NAVLE Mock Test Flashcards
A7-year old female spayed English Springer Spaniel presents for difficulty breathing and lethargy. Physical exam shows pale mucous membranes and increased respiratory effort. You collect blood for a complete blood count and a chemistry panel and you place a drop of blood with a drop of saline on a glass slide. After swirling the sample around, you can grossly see what is shown in the picture. What’s your diagnosis?
- Hemolysis
- Vitamin K antagonist toxicity
- Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
- Rouleaux formations
- Evan’s syndrome
Answer: Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
The image shows a positive slide agglutination test. The dark patches in the sample are caused by antibodies attached to the surface of the erythrocytes cross linking the cells together causing these clumps. This is highly suggestive of an immune mediated reaction to antigen on the individual’s red blood cells.
Rouleaux formations are red blood cells stacked together as a result of their natural discoid shape and large surface area causing them to have an affinity for each other. They typically resemble a stack of coins or cookies.
Evan’s syndrome is an autoimmune condition characterized by an immune attack on erythrocytes, platelets, and occasionally leukocytes as well. You would not be able to diagnose this on a slide agglutination test alone.
Evans’ syndrome (ES) is an uncommon, life-threatening hematological disease of dogs, characterized by the co-occurrence of immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) and immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (IMT).’
Diagnosis of IMHA is usually made based on the presence of anemia with a positive direct Coombs’ test or persistent autoagglutination and/or spherocytosis.
Because antiplatelet antibody assays have variable specificity and sensitivity and are not widely available, their use has limited clinical utility. The diagnosis of primary IMT is usually made on the basis of exclusion of other identifiable causes of thrombocytopenia and response to immunosuppressive therapy 3-6
Primary canine ES carries a poor short-term prognosis, with a mortality rate of up to 80%. Immunosuppressive doses of glucocorticoids have been the mainstay of treatment.’
Furthermore, long-term use of glucocorticoids often leads to adverse systemic effects, such as iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism, gastrointestinal hemorrhage, predisposition to bacterial or fungal infections, and occasional insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus. For these reasons, combination therapy consisting of glucocorticoids and other immunomodulatory drugs or splenectomy in dogs with IMHA and/or IMT have been reported with variable clinical response.
What is the primary mode of transmission of West Nile Virus (WNV) between birds?
Via mosquitoes.
Mosquito vectors are the primary mode of transmission for WNV between birds and other hosts (horses, humans). There are infrequent documented cases of the disease being spread by feces or saliva. No mites have been documented to transmit the disease. Birds do not have a placenta.
A 12-year old male neutered domestic short hair cat presents for ongoing evaluation of diabetes mellitus. The cat was diagnosed 6 months ago and has continued to be markedly polyuric, polydipsic, polyphagic, and has been gaining weight. The cat is currently receiving 10 units of glargine insulin every 12 hours. On physical exam, the cat weighs 15 pounds (6.8 kg) and has an enlarged head, abdomen, and paws. What imaging modality would be most appropriate to try and prove what you suspect is causing the uncontrolled diabetes and weight gain in this cat?
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head.
This cat has the signs and symptoms of acromegaly. Acromegaly is caused by excessive growth hormone release from the pars distalis from a tumor in the pituitary gland. Excessive growth hormone causes a defect in the insulin receptors on target cells causing insulin resistant diabetes mellitus.
The enlarged head, paws, abdomen, and weight gain despite uncontrolled diabetes is due to the anabolic effects of the growth hormone.
Treatment for this condition includes radiation therapy to the pituitary tumor, high doses of insulin to try and control the diabetes, and somatostatin analogs (octreotide) to try and inhibit the release of growth hormone from the tumor. Surgical excision has been used as a form of treatment in people with pituitary tumors, but this has only been rarely reported in cats.
A 2-year old mare presents to you several weeks after recovering from a mild upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema and sloughing of the legs, chest and abdomen as well as mucosal petechial hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin lesion is consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Purpura hemorrhagica.
This is the clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-Ill hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate, leading to disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure to certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most commonly seen subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. equi or vaccination against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens, particularly respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and equine influenza.
Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate a strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead to hemorrhage and edema.
Bastard strangles refers to the condition when Streptococcus equi subsp. equi creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the lymph nodes draining the throat) such as abdominal or lung lymph nodes.
Cantharidin toxicity (also known as blister beetle toxicity) leads to mucosal irritation and results in colic and cystitis. It can also lead to hypocalcemia.
Primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (sometimes called idiopathic thrombocytopenia) can be seen in horses but is not consistent with the necrotizing vasculitis described in the case.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate reactions (such as urticaria) invoked by an antigen or allergen.
Purpura Hemorrhagica in Animals - Comprehensive Information
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Purpura Hemorrhagica: Immune-mediated vasculitis characterized by hemorrhage and edema. • Causes: Often secondary to infections such as Streptococcus equi (strangles).
Clinical Changes and Symptoms:
• Symptoms: Edema (head, limbs), petechial hemorrhages, fever, mucosal ulcers. • Pathogenesis: Immune complex deposition in blood vessel walls leading to vasculitis and increased vascular permeability.
Diagnosis:
• Tests: History, clinical signs, CBC, biopsy. • Findings: Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, immune complexes in vessel walls.
Treatment:
• Medications: • Corticosteroids: Prednisone (1-2 mg/kg/day). • Antibiotics: For underlying infection. • Supportive Care: Fluids, anti-inflammatory drugs.
For more details, visit the Merck Veterinary Manual - Purpura Hemorrhagica in Animals.
Strangles in Horses:
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Strangles: Highly contagious disease of Equidae caused by Streptococcus equi subspecies equi (gram-positive, capsulated, beta-hemolytic, Lancefield group C).
Pathogenesis:
• Transmission: Direct contact with infected horses or contaminated fomites; carriers play a role in disease perpetuation. • Colonization: Bacteria invade the upper respiratory tract, localizing in lymph nodes causing abscessation.
Clinical Findings:
• Incubation Period: 3-14 days. • Symptoms: Fever (103°-106°F), nasal discharge, depression, lymphadenopathy, dyspnea, dysphagia. Metastatic strangles causes abscesses in other body parts.
Diagnosis:
• Samples: Nasopharyngeal swab/wash, guttural pouch wash. • Tests: Culture (gold standard), PCR for higher sensitivity, serology for antibodies. • Imaging: Endoscopy, ultrasound, radiography for complications.
Treatment:
• Supportive Care: Warm, dry environment, NSAIDs, abscess drainage. • Antimicrobials: Procaine penicillin (22,000 IU/kg, IM, q 12 h), indicated for complicated cases.
Prevention and Control:
• Vaccination: Extract and live attenuated vaccines available; complications possible. • Biosecurity: Isolation, screening for carriers, thorough cleaning and disinfection during outbreaks. • Carrier Detection: Guttural pouch wash PCR, nasopharyngeal washes.
Key Points:
• Reportable Disease: Awareness of state guidelines is crucial. • Complications: Metastatic strangles, purpura hemorrhagica, and myositis require prompt intervention.
For detailed information, refer to the Merck Veterinary Manual article on Strangles in Horses.
A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen next for a normal parturition?
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva.
This case description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and constantly getting up and down.
When the placenta ruptures (“water breaks”), there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about 5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety, membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death of the foal.
Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal’s hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and removed. Usually, the umbilical cord breaks naturally when the mare stands or foal begins to rise. Then, within 30 minutes to 3 hours after foaling, the placenta should be expelled.
Parturition in equines is a multifaceted process encompassing three distinct stages, each characterized by specific physiological events and clinical manifestations.
Stage I: Initiation of Parturition:
- This initial phase is marked by the onset of myometrial contractions, leading to signs of abdominal discomfort and restlessness in the mare.
- Observable behaviors include pawing, pacing, and frequent postural changes.
- Patches of sweat, notably on the flanks and behind the elbows, often appear hours before foaling.
- During this stage, the fetus repositions from a dorsopubic to a dorsosacral orientation, facilitating its passage through the birth canal.
- The culmination of Stage I is signified by the rupture of the chorioallantois at the cervical star, resulting in the release of allantoic fluid—a phenomenon colloquially termed “breaking water.”
Stage II: Fetal Expulsion:
- Commencing with the rupture of the chorioallantois, Stage II involves the progression of the fetus through the birth canal and concludes with its delivery.
- This stage is typically brief, lasting approximately 15 to 30 minutes.
- The appearance of the whitish, fluid-filled amnion at the vulvar lips is an early indicator.
- The mare exhibits a series of potent abdominal contractions, often assuming lateral recumbency with limbs extended.
- The normal presentation of the foal is anterior longitudinal, dorsosacral, with extended head, neck, and forelimbs.
- Notably, one forelimb usually precedes the other by approximately 15 cm, aiding in the passage of the shoulders through the pelvic canal.
- Immediate intervention is warranted if the foal is not delivered within 30 minutes post-rupture of the chorioallantois, as delays may indicate dystocia. 
Stage III: Expulsion of Fetal Membranes:
- The final stage encompasses the detachment and expulsion of the fetal membranes, predominantly the chorioallantois.
