer: Cull or isolate

Explanation
The correct answer is to cull or isolate, since this organism is able to survive in abscesses that can be walled off and inside macrophages, making it very difficult to treat. Staphylococcus aureus is also very difficult to treat, and many times the animals are culled when infected with this organism. A life-saving mastectomy may be performed in valuable animals.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

68
Q

A 1-year old pet wether sheep presents at your clinic with a complaint of restlessness, teeth grinding, vocalizing, stretching out, and straining. When you tickle the preputial opening, only a drop of urine appears. The wether has tachypnea and tachycardia, and is mildly bloated. When you palpate the abdomen externally using both hands, you detect a large turgid structure in the caudal abdomen; you diagnose urethral obstruction due to urolithiasis. You sedate the sheep and extrude the penis, where you find several stones in the urethral process and amputate it (see image of amputated process). The animal is still unable to urinate. What is the best treatment option for this pet now?

  • Xylazine and intravenous fluids
  • Perineal urethrostomy
  • Bladder marsupialization
  • Tube cystostomy
  • Penectomy
A

Answer: Tube cystotomy

Explanation
Using local anesthesia, a Foley catheter is inserted percutaneously into the bladder immediately in front of the pubis and sutured in place. This option allows the urine to drain, and the relief often allows the urethal stones to pass. After one or two weeks the animal may once again be able to urinate through the urethra, and the catheter can be removed. The stone type should be determined by analysis and a corrective dietary measure initiated. The other surgical treatments listed are less likely to have favorable long term outcomes and are considered salvage procedures; the other medical treatments would likely result in a ruptured bladder.

***PowerPage: Urethral Obstruction (Small Ruminants)

***PowerLecture: Urolithiasis In Ruminants

69
Q

Ulcerative posthitis (pizzle rot) in male sheep is usually associated with finding which of the following?

  • Urine leakage into the ventral abdominal tissues and sheath
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in ulcers on the sheath
  • Urethral rupture
  • Corynebacterium renale in ulcers on the sheath
  • Calcium-magnesium-phosphate stones in the urethral process
A

Answer: Corynebacterium renale in ulcers on the sheath

Explanation
Also called enzootic balanoposthitis or sheath rot, this condition is associated with feeds high in protein and urine with a high urea concentration which favors growth of Corynebacterium renale.

Corynebacterium renale is a gram-positive bacterium capable of hydrolyzing urea. High protein diets lead to urinary urea concentration increases. Hydrolysis of urea by the bacteria results in production of ammonia, which irritates the penis, prepuce, and skin surrounding the preputial orifice.
The vulva of flock mates may also be affected

***PowerPage: Ulcerative Posthitis

70
Q

You are asked to perform a post mortem examination on a 2-year old sheep recently moved to a feedlot after giving birth to twins in the early summer. The farmer noted no signs of illness prior to finding the sheep acutely dead in the morning. An image of the gross post-mortem finding is shown below. You note widespread necrosis of the small intestine with fetid smelling contents. No volvulus is seen. You evaluate the urine and find glucosuria. There is softening of the brain and kidney tissues. Which of the following management considerations should you look into?

  • Evaluate the density of the herd and other causes of stress
  • Evaluate pasture for toxic plants and the medication history of the flock
  • Evaluate vector control program and shearing protocols
  • Evaluate breeding soundness evaluation program and quarantine program for newly introduced sheep
  • Evaluate herd vaccination program and diet
A

Answer: Evaluate herd vaccination program and diet

Explanation
You should be suspicious of type D Clostridial enterotoxemia based on the acute mortality and necropsy lesions in the intestines. Additional findings consistent with enterotoxemia are the glucosuria and soft kidneys.

Enterotoxemia is sometimes referred to as overeating disease because of its association with changes in diet to concentrates or higher grain concentrations. It is also sometimes referred to as pulpy kidney disease because of the changes that occur to the kidneys.

Enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringens type D affects sheep and goats of all ages (from 1 week to several years of age).

A diagnosis of enterotoxemia is suggested when the sudden death of concentrate-fed animals that have not been vaccinated for Clostridium perfringens type D occurs.