- Under normal conditions, this occurs within three hours post-foaling.
- The weight of the amnion and umbilical cord facilitates separation from the endometrium.
- Retention beyond three hours is considered abnormal and necessitates prompt administration of oxytocin (20 IU, intravenously or intramuscularly) at 15- to 30-minute intervals to stimulate uterine contractions. - Failure to expel the membranes within eight hours mandates comprehensive therapeutic intervention to avert complications such as metritis, endotoxemia, and laminitis. 
Premature Separation of the Placenta:
- A critical complication, premature placental separation, is identified by the protrusion of the intact chorioallantois—characterized by a bright red, velvety appearance—at the vulvar lips prior to fetal delivery.
- This condition, often referred to as “red bag” delivery, signifies an urgent scenario where the foal is deprived of oxygen.
- Immediate manual rupture of the chorioallantois and expedited delivery of the foal are imperative to prevent asphyxiation and subsequent hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy. 
In summary, mastery of the stages, timing, and associated clinical signs of equine parturition is essential for veterinary practitioners. Such knowledge ensures timely interventions, thereby optimizing outcomes for both mare and foal.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat’s clinical signs?
Methocarbamol.
Pyrethrins alter the activity of the sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin).
A 4-year old male Manx cat presents to you because the owners found an empty, opened pill vial in the bathroom and the cat vomited. On physical exam, you note ptyalism and facial edema. The cat’s mucous membranes are pale and slightly icteric. You perform a blood smear and detect Heinz bodies in erythrocytes. The cat’s packed cell volume (PCV) is 26% (30-45%). The owners provide you a list of the medications in the medicine cabinet which are acetaminophen (Tylenol), finasteride (Propecia), enalapril (Vasotec), and omeprazole (Prilosec). What treatments should you institute for this cat?
Acetylcysteine and S-adenosylmethionine.
Acetaminophen toxicity in cats usually occurs when owners administer the drug, unaware of its significant potential toxicity in cats. In this case, the cat’s clinical signs are most consistent with acetaminophen toxicity based on the Heinz body anemia that is present. Cats can die from oxidative damage and methemoglobinemia within 1-2 days of ingestion. It may also be associated with hepatotoxicity in cats, although this is seen more frequently in dogs.
Recall that cats are particularly sensitive to acetaminophen because they have decreased glucuronyl transferase activity which conjugates acetaminophen to glucuronic acid for excretion. As a result, 50-60 mg (a single tablet) may be fatal for a 4-5 kg cat.
Treatment should consist of toxin removal if possible by inducing emesis in some cases. As the cat in this case is already vomiting, this may not be necessary.
Activated charcoal is controversial and should only be given if ingestion occurred within hours and should be administered very carefully in cats due to the risk of aspiration.
The specific antidote is acetylcysteine which binds to some of the reactive metabolites of acetaminophen and increases the availability and synthesis of glutathione.
Other treatments may include S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) which has hepatoprotective and antioxidant properties.
Cimetidine can be given to inhibit the p450 oxidase in the liver and limit formation of toxic metabolites.
Ascorbic acid can also be used as an adjunct treatment to bind toxic metabolites.
In cats with signs of hypoxemia from severe hemolytic anemia (PCV <20%), a transfusion and further supportive care may be warranted.
Your client is pregnant and is worried about acquiring toxoplasmosis from her cat. What do you advise?
Have a housemate empty the litter box daily as a simple precaution to prevent infection as it takes 1-3 days for passed oocysts in the stool to sporulate into an infective form.
Toxoplasmosis gondii is a protozoal organism. The cat is the definitive host; the entire life cycle of the organism can be completed within this host. Most cats become infected when they consume an exposed rodent with bradyzoites encysted in their tissues. Only recently infected cats generally shed oocysts in their stool, and cats typically only shed these oocysts for 1-2 weeks. Most cats will only have one shedding episode in their lifetime.
A IgM (not IgG) titer of 1:64 or greater suggests recent or active infection and that cat is at risk of shedding oocysts in their stools. Oocysts are not infective until they sporulate. This process takes > 24 hours, so emptying the litter box daily is advised, preferably by someone who is not pregnant.
If an owner has owned cats for a long while, it is possible that they may have previously been exposed and therefore have mounted an immune response to the organism. If so, it may be advisable to test for Toxoplasma antibody titers in the owner. A sufficient antibody titer will mean the client is protected from infection during the first trimester.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat’s clinical signs?
Methocarbamol.
Pyrethrins alter the activity of the sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin).
A 4-year old male Manx cat presents to you because the owners found an empty, opened pill vial in the bathroom and the cat vomited. On physical exam, you note ptyalism and facial edema. The cat’s mucous membranes are pale and slightly icteric. You perform a blood smear and detect Heinz bodies in erythrocytes. The cat’s packed cell volume (PCV) is 26% (30-45%). The owners provide you a list of the medications in the medicine cabinet which are acetaminophen (Tylenol), finasteride (Propecia), enalapril (Vasotec), and omeprazole (Prilosec). What treatments should you institute for this cat?
Acetylcysteine and S-adenosylmethionine
Acetaminophen toxicity in cats usually occurs when owners administer the drug, unaware of its significant potential toxicity in cats. In this case, the cat’s clinical signs are most consistent with acetaminophen toxicity based on the Heinz body anemia that is present. Cats can die from oxidative damage and methemoglobinemia within 1-2 days of ingestion. It may also be associated with hepatotoxicity in cats, although this is seen more frequently in dogs.
Recall that cats are particularly sensitive to acetaminophen because they have decreased glucuronyl transferase activity which conjugates acetaminophen to glucuronic acid for excretion. As a result, 50-60 mg (a single tablet) may be fatal for a 4-5 kg cat.
Treatment should consist of toxin removal if possible by inducing emesis in some cases. As the cat in this case is already vomiting, this may not be necessary. Activated charcoal is controversial and should only be given if ingestion occurred within hours and should be administered very carefully in cats due to the risk of aspiration.
The specific antidote is acetylcysteine which binds to some of the reactive metabolites of acetaminophen and increases the availability and synthesis of glutathione. Other treatments may include S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) which has hepatoprotective and antioxidant properties. Cimetidine can be given to inhibit the p450 oxidase in the liver and limit formation of toxic metabolites. Ascorbic acid can also be used as an adjunct treatment to bind toxic metabolites. In cats with signs of hypoxemia from severe hemolytic anemia (PCV <20%), a transfusion and further supportive care may be warranted.
What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?
Hardbag.
CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids.
You are asked to examine some feeder pigs that have stopped eating yesterday. The group is lying down and seems lethargic. They have fevers of 105-106F (40.6 -41.1 C), firm dry feces, and the skin has rhomboid-shaped red blotches scattered on it. What treatment should be recommended?
Penicillin.
Erysipelas is susceptible to penicillins, as well as tetracyclines (usually), lincomycin and tylosin.
Chloramphenicol and nitroimidazoles (including metronidazole) are not approved for food animal use.
A horse presents to you for chronic, recurrent laminitis and skin disease. You notice on your exam that the horse has a particularly thick, long, wavy, and matted coat. The owner mentioned that this developed many months ago. What is a likely diagnosis?
Cushing’s disease (Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction).
The correct answer is Cushing’s disease. The coat condition described is what horses with glucocorticoid excess develop; it is referred to as hirsutism. They will also be predisposed to infections including laminitis and skin diseases such as Dermatophilus. They are also frequently polyuric, polydipsic, and polyphagic.
Once infected, for what period of time is canine parvovirus usually shed?
7-10 days.
The correct answer is 7-10 days. Canine parvovirus mainly affects puppies and young dogs less than a year of age. Transmission of the virus is through contact with infected feces and fomites such as hands, toys, the dog’s hair coat. The virus is very resilient in the environment and is resistant to many types of disinfectants. It replicates in the crypt epithelium of the gut and causes epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea. The virus can also affect the heart of young puppies, causing myocarditis. This occurs less commonly now since most bitches are immunized against the virus, which allows for maternal antibodies to protect young puppies from this form of the disease.
A 2-year old mare presents to you several weeks after recovering from a mild upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema and sloughing of the legs (see image), chest and abdomen as well as mucosal petechial hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin lesion is consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Type I hypersensitivity
Purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Bastard strangles
Cantharidin toxicity
This is the clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-Ill hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate, leading to disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure to certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most commonly seen subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. equi or vaccination against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens, particularly respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and equine influenza.
Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate a strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead to hemorrhage and edema.
Bastard strangles refers to the condition when Streptococcus equi subsp. equi creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the lymph nodes draining the throat) such as abdominal or lung lymph nodes.
Cantharidin toxicity (also known as blister beetle toxicity) leads to mucosal irritation and results in colic and cystitis. It can also lead to hypocalcemia.
Primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (sometimes called idiopathic thrombocytopenia) can be seen in horses but is not consistent with the necrotizing vasculitis described in the case.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate reactions (such as urticaria) invoked by an antigen or allergen.
A 2-year old nonlactating dairy cow in California has a sudden onset of head tilt and drooling. The owner also reports that she appears less active and less interested in feed than normal, and today is circling in one direction in the pen. You examine her and find T=105F (40.6 C), HR=96, and RR=32. There is ptosis, drooped ear, and weakness of the lips on the affected side. You take a lumbosacral spinal tap (see photo), and submit the CSF to your lab. The results show elevated protein and WBCs, with the cell type being mainly monocytes. The lab reports seeing some gram positive bacteria in the monocytes of the CSF. Based on these findings what is the best treatment for this condition?
Metronidazole
Chloramphenicol
Enrofloxacin
Metoclopramide
Penicilin
Answer: Penicillin
The diagnosis is Listeriosis. Listeria monocytogenes can effectively be treated in the early stages of the disease with penicillin, ampicillin, or tetracycline. Intramuscular procaine penicillin for example has a withdrawal of 10 days for slaughter (meat) and 48 hours for milk if the animal is lactating. Other choices of approved antimicrobials would also likely be effective since L. monocytogenes is susceptible to most antimicrobials.
For a list of approved animal drugs see www.farad.org/vetgram.
FARAD is the United States Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank which gives withdrawal information as well as a list of prohibited drugs. The other drugs listed as choices here are prohibited and cannot be legally used in food animals in the USA.
A 6-month old Chocolate Labrador presents for limping and failure to gain weight. He is housed in an outdoor kennel with other hunting dogs. He is fed a large breed dry puppy food. He received his puppy shots at 8, 12, and 16 weeks old. He is quiet, alert, and responsive. His body condition score is 3/9, with rib exposure and poor fat deposition. His mucous membranes are pale pink, with a capillary refill time of 2 seconds. His heart and lungs auscult normally. No abnormalities are felt on abdominal palpation. He is an intact male, and both testicles are descended. The only abnormalities are the pads of his two front feet and left hind foot (see image) that he chews at frequently. What is diagnostic test of choice?
Fecal float
Skin scraping
Biopsy
Radiographs
CBC and Chemistry panel
FCV and TP
Answer: Fecal float. Hookworms (Ancylostoma and Uncinaria) are intestinal parasites that suck blood and can cause anemia, enteritis, coughing during larval migration, and dermatitis. Any young dog that is failing to thrive and/or has pale mucous membranes should be tested for intestinal parasites. Hookworm dermatitis, also called Ancylostomiasis is typically seen in conditions with poor sanitation and/or in kennels.
Hookworms can be transmitted in utero, during nursing, or via 3rd stage larva penetrating the skin. The most commonly affected skin areas are the pads and interdigital spaces of the feet, but can include any surface that contacts the ground. The larva migrate through the dog’s tissues before arriving in the intestines. They cause significant anemia, failure to thrive, or sudden death in young dogs. In mild cases, deworming protocols are often enough; with severe cases blood transfusions and parenteral treatments are often necessary.
Skin scraping and impression smears of the affected skin areas are typically unrewarding for isolating parasites. A PCV/TP would show signs of anemia, but not the underlying etiology. Complete blood cell count and chemistry will often show anemia that is regenerative and an eosinophilia. Radiographs would be unrewarding in this case. A biopsy may show migrating larva if biopsied soon after trauma, however this is not a diagnostic test routinely used.
A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen next for a normal parturition?
The placenta is expelled from the vulva
The hind legs of the foal emerge from the vulva
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
The red, velvety, chorioallantoic membrane emerges from the vulva
The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
This case description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and constantly getting up and down. When the placenta ruptures (“water breaks”), there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about 5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety, membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal’s hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and removed. Usually, the umbilical cord breaks naturally when the mare stands or foal begins to rise. Then, within 30 minutes to 3 hours after foaling, the placenta should be expelled.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat’s clinical signs?
Amoxicilin
Atropine
Methocarbamol
2-PAM
Acepromazine
Answer: Methocabamol. Pyrethrins alter the activity of the sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin).
What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?
- The udder is not affected
- Bluebag
- Gangrene
- Hardbag
Answer: Hardbag.
CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids.
A 7-year old male castrated cat presents for respiratory distress with open-mouth breathing. You initially place him in oxygen and obtain thoracic radiographs when he is stabilized. The films are shown here. What is your diagnosis?
Tracheal collapse
Feline asthma syndrome
Pneumonia
Neoplasia
Left-sided congestive heart failure
Answer: Left-sided congestive heart failure.
The correct answer is left-sided congestive heart failure. The cardiac silhouette is tall suggestive of left ventricular enlargement, and there is an alveolar pattern in the lung fields. The pulmonary vasculature is also dilated. Remember that cats in heart failure can have edema distributed in patchy infiltrates throughout the lungs, in contrast to dogs where it is more typically in the perihilar region.
Asthma is less likely as no clear bronchial markings are seen and because of the infiltrate. Neoplasia is a consideration, but doesn’t explain the cardiac enlargement. Pneumonia could also cause this pattern of infiltrate (although it is more typically cranioventral), but also does not explain the cardiomegaly. There is no evidence of tracheal collapse, which is an exceedingly rare condition in the cat.
Annotations:
Orange: The cardiac silhouette is diffusely enlarged moderately
Yellow circle: Areas of alveolar pattern
Blue: pulmonary veins
Red: Pulmonary arteries. In this case there is enlargement of both the pulmonary arteries and veins
Green: pleural fissure line, most likely indicative of pleural effusion
What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?
The udder is not affected
Bluebag
Gangrene
Hardbag
Answer: hardbag. CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids.
A 9-month old male pitfall presents to you for hindlimb lameness that developed suddenly several days ago and has gotten worse. On your examination, the dog is painful on palpation of the left tibia. Your take radiographs of the tibia which are shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the suspected condition?
Fluconazole
Ampicullin
Splint stabilization
Surgical correction
Carprofen
Answer: Carprofen.
This is a case of panosteitis based on the young age of the patient and radiographic presence of focal intramedullary densities within the tibial diaphysis. Minor differentials could include osteomyelitis. Panosteitis is a self-limiting, painful condition characterized by limping and lameness. It typically affects the long bones of young dogs, usually between the ages of 5 to 18 months. It can occur with any breed, but it is more common in medium- to large-sized dog breeds.
Treatment is primarily supportive consisting of limiting activity and anti-inflammatory drugs. Therefore, carprofen is the best answer choice listed. Pain lasts from weeks to months and resolves in nearly all cases. While these treatments reduce the pain associated with the condition, they may not alter the duration or course of the disease.
Annotations:
Circled: There are focal areas of increased patchy medullary sclerosis in the distal femur and proximal tibia.
The dog in the photograph was vaccinated earlier in the day. What type of allergic reaction is occurring?
- Type I
- Type II
- Type IV
- Type III
Answer: Type I.
The correct answer is type I. Type I hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated and results in immune mediated hypersensitivity.
Type II hypersensitivity is an antibody-dependent reaction and occurs due to IgG or IgM made against normal self antigens or some foreign antigen that resembles some molecule on the surface of host cells.
Type III hypersensitivity is an immune complex-mediated reaction. This is caused when soluble antigen-antibody complexes form in large amounts and overwhelm the body instead of being normally removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
Type IV is considered a delayed hypersensitivity and is cell-mediated. T8-lymphocytes will be sensitized to an antigen and differentiate into cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. T helper 1 type T4-lymphocytes become sensitized to an antigen and produce cytokines.
A 3-year old female spayed indoor/outdoor domestic short hair presents for congestion and swelling over the bridge of the nose. The swelling over the nose is firm and seems to be subcutaneous. There is also mild enlargement of the mandibular lymph nodes. You perform cytology from a fine needle aspirate of the swelling over the nose and see narrow, budding, thick-walled yeasts surrounded by clear capsules (see picture). You also detected a lesion in the retina on fundic examination. Which of the following treatments would be indicated?
Doxycycline
Itraconazole
Trimethroprim sulfa
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
Lufenuron
Answer: Itraconazole.
Based on the description of the cytology and clinical symptoms of this cat, the most likely diagnosis is Cryptococcus neoformans. This is a fungal disease that occurs when the organism is inhaled and is disseminated to skin, eyes, CNS, lungs, or other areas. The upper respiratory tract is most often involved and symptoms can include nasal discharge, sneezing, swelling over the nose, and regional lymphadenopathy. If the CNS is involved, seizures can also occur. The disease has been thought to be transmitted most often through infected pigeon droppings. Itraconazole, fluconazole, or amphotericin B are the anti-fungals of choice for this disease. Doxycycline, Trimethoprim sulfa, and Clavamox are all antibiotics and would not address a fungal infection. Lufenuron is a flea treatment that has had some implications for treatment of dermatophytes due to its ability to inhibit chitin. About 1/3 of the cell wall of a fungus is composed of chitin. This has not been a promising or approved treatment for ringworm and surely would not be an appropriate treatment for Cryptococcus.
A dog presents to your clinic with tenesmus and swelling near the anus as seen in the image. On examination, there is a fluctuant swelling lateral to the anus, and on rectal exam, you note lateral dilatation of the rectum. Which of the following is the most common signalment for dogs presenting with this problem?