In young animals, this commonly occurs after abundant nursing or grazing on improved pastures, high quality hays and/or concentrates/grains. In older animals as in this case, the disease corresponds with the finishing or feedlot period and is often associated with a high grain diet. Enterotoxemia is one of the most common causes of death in feeding lambs.
Prevention depends on vaccination against Clostridial toxoid and avoiding rapid changes in diet.

71
Q

A 6-month old lamb presents with a left-sided head tilt and spontaneous horizontal nystagmus with the fast phase directed towards the right side, and changes with the position of the head. Ventral strabismus is present on the left side and there is drooping of the left upper eyelid and left ear (see image). Which of the following is the most appropriate differential diagnosis list with most likely conditions listed first?

  • Listeriosis. Otitis media
  • Facial nerve neuritis, salt poisoning,
  • Brain tumor, Mycoplasma mycoides bacteremia
  • Rabies, polioencephalomalacia
A

Answer: Listeriosis. Otitis media

Explanation
Based on the presentation, there is a vestibular lesion as well as a facial nerve lesion. This can occur commonly with middle ear lesions or brainstem disease.

Unilateral peripheral vestibular lesions are commonly associated with otitis media and ascending bacterial infection via the eustachian tube. Sheep typically present with a head tilt towards the affected side. There may be evidence of otitis externa and purulent aural discharge in some cases, but rupture of the tympanic membrane is not a common route of infection. Pasteurella, Streptococcus, and Arcanobacterium have been isolated from infected lesions. Middle ear trauma can also occur. This is usually treated effectively with procaine penicillin if disease is recognized early.

Listerosis is a bacterial infection that may or may not be associated with ingestion of contaminated silage. It usually presents as a bacterial infection limited to one side of the brainstem and involving a few cranial nerves.

Affected sheep may have unilateral weakness, drooping ear and eyelid, and deviated muzzle. If recognized early, it can be effectively treated with antibiotics (penicillin).

This animal is young, making brain tumor unlikely. (It is also rare in ruminants).

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides is a problem of young goat kids, not lambs. The clinical signs are typically polyarthtitis rather than CNS.

Salt toxicity can develop in sheep if a high percentage of mineral supplement is used and water supply is limited. Signs include salivation, increased thirst, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, ataxia, blindness, and seizures.

Facial nerve neuritis (due to virus) is not recognized in sheep.

Rabies is usually associated with livestock exhibiting dysphagia, paresis, and paresthesia.

Polioencephalomalacia usually causes clinical signs that include star-gazing, blindness, and aimless wandering which is less consistent with the clinical description here. It is treated with high doses of thiamine.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

72
Q

What are the reservoirs of the African form and the N. American form of malignant catarrhal fever (Alcephaline herpesvirus 1 and Ovine herpesvirus 2 respectively)?

  • Horse and zebra
  • Pig and cattle
  • Gazelle and goat
  • Wildebeest and sheep
A

Answer: Wildebeest and sheep

Explanation
Wildebeest carry the African form and sheep carry the N. American form. This disease occurs sporadically in cattle but can occur as outbreaks. Bison are very susceptible, and bison herds in North America have experienced outbreaks. Clinical signs involve acute generalized arteritis which involves the mucosa of many systems, leading to diarrhea, thickened abnormal skin, cloudy corneas etc. In these cases, high fever, respiratory and gastrointestinal lesions can be expected. Marked lymphadenopathy is also observed. The African form will result in a higher mortality (AHV 1). Lambing sheep are thought to be a potential source of infection for cattle.

73
Q

Gastrointestinal parasites such as Hemonchus contortus are a major problem in sheep and goats unless carefully controlled. Relying on the use of anthelmintics at critical times is important. What is a major concern that you must be aware of in the use of anthelmintics to control Hemonchus?