They are younger intact females
There is no age sex predilection
They are older intact males
They are older intact females
They are younger intact males
They are older intact males.
This is a case of a perineal hernia. Older intact male dogs are most commonly affected. Overrepresented breeds include Boxers, Collies, Kelpies, Pekingese, and Boston terriers. The hernia results from a weakened pelvic diaphragm. It is thought that there may be a hormonal component which results in weakening with time.
A 9-year old male Queensland Heeler presents with a four day history of progressive tetraparesis. Physical exam showed him to be weakly ambulatory with support. As part of your initial workup, you take chest X-rays which are shown below. Which of the following next steps is the most appropriate test to confirm your clinical suspicion about the cause of the dog’s signs?
- Bronchoalveolar lavage and culture
- CT scan of the thorax
- MRI of the brain
- Tensilon response test
- Myelogram
Answer: Tensilon response test
The correct answer is a Tensilon (edrophonium) response test. Hopefully, you were able to identify the mass in the cranial mediastinum on the chest radiograph, as this was one of the keys to this case. This, in conjunction with the dog’s other signs, are suggestive that this dog has a thymoma and associated secondary myasthenia gravis. Tensilon (edrophonium) is a rapidly acting anticholinesterase that reverses signs of myasthenia within minutes in most dogs.
A chest CT would be a valid test to confirm the presence of the mediastinal mass and might be an appropriate test before surgery but would not bring you closer to a diagnosis if you already have identified the mass. An MRI of the brain would assess a CNS cause of the dog’s signs, which are unlikely, given the other findings. Similarly, a myelogram would assess if a spinal cord lesion caused the dog’s signs, but the rest of the findings in this case should point you in a different direction.
Annotations:
Red arrow: the trachea is displaced dorsally due to the cranial mediastinal mass
Green circle: on the right lateral projection there is increased soft tissues in the ventral aspect of the thorax. The ventral aspect of the cardiac silhouette remains partially visible.
On the left lateral projection, there is also increased soft tissue opacity in the ventral aspect of the thorax. However on that projection the cardiac silhouette is not clearly visualized (purple circle). On both projections there is mild separation of the lung lobes indicating the concurrent pleural effusion (blue line)
On the VD the mass is highlighted in orange, the cardiac silhouette in pink. The cranial aspect of the cardiac silhouette is not clearly visualized due to “silhouetting”.
Radiographs provided by Adrien Hespel, DVM, MS, DACVR and University of Tennessee College of Veterinary Medicine
A 10-day old commercial dairy calf has diarrhea that is white in color (see photo). The calf is dehydrated, hypovolemic, weak and unable to stand. T=100F (37.8 C), HR=100, and RR=20. No other abnormalities are found on physical examination. Based on these findings, what is the treatment of choice?
IV fluids containing 50mEq/L of potassium
Oral fluids containing sodium bicarbonate
Oral fluids containing high levels of both sodium and chloride
IV fluids containing only saline
IV fluids with added sodium bicarbonate
This calf is typical of those suffering from nonspecific calf diarrhea, most often associated with enteropathogenic E coli, rotavirus, or cryptosporidium. The calf develops hypovolemia and metabolic acidosis and requires sodium-containing IV fluids which contain additional alkali such as sodium bicarbonate. One can assess that the calf is severely acidotic given that it is lethargic and unable to stand. While oral fluids may also be useful, at this stage, the calf will require IV fluids.
A male goat presents for vocalizing and straining to urinate. He has been kicking at his abdomen. You detect crystals adherent to the hairs around the prepuce (see image). What condition should you suspect and try to rule out first?
Lower intestinal obstruction
Urinary tract obstruction
Acute severe pyelonephritis
Upper intestinal obstruction
Answer: Urinary tract obstruction.
The correct answer is urinary tract obstruction due to calculi. This should be suspected in all male and castrated male goats (and sheep) with non-specific signs of disease or discomfort because it is so common. Common clinical signs associated with urinary tract obstruction are vocalization and dribbling of urine. Heaving or forceful abdominal contractions may be seen. Hematuria, dysuria, prolonged urination, and apparent abdominal pain are also common signs. The most important step of evaluation is exteriorization of the penis and examination of the urethral process because this is the most common site of blockage. In severe cases the entire urethra may be filled with calculi.
Rubiosis iridis as seen in this cat is a sign of what process in the eye?
Chorioretinitis
Anterior uveitis
Glaucoma
Iris atrophy
Lens luxation
Answer: Anterior uveitis
The correct answer is anterior uveitis. Rubiosis iridis along with other signs such as aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which can be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic causes.
A client calls and says her cat was chewing on her lily plant two days ago and is now acting very sick. You tell her to bring the cat in immediately so that you can perform which of the following?
Induce emesis and administer activated charcoal
Abdominal radiographs to diagnose intestinal obstruction
ALT, AST, GGT, and total bilirubin levels
BUN and creatinine levels
Answer: BUN and creatinine levels.
Lily plant toxicosis is extremely serious and can cause rapid and fatal acute renal failure in cats. If ingestion is suspected, decontamination and aggressive fluid therapy, and monitoring of renal values are recommended immediately.
In this case, since 2 days have passed, inducing emesis and administering activated charcoal would not be helpful. What you can do is check renal values (BUN and creatinine) and treat for acute renal failure.
Ruling out an intestinal obstruction in a cat with this history is reasonable but not the best of the choices given.
Which of the following patients will benefit the most from the use of pre-emptive analgesia?
- German shepherd with osteosarcoma of the humerus
- Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy
- Dachshund with intervertebral disk disease
- Cat needing limb amputation being hit by car
- Horse with chronic laminitis
Answer: Dog presented for ovariohysterectomy.
A dog presented for ovariohysterectomy will benefit the most from the use of pre- emptive analgesia because she is not painful prior to surgery. Pre-emptive means to intervene prior to an expected event or consequence.
Analgesia prior to beginning of surgery minimizes sensitization of the pain and stress responses, and results in fewer complications and shorter hospital stays. Analgesics are often combined with sedatives as premedication. This also decreases the stress response and helps make the entire episode of anesthesia and surgery smooth and less or un-eventful.
The pain response is already highly stimulated in all the other patients listed. Chronic pain is present in the German shepherd with osteosarcoma and the horse with laminitis. These patients will have central sensitization and neuropathic pain as these are seen in
chronic pain and with direct damage to the nervous system.
Neuropathic pain is also present in the dachshund since damage to spinal nerves is seen with disk disease.
Click here to see a good summary on pain management, courtesy of the American College of Veterinary Surgeons (ACVS).
Refs: Gaynor & Muir Handbook of Vet Pain Mgt 2nd ed. pp. 57, 351, Tranquilli, Grimm, & Lamont Pain Mgt for the SA Practitioner 2nd ed. p. 10, and Greene’s Vet Anes & Pain Management Secrets pp. 331-3.
Link: Pain Alleviation.
A 2-year old female DSH cat presents for weight loss, anorexia, dyspnea, and lethargy. She was previously treated with antibiotics but is still febrile on physical exam. You detect pleural effusion and notice that the abdomen is distended. On CBC there is a non-regenerative anemia, neutrophilia, and lymphopenia. On chemistry there is hyperproteinemia and a slight elevation in liver enzymes. What is your primary differential?
Feline Infectious Peritonitis
Feline Immnodeficiency virus
Feline Calicivirus
Feline Leukemia Virus
Answer: Feline Infectious Peritonitis.
The correct answer is FIP. This poor cat is infected with the dreaded wet form of feline infectious peritonitis. Good job if you nailed it!
If you think about the pathogenesis of the virus, then these clinical signs make a lot of sense. With FIP, the classical lesion is pyogranulomatous vasculitis due to antigen-antibody complexes depositing in the venular endothelium, which results in pleural and peritoneal effusion. The CBC findings are common for FIP but not too specific. In greater than 50% of cats with the wet form of FIP, there will be hyperproteinemia. In greater than 70% of cats with the dry form of FIP there is hyperproteinemia.
A 2-year old female DSH cat presents for weight loss, anorexia, dyspnea, and lethargy. She was previously treated with antibiotics but is still febrile on physical exam. You detect pleural effusion and notice that the abdomen is distended. On CBC there is a non-regenerative anemia, neutrophilia, and lymphopenia. On chemistry there is hyperproteinemia and a slight elevation in liver enzymes. What is your primary differential?
Feline Infectious Peritonitis
Feline Immnodeficiency virus
Feline Calicivirus
Feline Leukemia Virus
Answer: Feline Infectiour Peritonitis.
The correct answer is FIP. This poor cat is infected with the dreaded wet form of feline infectious peritonitis. Good job if you nailed it!
If you think about the pathogenesis of the virus, then these clinical signs make a lot of sense. With FIP, the classical lesion is pyogranulomatous vasculitis due to antigen-antibody complexes depositing in the venular endothelium, which results in pleural and peritoneal effusion. The CBC findings are common for FIP but not too specific. In greater than 50% of cats with the wet form of FIP, there will be hyperproteinemia. In greater than 70% of cats with the dry form of FIP there is hyperproteinemia.
Note.
Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP) is a fatal, complex disease caused by mutated feline coronavirus, affecting cats of any age. Recent advancements in antiviral treatments like GS-441524 and Remdesivir offer hope for management and potential cure. Early diagnosis and aggressive treatment improve prognosis, highlighting the importance of veterinary guidance.
During your examination of an 18-year old horse, you observe what is shown in the photograph. Based on the location and appearance of this lesion, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Melanoma
Sarcoid
Habronema
Cuterebra
Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: Melanoma.
The correct answer is melanoma. Melanoma is one of the most common tumors in horses (about 10% of all neoplasms) and gray horses are at high risk of around 80%. They can occur anywhere but appear most frequently in the perineal region or ventral tail as is evident in this horse.
In horses, they are usually darkly pigmented (as opposed to dogs where amelanotic melanomas occur somewhat commonly). In horses, most are slowly growing but can be locally invasive. Many treatments are out there, but there is no standard of care treatment. Depending on location and extent, consider surgical removal, benign neglect, chemotherapy (systemic or intralesional) and immunotherapy.
A 7-year old female Lhasa Apso presents to you for lethargy and inappetence. On your exam, you detect mandibular lymphadenopathy and perform a fine needle aspirate. You see the aspirate depicted here. Which of these treatments would be given to this patient as part of a first line therapy?
Carboplatin
Itraconazole
Prednisone
Doxycycline
Milbemycin
Answer: Prednisone.
This is a case of lymphoma. The cytology depicts the classic finding of a population of lymphoid cells that are predominantly lymphoblasts based on their size and characteristics. If you were unsure about their size due to magnification, there is a neutrophil in the lower left corner for comparison. The lymphoblasts are considerably larger than the neutrophil. Mature lymphocytes would be smaller than a neutrophil. Note that there is a mitotic figure in the middle of the slide.
There are many treatments and protocols for lymphoma and some of the main agents known to have efficacy are prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and lomustine. There are many other efficacious chemotherapeutics for lymphoma but carboplatin is not considered a first line treatment for lymphoma in dogs.
The other drugs listed are antifungal (itraconazole), antibiotic (doxycycline) and anti-parasitic (milbemycin).
A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected, as shown in this image. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most likely organism infecting the corneal ulcer in this horse?
- E. Coli
- Pseudomonas
- Pasteurella multocida
- Staphylosoccus spp.
Answer: Pseudomonas.
The correct answer is Pseudomonas
Pseudomonas is the most common agent causing bacterial keratitis in the horse. The gram negative cytology provides further evidence that it is the likely culprit.
Staphylococcus can cause keratitis in horses but is gram positive.
E. coli and Pasteurella are not agents that are commonly involved with keratitis in the horse.
A 6-year old male neutered Weimaraner presents for right forelimb lameness. Radiographs are shown below and show a mixed productive and destructive lesion affecting the right distal radius with accompanying soft tissue swelling. The lesion does not cross the joint. What is the most common primary bone tumor in the dog?
- Chondrosarcoma
- Osteosarcoma
- Hemangiosarcoma
- Fibrosarcoma
- Multiple myeloma
The correct answer is osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma and hemangiosarcoma can all be primary bone tumors but are much less common in dogs than osteosarcoma.
Annotations:
Yellow: Amorphous periosteal proliferation
Orange: Geographic lysis and expansile appearance of the mid-radius
Blue: soft tissue swelling
Radiographs provided by Adrien Hespel, DVM, MS, DACVR and University of Tennessee College of Veterinary Medicine
Which of these are used in the minor cross match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog?
- Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma
- Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma
- Donor red blood cells, donor plasma
- Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma
Answer: Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma.
The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient’s red blood cells.
A 6-month old cat presents for having ptyalism and for being underweight. On physical examination, you note a bright copper color to the cat’s iris bilaterally. What is this suggestive of?
- Portal systemic shunt
- Polycystic kidney disease
- Toxoplasmosis
- Hemolytic anemia
Answer: Portal Systemic Shunt.
The correct answer is a portal-systemic shunt. Ptyalism is a sign commonly seen with PSS in cats but not dogs, and the copper-colored iris is a striking and almost pathognomonic finding in conjunction with other clinical findings. Hemolytic anemia could cause icterus but not the change in iris color. Animals with polycystic kidney disease would not have a copper-colored iris. Toxoplasma can cause ocular signs such as uveitis but would not have a copper iris.
Which of these drugs is a neuromuscular blocker when given to a dog?
Naloxone
Neostigmine
Atracurium
Edrophonium
Fentanyl
Answer: Atracurium.
The correct answer is atracurium. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Other neuromuscular blockers include pancuronium, d-tubocurarine and succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Fentanyl is an opioid. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. Edrophonium and neostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockers.
What species is the principle carrier and vector of Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF) virus in North America?
Bison
Horse
Cattle
Sheep
Donkey
Answer: Sheep.
MCF virus is ovine herpes virus-2 (OvHV-2) and is carried by 95-99% of sheep in North America which show no symptoms. It is also carried by 75% of domestic goats, 40% of muskox, 37% of bighorn sheep, 25% of pronghorn antelope, 62% of mouflon sheep, and by a small percentage of elk, mule deer, and white tailed deer. Susceptible hosts include cattle, water buffalo, deer, pigs, and bison; bison are the most susceptible.
Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish “wart-like” nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease?
- Tick control
- Raise the room temperature 5 degrees
- Thoroughly disinfect pens and equipment
- Mosquito control
- Immediate removal of fecal waste
- Add antibiotics to the drinking water
Answer: Mosquito control.
The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox.
This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month.
In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. The wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality.
A diagnosis is usually based on flock history and presence of these lesions. This is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine. Disease control is best accomplished by preventive vaccine as sanitation alone will not prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity.
There are not many tick borne poultry diseases but they may include spirochaetosis and Pasteurella infection.
Raising the temperature 5 degrees may be part of the treatment for infectious bronchitis in chickens. Disinfecting pens +/- quarantine is done for quail bronchitis, aspergillosis, and ulcerative enteritis. Antibiotics in the drinking water are most effective for preventing secondary bacterial infections and for mycoplasma but not preventing spread of the virus.
If a mass appears in the lungs on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the mass located?
Left Lung
The correct answer is left lung. On a right lateral radiograph, the right side is down. In this situation, the right lung lobes are compressed and the left lung lobes inflated, accentuating a mass in the left lung. On a left lateral radiograph, the left lobes are compressed and a mass in the left lung can be concealed due to compression of the lung surrounding the mass.
A trout fishery reports that many of the fish have gray-white, puffy growths on their fins, gills, and eyes. A direct smear from affected tissues shows the following findings (images below). What action should you take to address the top differential?
A - Treat with potassium permanganate
B - Administer praziquantel to all the fish
C - Supplement the fish with vitamin C
D - Ask if there is any zinc in the housing
E - Depopulation is the only appropriate measure
Answer: Treat with Fomalin.
Treat fish with formalin, hydrogen peroxide, or potassium permanganate once predisposing factors have been addressed for this type of infection, most often caused by Saprolegnia. Saprolegnia is a saprophytic fungus-like pathogen (technically, an oomycete water mold) that commonly causes disease in freshwater fish.
A direct skin scrape wet mount should reveal hyphae that appear as large, nonseptate filaments, often with long “cattail-like” tips known as zoosporangia, which house the motile infective stages known as zoospores.
Low water temperatures are a major predisposing factor for infection. Other possible factors include rough handling (which may strip protective mucus and/or some skin), poor sanitation, and the presence of decaying organic material (or dead fish which may act as a reservoir).
Products that contain malachite green are effective for aquarium (non-food) fish but are of concern because of potential carcinogenicity/teratogenicity. CANNOT be used on food fish.
A related oomycete, Aphanomyces invadans, causes epizootic ulcerative syndrome (EUS) in fish. EUS is a WOAH reportable disease, endemic to much of the U.S. in wild populations and is immediately notifiable in Canada. Saprolegnia and Aphanomyces can cause huge economic losses in farmed fish
Crayfish have their own oomycete, A. astaci (“crayfish plague”). Though endemic in North American crayfish, it does not generally cause clinical disease. European and Australian crayfish are vulnerable to death and disease.
Link: Ciliate Parasites of Aquarium Fish
Link: Infection with Aphanomyces invadans
Link: Crayfish plague
Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to that of Glaesserella parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?
Streptococcus suis
The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and G. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.
Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name “diamond skin disease”) are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis.
Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to that of Glaesserella parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?
Answer: Streptococcus suis
The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and G. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.
Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name “diamond skin disease”) are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis.
The image below shows pemphigus foliaceus on a dog’s abdomen. Pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus vulgaris, and bullous pemphigoid are examples of which type of immune-mediated disease?
A - Type Ill - antigen-antibody complexes deposited in tissues
B - Type I| - antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement
C - Type IV - antigen triggers cell-mediated cytokine release, activates macrophages and production of cytotoxic T cells
D - Type I - immediate IGE-mediated hypersensitivity
E - Delayed hypersensitivity
Answer: Type II. Antibody binds cell antigen and activates complement.