  • Be sure to keep stocking rates per acre high so that larvae are quickly removed from the pasture
  • Anthelmintics are expensive and rarely yield a positive cost benefit
  • Toxicity of anthelmintics is high
  • Development of resistance
A

Answer: Development of resistance

Explanation
When used repeatedly, resistance to an anthelmintic can develop in a flock or herd. Thus use of additional strategies such as controlling pasture exposure to larvae in young susceptible animals and leaving refugia of anthelmintic susceptible Hemonchus become important.

74
Q

Several animals of a herd of silage fed goats are showing signs of circling, dysphagia, and unilateral dropped lip. On your examination, you also note a lack of a menace and palpebral reflex unilaterally in several of these animals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Rabies
  • Polioencephalomalacia
  • Listeriosis
  • Brain abscess
A

Answer: Listeriosis

Explanation
The correct answer is listeriosis. The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs.

Because Listeria infection is caused by an ascending infection, usually of the trigeminal nerve, the signs are frequently unilateral. The other big hint was that the animals were fed silage. Listeria is a common inhabitant of spoiled silage because it thrives in a microaerophilic, low pH environment.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

75
Q

There are five main gastrointestinal parasites of major importance in small ruminants, including Cooperia spp, Nematodirus spp, Trichostrongylus axei, and Telodorsagia circumcincta. Name the fifth and often most important Gl parasite of sheep and goats in moderate, warm, wet climates.

  • Dictyocaulus viviparus
  • Ostertagia ostertagi
  • Haemonchus contortus
  • Muellerius capillaris
  • Ascaris lumbricoides
A

Answer: Harmonchus contortus

Explanation
H. contortus is a blood sucker and causes anemia and hypoproteinemia. Young sheep and goats, pregnant or nursing females, and animals in a low plane of nutrition are most susceptible. Ostertagia is often an important Gl parasite of cattle.

***PowerLecture: Intestinal Worms (5:19)

76
Q

Many young (<9 months) rams in a herd develop swelling and edema around the head and neck. You diagnose bighead (Clostridium novyi Type A). What is the treatment?

  • No treatment is necessary, the disease is self-limiting
  • Vaccinate the affected animals against C. novyi
  • Cull or isolate affected animals
  • Wound debridement and penicillin
A

Answer: Wound debridement and Penicillin

Explanation
The correct answer is debridement and penicillin. Culling is unnecessary as Clostridium novyi is found in the soil and feces of healthy animals. Bighead is caused when it enters through wounds obtained during head butting activities. The disease can be fatal if untreated. The key to reducing the incidence of this disease is management to reduce head wounds and vaccination with multivalent clostridial toxoids.
For the PowerPage on this topic, view [Pr Clostridial Diseases

77
Q

You are asked to euthanize and perform a post mortem on a yearling sheep that the owner says had developed progressive exercise intolerance, rapid and noisy breathing, nasal discharge and nasal distortion. It has recently started open mouth breathing. On post mortem you find the soft nasal lesion shown in the image. What is your diagnosis?

  • Nasal abscess.
  • Oestrus ovis infestation
  • Nasal adenocarcinoma
  • Osteosarcoma.
  • Allergic rhinitis
A

Answer: Nasal adenocarcinoma

Explanation
The cause of this tumor of sheep and goats is the ovine nasal adenocarcinoma virus (ONAV) or caprine nasal adenocarcinoma virus (CNAV). The tumor is not metastatic but locally expansive and destructive as seen in the photo.

78
Q

What is the gestation length of a goat?

  • 200 days
  • 150 days
  • 100 days
  • 125 days
A

Explanation
The correct is answer is 150 days

79
Q

It is the January cool rainy season in northern California. A flock of ewes has lambed in the last 30 days and are feeding on lush grass pasture. Most ewes have twins. A number of ewes are reluctant to move, are standing with their heads down, and do not appear to be eating much. A few ewes have collapsed on their side developed clonic convulsions and tetany, and then died. Lambs appear unaffected. Which of the following disorders is most likely and must be ruled out?

  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Mycotoxicosis
  • Hypophosphatemia
  • Selenium deficiency
  • Molybdenosis (secondary copper deficiency)
A

Answer: Hypomagnesemia

Explanation
Also known as grass tetany and lactation tetany, hypomagnesemia occurs most commonly in lactating ewes, cows, and goats that are lactating heavily and taking in an insufficient daily intake of magnesium. Cool weather also seems to play a role by reducing plant Mg uptake. Ewes are often also hypocalcemic.