Pemphigus foliaceus, pemphigus vulgaris, and bullous pemphigoid are generally considered type II reactions. Antibody binds antigen on a cell, then the antibody-antigen complex activates complement, causing cell lysis. In general, think of rare, autoimmune skin diseases characterized by varying presentations of ulceration, crusting, pustules, vesicles.
FYI: “Delayed hypersensitivity” is the same as a type IV reaction.
Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
ChGPT: Hypersensitivity Diseases in Animals
Definitions and Terminology
• Hypersensitivity: An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response to an antigen, causing tissue damage.
• Types of Hypersensitivity:
• Type I (Immediate): IgE-mediated reaction causing mast cell degranulation (e.g., anaphylaxis, atopy).
• Type II (Cytotoxic): Antibody-mediated destruction of cells (e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia).
• Type III (Immune Complex): Immune complex deposition in tissues (e.g., glomerulonephritis).
• Type IV (Delayed-Type): T-cell-mediated response causing tissue damage (e.g., contact dermatitis).
Pathophysiology
1. Type I (Immediate Hypersensitivity):
• Sensitization Phase: Initial exposure to an allergen causes IgE production.
• Effector Phase: Re-exposure to the allergen leads to IgE binding on mast cells, causing degranulation and release of histamine and other mediators.
• Clinical Manifestations: Anaphylaxis, urticaria, atopic dermatitis.
2. Type II (Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity):
• Mechanism: IgG or IgM antibodies bind to antigens on cell surfaces, leading to complement activation or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC).
• Clinical Manifestations: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, immune-mediated thrombocytopenia.
3. Type III (Immune Complex Hypersensitivity):
• Mechanism: Immune complexes formed in the bloodstream are deposited in tissues, causing complement activation and inflammation.
• Clinical Manifestations: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), glomerulonephritis.
4. Type IV (Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity):
• Mechanism: Sensitized T cells release cytokines upon antigen re-exposure, attracting macrophages and causing tissue damage.
• Clinical Manifestations: Contact dermatitis, tuberculosis skin test reaction.
Clinical Changes and Symptoms
• Type I:
• Anaphylaxis: Rapid onset, difficulty breathing, collapse, hives, swelling.
• Atopic Dermatitis: Pruritus, erythema, chronic skin infections.
• Type II:
• Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia: Pale mucous membranes, jaundice, tachycardia, weakness.
• Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia: Petechiae, ecchymoses, bleeding tendencies.
• Type III:
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Polyarthritis, skin lesions, renal disease.
• Glomerulonephritis: Proteinuria, edema, hypertension.
• Type IV:
• Contact Dermatitis: Red, itchy, and inflamed skin at the site of contact.
• Tuberculosis Skin Test Reaction: Local swelling and induration at the test site.
Diagnosis
1. Clinical Examination:
• History: Detailed history of clinical signs, potential allergens, and previous reactions.
• Physical Examination: Identifying characteristic signs based on the type of hypersensitivity.
2. Laboratory Tests:
• CBC and Serum Biochemistry: Assessing overall health, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal function.
• Allergy Testing: Intradermal skin tests or serum IgE testing for Type I hypersensitivity.
• Coombs Test: Detects antibodies against red blood cells for Type II hypersensitivity.
• Immunofluorescence: Identifies immune complexes in tissues for Type III hypersensitivity.
• Patch Testing: Identifies contact allergens for Type IV hypersensitivity.
3. Imaging Studies:
• Radiography and Ultrasound: Assessing organ involvement in systemic hypersensitivity reactions.
Management Strategies
1. Type I (Immediate Hypersensitivity):
• Anaphylaxis: Immediate administration of epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids. Supportive care includes oxygen therapy and IV fluids.
• Atopic Dermatitis: Allergen avoidance, antihistamines, corticosteroids, immunotherapy (allergen-specific desensitization), and anti-inflammatory medications.
2. Type II (Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity):
• Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia: Immunosuppressive therapy (corticosteroids, azathioprine), blood transfusions if needed.
• Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenia: Immunosuppressive therapy, platelet transfusions in severe cases.
3. Type III (Immune Complex Hypersensitivity):
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Immunosuppressive therapy, NSAIDs for pain and inflammation, supportive care for organ involvement.
• Glomerulonephritis: Immunosuppressive therapy, management of hypertension and proteinuria, renal support.
4. Type IV (Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity):
• Contact Dermatitis: Allergen avoidance, topical corticosteroids, and systemic corticosteroids for severe reactions.
• Tuberculosis Skin Test Reaction: Monitoring and management based on underlying TB infection.
Medications
• Antihistamines:
• Diphenhydramine: 1-2 mg/kg orally or intramuscularly every 8-12 hours.
• Corticosteroids:
• Prednisolone: 0.5-2 mg/kg orally or intravenously once daily for immunosuppression.
• Epinephrine:
• Anaphylaxis: 0.01 mg/kg intramuscularly or intravenously, repeat as needed.
• Immunosuppressive Drugs:
• Azathioprine: 2 mg/kg orally once daily.
• Cyclosporine: 5-10 mg/kg orally once daily for atopic dermatitis.
• NSAIDs:
• Carprofen: 2.2 mg/kg orally once daily for inflammation and pain.
Prognosis
• Type I Hypersensitivity: Good with prompt treatment, but recurrent exposure to allergens can cause repeated reactions.
• Type II Hypersensitivity: Variable; early and aggressive treatment improves outcomes.
• Type III Hypersensitivity: Dependent on the extent of organ involvement and response to immunosuppressive therapy.
• Type IV Hypersensitivity: Good with allergen avoidance and appropriate treatment.
Summary for Veterinary Professionals
• Hypersensitivity diseases in animals involve exaggerated immune responses classified into four types (I-IV).
• Diagnosis involves a combination of clinical examination, laboratory tests, imaging studies, and specific allergy or immunological tests.
• Management strategies include allergen avoidance, immunosuppressive therapy, antihistamines, corticosteroids, and supportive care.
• Prognosis varies with the type of hypersensitivity and promptness of treatment.
This summary provides detailed information on hypersensitivity diseases in animals, covering definitions, types, pathophysiology, clinical changes, diagnosis, management strategies, medications, and prognosis, essential for BCSE test preparation.
A 1-year old mixed breed stray dog is presented for extreme pruritis and the lesion shown in the picture. The dog was recently found and adopted off the street and has been itching despite being bathed and treated with flea preventatives. The owner reports that she has been itching and developing rashes on her own body since adopting this dog. Your physical exam shows that the dog has several additional similar lesions on the other legs, chest, and ventral abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cutaneous lymphoma
Sarcoptes infestation
Demodex infection
Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: Sarcoptes infestation.
The key to this question is that Sarcoptic mange is extremely pruritic and can be transmitted to people, including this dog’s owner. Diagnosis of this disease is usually based on clinical impression and potential for exposure to the mites. A positive skin scraping would be most definitive, but scrapes often come back negative and trial therapy would need to be instituted.
Demodex is not transmittable to people and does not typically cause extreme pruritus like Sarcoptes.
Lymphoma and squamous cell carcinoma are less likely because they typically would occur in older animals and neither are usually particularly itchy.
A 11-year old male castrated Golden Retriever presents for collapse with muffled heart sounds on examination. You ultrasound the heart and obtain the following image; the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) are labeled. A large mass is seen in the right atrioventricular groove with pericardial effusion. What is the likely diagnosis?
Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage
Hemangiosarcoma
Chemodectoma
Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma
Answer: Hemangiosarcoma.
The correct answer is hemangiosarcoma. Hemangiosarcoma of the heart has a predilection for the right auricle of dogs, with Golden Retrievers being predisposed. Stabilization of this patient will require pericardiocentesis; prognosis is guarded and may include chemotherapy, pericardiectomy, or rarely auriculectomy. Chemodectoma arises from the ascending aorta and heart base; lymphoma is rare in the heart of dogs and is more commonly metastatic than a single mass. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage is incorrect because of the clear evidence of a mass.
An 11-year old female Pomeranian presents to you for coughing and exercise intolerance. On exam: Wt: 9.25 lbs, T: 101.2F (38.4 C), HR: 132 bpm, RR: Panting, mucous membranes are pink. She has mild tracheal sensitivity and a grade III-IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and grade II/VI right apical holosystolic murmur. Femoral pulses are strong and synchronous, with a regular rhythm. She has harsh lung sounds bilaterally. On abdominal palpation, you note hepatomegaly. You find bilateral luxating patellas. You take chest radiographs (see image) and decide to treat the dog based on these findings. Which medication plan is most appropriate?
An 11-year old female Pomeranian presents to you for coughing and exercise intolerance. On exam: Wt: 9.25 lbs, T: 101.2F (38.4 C), HR: 132 bpm, RR: Panting, mucous membranes are pink. She has mild tracheal sensitivity and a grade III-IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and grade II/VI right apical holosystolic murmur. Femoral pulses are strong and synchronous, with a regular rhythm. She has harsh lung sounds bilaterally. On abdominal palpation, you note hepatomegaly. You find bilateral luxating patellas. You take chest radiographs (see image) and decide to treat the dog based on these findings. Which medication plan is most appropriate?
Answer: Furosemide and Enalpril.
The radiograph here shows a severe symmetrical alveolar pattern in the perihilar region extending to the right and left caudal lung lobes. The heart is tall on the lateral view causing dorsal elevation of the trachea.
This, in conjunction with the physical findings, is compatible with congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to mitral valve regurgitation. The dog also has hepatic congestion evident by enlargement on the radiograph.
Treatment for CHF include diuretics (furosemide/Lasix, hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone), arterial vasodilators (enalapril, benazepril, amlodipine, hydralazine), positive inotropes (pimobendan), and venodilators (nitroglycerine).
Clavamox and enrofloxacin are antibiotics which could be used to treat pneumonia, but that is not this dog’s problem. Immiticide is the treatment for heartworm. Atenolol is a beta blocker and not part of the management of mitral regurgitation or CHF. Atropine or a pacemaker would be indicated for conduction problems.
Annotations:
There is marked elongation of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral views (yellow line) resulting in dorsal displacement of the trachea (red area), consistent with left ventricular enlargement.
A large focal bulge is noted at the caudodorsal aspect of the cardiac silhouette consistent with left atrial enlargement. (Purple circle)
A focal soft tissue opaque bulge is also noted in the region of the left auricle on the DV view. (Pink circle)
There is concurrent mild widening of the cardiac silhouette on the lateral views consistent with right-sided cardiomegaly (orange line).
The cranial lobar pulmonary veins are larger than the corresponding arteries. There is mild distension of the caudal lobar pulmonary arteries and veins with right caudal lobar pulmonary vein slightly larger than the corresponding artery. (green lines)
There is a marked diffuse unstructured interstitial pattern to early alveolar pattern (blue circle), most severe in the dorsal aspects of the right caudal and left caudal lung lobes.
The liver is mildly enlarged, extending beyond the costal arch with rounded caudoventral margins. (brown circle)
Radiographs provided by Adrien Hespel, DVM, MS, DACVR and University of Tennessee College of Veterinary
https://www.vetprep.com/simboards/qod/dailydose-answer.jsp?userId=jQjubBVWYJXhT4059263&questionId=FowKpBbZuyZovO252381&answerOrder=02431&historyId=363366521&answerId=IqSnLnHFCDKFAL252382&
Some farmed salmon appear lethargic with darkened skin and exophthalmia. Necropsy of one that died reveals vent hemorrhages and grayish granulomatous nodules on the kidneys. Gram stain from the kidney lesion reveals the intracellular bacteria shown below. What is the best option to prevent this condition?
A - Screen broodstock with qPCR and cull positives
B - Increase water temp in tank/pond to 52-63 °F_ (11-17°C).i supplement diet with vitamin C
C - Treat incoming fish positive on ELISA with formalin
D - Vaccinate all new arrivals
E - Oxytetracycline in water; remove fish older than 2 years
Answer: Screen broodstock with qPCR and cull positives
Renibacterium salmoninarum (bacterial kidney disease, BKD) is best prevented by screening broodstock with qPCR and culling any positives to prevent vertical transmission. Another option is to use ELISA to screen the broodstock and cull the eggs from positives.
R. salmoninarum is one of the relatively few gram-positive organisms that causes disease in fish and it is economically important.
Fish appear lethargic with darkened skin and sometimes exophthalmia. There may be grayish granulomatous nodules on the kidneys. It is transmitted both horizontally and vertically and disease is more common in younger fish.
Bacterial kidney disease is most common in both farmed and wild salmonids, but also occurs in other fish species. Purchase BKD/Renibacterium-free stock to avoid introducing this into the system.
Previously it was recommended to treat females with erythromycin before spawning. However, this is not FDA-approved for treatment in farmed salmonids (there is an INAD available but not best use of antimicrobials and is difficult to get the drug) and survivors remain carriers.
A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected, as shown in this image. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most likely organism infecting the corneal ulcer in this horse?
Answer: Pseudomonas.
The correct answer is Pseudomonas.
Pseudomonas is the most common agent causing bacterial keratitis in the horse. The gram negative cytology provides further evidence that it is the likely culprit.
Staphylococcus can cause keratitis in horses but is gram positive. E. coli and Pasteurella are not agents that are commonly involved with keratitis in the horse.
Which of the following findings is consistent with Tetralogy of Fallot in a dog?
- Left ventricular hypertrophy
- Aortic stenosis
- Polycythemia
- Severe generalized cardiomegaly on thoracic radiography
Answer: Polycythemia.
Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital defect of the heart which includes pulmonic stenosis (not aortic stenosis), dextro-positioned aorta (over-riding), RIGHT ventricular hypertrophy, and a ventricular septal defect. It causes shunting of venous blood across the VSD into the arterial circulation which leads to hypoxemia, and an increased drive for erythropoiesis, causing polycythemia.
Affected animals tend be underdeveloped in size and have a history of exercise intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea, or syncope due to hypoxemia.
Thoracic radiographs usually show a normal to mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette with right ventricular enlargement and pulmonary hypoperfusion due to the shunting of venous blood into the arterial circulation.
Link: Tetralogy of Fallot in Animals
Tetralogy of Fallot in Animals
Definition:
• Congenital heart defect with four components: pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and overriding aorta.
Affected Species:
• Dogs (e.g., Keeshonds, English Bulldogs), cats.
Clinical Signs:
• Cyanosis, exercise intolerance, stunted growth, collapse, seizures.
• Loud ejection heart murmur, precordial thrill.
Diagnosis:
• Echocardiography: Confirms structural defects.
• Radiographs: Right heart enlargement.
• ECG: Right ventricular enlargement.
Treatment:
• Beta-adrenergic blockers to manage outflow obstruction.
• Periodic phlebotomy for polycythemia.
• Surgical options: Palliative techniques, valvuloplasty.
Control:
• Manage based on severity, supportive care, and specific surgical interventions.
What is the appropriate medication for the treatment of Psittacosis (Chlamydophila psittaci)?
Answer: Doxycycline
The only approved treatments for Chlamydophila are tetracyclines such as doxycycline and oxytetracycline. Generally the duration of treatment must be AT LEAST 45 DAYS. Enrofloxacin may decrease the number of organisms and bacterial shedding of Chlamydophila but it is not an approved treatment. Chlamydophila is a reportable disease in most locations. The other medications listed are not appropriate for treatment of Chlamydophila.
Avian Chlamydiosis - Comprehensive Information for NAVLE Test
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Avian Chlamydiosis: Systemic bacterial infection caused by Chlamydia psittaci, also known as psittacosis, parrot fever, or ornithosis. • Causative Agent: Chlamydia psittaci; multiple serotypes and genotypes affect different bird species.
Clinical Signs:
• Symptoms: Nasal and ocular discharge, conjunctivitis, sinusitis, green to yellow-green droppings, fever, inactivity, ruffled feathers, weakness, inappetence, weight loss, drop in egg production.
Pathological Changes:
• Lesions: Serofibrinous polyserositis (airsacculitis, pericarditis, perihepatitis, peritonitis), bronchopneumonia, hepatic necrosis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly.
Diagnosis:
• Tests: Serologic testing, culture, PCR, histopathology, immunohistochemistry, antigen detection methods. • Preferred Samples: Conjunctival, choanal, and cloacal swabs.
Treatment:
• Medications: Tetracyclines (chlortetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline). • Administration: Extended treatment times (2-8 weeks); doxycycline is preferred for its better absorption and tissue distribution.
Prevention:
• Biosecurity Measures: Quarantine, prevention of exposure to wild birds, traffic control, isolation and treatment of affected birds, thorough cleaning and disinfection. • Vaccination: No effective vaccine available.
Zoonotic Risk:
• Transmission to Humans: Through aerosolized organisms from infected birds, handling infected birds or tissues, especially in pet psittacines, pigeon fanciers, veterinarians, farmers, and poultry industry workers. • Human Symptoms: Flu-like symptoms, respiratory disease (pneumonia), endocarditis, myocarditis, hepatitis, encephalitis in severe cases.
The avian Polyoma virus primarily affects which of the following?
Old psittacines
Old passerines
Young psittacines
Young passerines
Answer: Young Psittacines
The correct answer is young psittacines. The disease most prominently affects nestling psittacines and causes delayed feathering, diarrhea, gastrointestinal stasis, ascites, subcutaneous hemorrhages, and death. Some animals may develop melena, hematuria, and green urates. Necropsy findings include enlarged, pale, mottled liver and spleen, which may have white pinpoint foci, petechiations, and ecchymoses. Intranuclear inclusion bodies are sometimes found in tissue samples. A vaccine is now available for the virus.
A 7-month old feedlot steer has died after exhibiting severe fever, dyspnea, cough and respiratory distress. On post mortem there is evidence of fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia (see image). What bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this syndrome?
Mannheimia hemolytica
This is recognized as the worst pathogen in bovine pulmonary disease. It was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.