80
Q

A goat herd is diagnosed with Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides (caprine or large colony type). What should you tell the owner to do?

  • Treat with appropriate antibiotics
  • Only keep the kids and cull adults
  • Cull all culture-positive animals and affected kids.
  • Isolate all affected animals for six months
A

Answer: ** Cull all culture-positive animals and affected kids.**

Explanation
The correct answer is to culture milk from all does and cull positive-culture animals and affected kids. There is no effective therapy for Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides that can assure that all animals, even treated kids, will be disease-free and therefore not carriers after treatment. Thus, treatment is controversial and depends on the circumstances, herd size, and owner’s wishes.

Keeping the kids in the face of an outbreak is not recommended because they may become carriers.
Isolating for six months may not solve the problem because there may be carriers. If the owner wishes, kids can be treated, isolated, and raised on known Mycoplasma-free milk or milk replacer.

Side note: Mycoplasma mycoides small colony type is the cause of contagious bovine pleuropneumonia and is a reportable agent in the United States as it no longer exists in the USA (eradicated in 1892).

81
Q

While performing a physical exam on a ewe, you see a small ectoparasite. You are unsure if this is a sheep ked or a tick. What is an easy way to find out?

  • Count the legs
  • Sheep keds do not cause pruritus
  • Sheep keds have wings
  • Only ticks feed on blood
A

Answer: Count the legs

Explanation
The correct answer is count the legs. Ticks are arachnids with eight legs and sheep keds (Melophagus ovinus) have six legs. Sheep keds are wingless flies. The adults feed on blood. Clinical signs include pruritus, stained wool, and potentially anemia.

82
Q

A sheep farmer that you work with has had 5 four-to-five month old lambs die recently. They have glucosuria and decompose rapidly. You suspect Clostridium perfringens type D. Which of these steps would you recommend to try to prevent loss of more lambs?

  • Treat all lambs with a course of IM penicillin
  • Increase grain in diet
  • Vaccinate the dams
  • Vaccinate the lambs
A

Answer: Vaccinate the lambs

Explanation
The correct answer is to vaccinate the lambs twice with toxoid/bacterin at 4 week intervals. Because it will take time for this active immunity to work, you can also give Cl perfringens type D antitoxin at the time you administer the first vaccination.

Clostridial enterotoxemia in lambs is most frequently caused by Clostridium perfringens type D and affects lambs on rich feed.

Vaccinating the dam provides passive immunity for about 2 to 3 months. Decreasing the quality of pasture from rich clover, or decreasing the amount of grain and concentrate can also be effective but is sometimes not practical from a production standpoint.

83
Q

A valuable Merino ram which has been on a high protein diet is brought to you because it has scabs on the mucocutaneous junction of the prepuce that were only recently noticed. The owner checked him closely when the ram appeared to experience pain upon attempting to breed, and had become reluctant to breed. It is the only animal affected, and the lambs, ewes, and 2 other rams appear normal. When you examine the lesions, you find painful ulcers under the foul smelling scabs. What organism is the cause of this ulcerative posthitis?

  • Pasteurella multocida
  • Mycoplasma ovis
  • Foot-and-mouth disease virus
  • Contagious ecthyma (orf virus)
  • Corynebacterium renale
A

Answer: Corynebacterium renale

Explanation
When sheep are on a high protein diet, the amount of urea in urine increases. C. renale, a normal inhabitant of the area, splits urea and the resulting ammonia ulcerates the mucocutaneous junction or regions even further inside the sheath. It can also cause vulvitis in ewes. Treatment includes reducing dietary protein and administering penicillin to control C. renale. This is not likely to be caused by contagious ecthyma because that would affect mainly lambs. FMD is likely to also cause lesions in other sites and in other animals.