A 2-year old mare presents to you several weeks after recovering from a mild upper respiratory infection. She now presents with edema and sloughing of the legs (see image), chest and abdomen as well as mucosal petechial hemorrhages. She is sore and reluctant to move. Biopsy of the skin lesion is consistent with aseptic necrotizing vasculitis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Type I hypersensitivity
Purpura hemorrhagica
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia
Bastard strangles
Cantharidin toxicity
Answer: Purpura hemorrhagica
This is the clinical and histologic appearance of purpura hemorrhagica. It is a type-Ill hypersensitivity which is when antigen-antibody complexes accumulate, leading to disease.
Purpura hemorrhagica most commonly occurs 2-4 weeks after exposure to certain infectious agents or vaccines. This condition is most commonly seen subsequent to infection with Streptococcus equi subsp. equi or vaccination against it but it can also be associated with other pathogens, particularly respiratory pathogens including other streptococcal species and equine influenza.
Regardless of the cause, purpura hemorrhagica results from accumulation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit on blood vessel walls and activate a strong immune response (vasculitis). The leaky blood vessels lead to hemorrhage and edema.
Bastard strangles refers to the condition when Streptococcus equi subsp. equi creates abscesses in unusual sites (other than the lymph nodes draining the throat) such as abdominal or lung lymph nodes.
Cantharidin toxicity (also known as blister beetle toxicity) leads to mucosal irritation and results in colic and cystitis. It can also lead to hypocalcemia.
Primary immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (sometimes called idiopathic thrombocytopenia) can be seen in horses but is not consistent with the necrotizing vasculitis described in the case.
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are immediate reactions (such as urticaria) invoked by an antigen or allergen.
Purpura Hemorrhagica in Animals - Comprehensive Information
Definitions and Causative Agents:
• Purpura Hemorrhagica: Immune-mediated vasculitis characterized by hemorrhage and edema. • Causes: Often secondary to infections such as Streptococcus equi (strangles).
Clinical Changes and Symptoms:
• Symptoms: Edema (head, limbs), petechial hemorrhages, fever, mucosal ulcers. • Pathogenesis: Immune complex deposition in blood vessel walls leading to vasculitis and increased vascular permeability.
Diagnosis:
• Tests: History, clinical signs, CBC, biopsy. • Findings: Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, immune complexes in vessel walls.
Treatment:
• Medications: • Corticosteroids: Prednisone (1-2 mg/kg/day). • Antibiotics: For underlying infection. • Supportive Care: Fluids, anti-inflammatory drugs.
What is the most common bacterial pathogen of fish worldwide? This organism is responsible for furunculosis of salmonids, goldfish ulcer disease, carp erythrodermatitis, and trout ulcer disease.
Answer: Aeromonas salmonicida.
The correct answer is Aeromonas salmonicida. Yersinia ruckeri is the causative agent of enteric redmouth disease which is a benign disease with low mortality. Flexibacter columnaris is the causative agent of Columnaris disease (aka peduncle disease, fin rot, black patch necrosis, cotton wool disease). Clinical signs include whitish plaques that may have a red peripheral zone which then become erosions/ulcers and lead to necrosis of the skin.
A 2-year old male castrated Beagle presents for vomiting and diarrhea. The blood smear for a CBC shows microfilariae in the peripheral blood. Which of the following parasites must be ruled out?
Answer: Acanthocheilonema reconditum
The correct answer is Acanthocheilonema reconditum (previously Dipetalonema reconditum). Acanthocheilonema reconditum is a blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of Heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Acanthocheilonema reconditum is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated.
Uncinaria stenocephala, Strongyloides stercoralis, and Filaroides osleri would not be found in the blood.
A producer raising seahorses for the aquarium trade brings you several seahorse fish to examine and necropsy because they have concerns about Mycobacteriosis problems in their facility. You identify granulomas in multiple organs via wet mount, and impression smears are acid fast positive. You advise the producer that seahorses are particularly susceptible to Mycobacteriosis, and that there is no effective treatment. What else do you need to be sure to inform the producer of?
Answer: Mycobacteriosis is zoonotic and may cause Fish Handler’s Disease, a condition that presents as a chronic skin injury on the hands where water or fish was touched.
Mycobacteriosis in fish is commonly caused by Mycobacterium marinum, but other Mycobacterium spp. may cause disease as well. M. marinum is an extremely important disease of seahorses, sea dragons, and striped bass that may cause high mortality. It causes granulomas in many internal organs.
Mycobacterium marinum is an acid-fast positive organism that does not gram stain well. There is no effective treatment for Mycobacteriosis, and prevention through good biosecurity is critical. This is not an OlE Reportable Aquatic Pathogen, but it is zoonotic.
Most immunocompetent people should not be worried, but it can cause Fish Handler’s Disease as described above in immunocompromised people.
Mycobacterium bovis causes disease in cattle and may cause disease in humans. Symptoms in cattle tend to be respiratory related, while humans, in addition to respiratory symptoms, may experience a variety of clinical signs.
A popular working concept of animal welfare, put forward by Dr. David Fraser, involves the assessment of three components of an animal’s current state. Those three components, known as circles, are:
- Affective states, absence of disease, space
- Physical health, affective states, captivity status
- Natural living, physical health, predation
- Physical health, affective states, natural living
- Affective states, emotions, physical health
Answer: Physical health, affective states, natural living
The Three Circles model includes physical health, natural living, and affective states and is intended to expand the Five Freedoms to a deeper level that encompasses how they overlap each other.
Many chickens on a poultry farm are affected by one of two syndromes. Some chicken develop nodules and scabs that are most prominent on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Other chickens develop a diphtheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx. What is the best treatment for this flock?
Answer: Control mosquito populations and vaccinate chicks or replacement chickens with a single immunization against the suspected disease
The condition described here is avian (fowl) pox, also known as sore head or avian diphtheria. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month. This condition can affect most poultry species at any age in one of two forms:
Dry form- Main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease.
Wet form- Mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality.
A ten-year-old female spayed Persian cat is presented for evaluation of a two-month history of a mass. There is a two-cm diameter, firm, solitary, hairless, dome-shaped, ulcerated mass on her left neck just behind the jaw that is bleeding.
Cytology obtained by fine needle aspirate reveals cohesive clusters of large cells with round to oval nuclei that are tightly adherent to each other (see below).
What is the most appropriate treatment option?
A - Surgical removal
B - Cryosurgery, debridement, repeat in 3 - 5 weeks
C - Debulk, intralesional implant chemotherapy, minimize sun and cigarette smoke exposure
D- Immunotherapy, wide margin excision, chemotherapy
E - Wide excision of mass, remove regional lymph node, prednisolone, radiotherapy
Answer: Surgical removal
This is a basal cell tumor. Basal cells make up the base of the epidermis, and a benign growth of these is called a basal cell tumor or adenoma. Although this tumor is benign, surgical removal is the treatment of choice due to ulceration and secondary inflammation. Basal cell carcinomas (the malignant form) do not form raised masses but
appear as ulcers on the head, neck, and legs: surgical removal is also recommended.
Basal cell tumors are common in older cats, accounting for 15-26% of all feline skin tumors. Most are slow growing and typically present for months prior to diagnosis.
Domestic longhairs, Himalayans, and Persians are predisposed.
Note the characteristic cytology findings of epithelial neoplasia present in this case: cohesive clusters of large, round to polygonal cells, demonstrating distinctive cell borders, that are tightly adherent to each other with round to oval nuclei.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/cat-owners/skin-disorders-of-cats/tumors-of-the-skin-in-cats#v3247101
https://eclinpath.com/cytology/cytology-interpretation/
A ten-year-old female spayed Persian cat is presented for evaluation of a two-month history of a mass. There is a two-cm diameter, firm, solitary, hairless, dome-shaped, ulcerated mass on her left neck just behind the jaw that is bleeding.
Cytology obtained by fine needle aspirate reveals cohesive clusters of large cells with round to oval nuclei that are tightly adherent to each other (see below).
What is the most appropriate treatment option?
A - Surgical removal
B - Cryosurgery, debridement, repeat in 3 - 5 weeks
C - Debulk, intralesional implant chemotherapy, minimize sun and cigarette smoke exposure
D- Immunotherapy, wide margin excision, chemotherapy
E - Wide excision of mass, remove regional lymph node, prednisolone, radiotherapy
Answer: Surgical removal
This is a basal cell tumor. Basal cells make up the base of the epidermis, and a benign growth of these is called a basal cell tumor or adenoma. Although this tumor is benign, surgical removal is the treatment of choice due to ulceration and secondary inflammation. Basal cell carcinomas (the malignant form) do not form raised masses but appear as ulcers on the head, neck, and legs: surgical removal is also recommended.
Basal cell tumors are common in older cats, accounting for 15-26% of all feline skin tumors. Most are slow growing and typically present for months prior to diagnosis.
Domestic longhairs, Himalayans, and Persians are predisposed.
Note the characteristic cytology findings of epithelial neoplasia present in this case: cohesive clusters of large, round to polygonal cells, demonstrating distinctive cell borders, that are tightly adherent to each other with round to oval nuclei.
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/cat-owners/skin-disorders-of-cats/tumors-of-the-skin-in-cats#v3247101
https://eclinpath.com/cytology/cytology-interpretation/