***PowerPage: Ulcerative Posthitis

84
Q

Enzootic pneumonia and gangrenous mastitis in sheep (blue bag) can both be caused by ____

  • Mannheimia hemolytica
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Mycoplasma mycoides
  • Pasteurella multocida
A

Answer: Mannheimia hemolytica

Explanation
The correct answer is Mannheimia hemolytica. This is a difficult question, but it is important to know the major diseases caused by each of these bugs. Mannheimia hemolytica (formerly Pasteurella hemolytica biotype A…it takes several years for boards to catch up with nomenclature, so you should remember this name too) causes blue bag and enzootic pneumonia which is a hemorrhagic bronchopneumonia of young lambs and their dams.

Pasteurella multocida causes primarily pneumonia and septicemia. Fusobacterium causes necrotic fetid lesions of the mouth or feet. Staphylococcus aureus is a cause of blue bag and arthritis. Mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides causes a number of conditions including pleuropneumonia, mastitis, polyarthritis, and meningitis, but is seen mainly in goats. The Mycoplasma that causes pneumonia in sheep is Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae. If you knew all of this, you are on top of your small ruminant infectious diseases.

85
Q

What are the two main clinical syndromes of caprine arthritis encephalitis virus and what age goats are affected?

  • Granulomatous encephalitis in goats over 2 years of age and arthritis in newborn goat kids
  • Leukoencephalomyelitis in goats older than 6 months and polysynovitis-arthritis in goat kids 2-6 months of age
  • Granulomatous encephalitis in newborn goat kids and arthritis in goats over 2 years of age
  • Leukoencephalomyelitis of kids 2-6 months old and polysynovitis-arthritis in goats 6 months or older
A

Answer: Leukoencephalomyelitis of kids 2-6 months old and polysynovitis-arthritis in goats 6 months or older

Explanation
The correct answer is leukoencephalomyelitis of kids 2-6 months old and polysynovitis-arthritis in goats 6 months or older. Does affected may have some mammary gland involvement and develop a hard fibrous udder, which results in decreased milk production. Less commonly, goats may have an interstitial viral pneumonia. CAEV is primarily transmitted to kids via milk or colostrum.

***PowerLecture: Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis

86
Q

Which of the following disorders of sheep can be eliminated by using genetic testing?

  • Spider lamb syndrome
  • Carbonate urinary stones
  • Squamous cell carcinoma of the abomasum
  • Caseous lymphadenitis
A

Answer: Spider lamb syndrome

Explanation
Spider lamb syndrome is a bone growth disorder of Suffolk and Hampshire breeds of sheep caused by an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. A genetic test has been available since the year 2000.

Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. Urolithiasis is often caused by improper feeding and can be dietary-related. Squamous cell carcinomas of the GI tract are thought to be caused by a combination of genetics and environmental carcinogens.

87
Q

You are presented with a valuable male Suffolk sheep (ram) that is one year of age. It was straining to urinate yesterday and today appears anorectic, depressed and weak. The TPR is normal, but there is no rumen motility. The breath has an ammonia-like smell. An electrolyte panel reveals hyponatremia, hypochloremia, and hyperphosphatemia. Which of the following disorders is the correct diagnosis?

  • Salt poisoning
  • Water intoxication
  • Ruptured bladder
  • Nephrolithiasis and obstructed ureter
  • Copper toxicity
A

Answer: Ruptured bladder

Explanation
The electrolyte abnormalities, in addition to the signalment and history of straining, are classic for uroabdomen.

The sheep would likely also have hemoconcentration and increased creatinine. In cases of ruptured bladder, some urine may still be passed if the urethra is not completely blocked. Ultrasound would detect free abdominal fluid. Urea may not be elevated because it is recycled into the rumen via saliva and utilized by rumen bacteria.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

***PowerLecture: Urolithiasis In Ruminants

88
Q

Which of these findings is LEAST consistent with a diagnosis of pregnancy toxemia in a ewe?

  • Azotemia
  • Ketonuria
  • Neurologic signs (circling, stargazing)
  • Glucosuria
  • Hypocalcemia
A

Answer: Glucosuria

Explanation
The answer is glucosuria. Pregnancy toxemia typically occurs in late gestation, usually in females carrying multiple fetuses, due to the ewe’s inability to consume sufficient energy to support the pregnancy. The ewe’s enlarging uterus often causes decreased rumen volume and subsequently, decreased dry matter intake.
Negative energy balance results in the need for glucose production from the liver to occur because there is not enough glucose absorbed through the Gl tract. The liver utilizes fatty acids and glycerol, but when demands are great, the liver cannot produce enough glucose and becomes overwhelmed with free fatty acids, resulting in the production of ketones. Pregnancy toxemia is characterized by depression, CNS signs such as tremors, stargazing, circling, and teeth grinding, low glucose concentrations, high ketones in the blood (elevated free fatty acids, and beta-hydroxybutyrate), decreased serum calcium and potassium, and increased BUN. Necropsy findings will include a pale, swollen liver. Treatment of pregnancy toxemia includes administration of dextrose, B vitamins, calcium, propylene glycol, transfaunation, and Cesarean section in critical cases. Prevention by feeding concentrates is much more effective than treatment.

89
Q

A 3-year old female goat is displaying signs of decreased activity with right sided ptosis and drooling. On examination, you notice a decreased palpebral reflex on the right side. The goat has a temperature of 104F (40 C). What is the most important and appropriate therapy for the goat’s suspected condition?

  • Administer Thiamine 10 mg/kg every six hours
  • Administer levamisole 8 mg/kg once
  • Administer 1 mg of Selenium and 500 units of Vitamin E once and then add supplementation to the feed
  • Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours
A

Answer: Administer procaine penicillin, 40,000 units per kg every six hours

Explanation
The key to answering this question is the unilateral nature of the clinical signs which are most typical of Listeriosis in goats in contrast to other common neurologic conditions such as Polioencephalomalacia (thiamine or Vitamin B1 deficiency). This infection is most common in goats fed silage (although that information was not provided in this question).

Thiamine administration would not be inappropriate but is not the most critical therapy for Listeriosis.

The signs in this goat are not suggestive of white muscle disease which is caused by selenium deficiency.

They are also not suggestive of lungworms or roundworms which might be treated with levamisole.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases

90
Q

You are presented with a 4-year old Saanen milk goat with the complaint of lesions on her udder (see image). They had only been warts until recently. Several other goats in her cohort, all good milkers, have warts on the teats. What is the diagnosis?

  • Mycobacterium capri
  • Mycobacterium leprae
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Caprine herpes mammillitis
  • Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
A

Answer: Squamous cellcarcinoma

Explanation
Papillomas in Saanen goats tend to transform to squamous cell carcinoma for poorly understood reasons. The prognosis is poor for dairy goats.

91
Q

What type of diet predisposes bucks to ulcerative posthitis?

  • High calcium diet
  • High phosphorus diet
  • Low magnesium diet
  • High carbohydrate diet
  • High protein diet
A

Answer: High protein diet

Explanation
The correct answer is high protein diet. When an animal is fed a high-protein diet, excess proteins are catabolized to urea and excreted. If urease-producing bacteria like Corynebacterium renale are present, the urea is broken down to ammonia in the prepuce, which causes damage to the mucosal surfaces and leads to pizzle rot.

92
Q

A herd of goats has recently experienced several animals with CNS signs including not herding with the group, appearing blind, and having anorexia and hypermetria. One goat had developed dorsomedial strabismus and teeth grinding; it went on to become comatose and had periodic tonic-clonic convulsions before it died. Postmortem reveals cerebrocortical necrosis (polioencephalomalacia). What treatment should be used on the next animal to appear with these signs?

  • Penicillin orally and IV
  • Phosphorus orally
  • Tetracycline IV
  • Thiamine injections
  • Selenium orally
A

Answer: Thiamine injections

Explanation
The disease has many factors, including dietary, that should also be addressed, but the single best treatment is to give thiamine. Convulsions can also be controlled by diazepam or phenobarbital. Thiamine should be diluted and given either SQ or very slowly IV.

***PowerPage: Top 10 Sheep and Goat Diseases