Dogs Flashcards
A 6-year old male neutered terrier mix weighing 10kg presents to you after having ingested 3 pieces of sugar-free gum containing xylitol. What bloodwork abnormality are you expecting to find?
Hypernatremia
Hyperglycemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypocalcemia
Hyponatremia
Answer: Hypoglycrmia
Explanation
Xylitol is a sugar alcohol present in sugar-free gum that, when ingested, causes a rapid release of insulin in dogs.
After ingestion, clinically significant hypoglycemia can develop within 30 minutes and can last for more than 12 hours. Acute hepatic necrosis and failure after higher doses of xylitol ingestion can occur as well.
A 6-year old female spayed English Pointer presents for lethargy and weight gain. The owner notes that the dog is eating and drinking a normal amount, but the dog is still gaining weight. A physical exam reveals weak pelvic limbs, facial nerve paralysis, a symmetrically patchy haircoat, and seborrhea. Lab work reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia with a PCV of 29% (35-57%), lipemic serum, and cholesterol of 1090 mg/dl (135-278 mg/dl). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism
Adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism
Answer: Hypothyroidism.
Explanation
The correct answer is hypothyroidism. The clinical signs, physical exam findings, and lab work abnormalities are classical for hypothyroidism. Other common abnormalities seen with hypothyroidism include pyoderma, neuromuscular signs (ataxia, knuckling, vestibular signs, etc), markedly elevated triglycerides, and a mild normocytic, normochromic anemia. Hyperthyroidism rarely occurs in dogs. You would expect to see polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia with hyperadrenocorticism.
A 1-year old German Shepherd Dog presents for its first physical exam. Cardiac auscultation reveals a continuous murmur. Thoracic radiographs and echocardiography lead you to the diagnosis of a very large, cylinder-shaped patent ductus arteriosus with left-to-right shunting of blood. Which of the following statements is most true?
Furosemide and enalapril are the most appropriate forms of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Coil embolization is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form
of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Placement of constrictor ring is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Answer: Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form
of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
The correct answer is surgical ligation of the PDA is the most appropriate form of treatment. A large cylindrical PDA is unlikely amenable to closure via traditional coil embolization. Most canine PDAs are funnel-shaped with the smaller end of the funnel attached to the pulmonary artery, and the wider end attached to the aorta. The funnel shape is what allows the coils to lodge in place and cause closure of the PDA. Coils would not stay in place in a large, cylindrical PDA, so surgical ligation is the treatment of choice for this patient. There are newer nickel-titanium devices (Amplatz Canine Ductal Occluder) that show promise for minimally-invasive closure of PDAs which do not taper, but this answer was not provided. Ameroid constrictor rings are typically used for ligating hepatic shunts, and not for PDAs. Medical management with diuretics and heart drugs are only indicated prior to correction of the PDA if the dog is in heart failure.
A 12 year old female spayed Spaniel mix presents for progressive lethargy over the last week. This morning, the owner noticed the dog was having a hard time breathing and had pale gums. A blood smear from the dog is shown below.
The larger arrow is pointing to which type of cell?
Nucleated red blood cell
Monocyte
Lymphocyte
Myelocyte
Answer: Nucleated red blood cell
The larger arrow is pointing to a nucleated red blood. These are immature erythrocytes that have been released early from the bone marrow in response to the dog’s anemia and increased need for oxygen carrying capacity.
These cells are typically larger than a mature erythrocyte, have a very dark purple nucleus, and have basophilic cytoplasm. There are 3 nucleated red blood cells in this picture.
Monocytes are essentially macrophages found in the blood whose function is phagocytosis. They have a blue-gray cytoplasm and a lobulated or bean shaped nucleus.
Lymphocytes are typically about the size of a red blood cell and are mostly made up of a nucleus with just a slender rim of cytoplasm. They are involved with antibody production as well as cell mediated immunity.
Myelocytes are immature granulocytes that should normally only be found in the bone marrow.
A 12-year-old male intact English bulldog presents to your hospital for a drop of blood noted coming from the penis. The dog has no other prior medical history. On examination, both testicles are descended and palpate normal in size. A rectal exam reveals a large, but symmetrical prostate gland. You extrude the penis and note what is illustrated in the image below. What is your recommendation to the owner?
There is an abscess of the penile tip, likely of bacterial origin. We should begin antibiotic therapy once we obtain a culture.
This is a urethral prolapse and can be repaired by performing a urethropexy.
There is a mass at the tip of the penis, which will likely respond to radiation therapy.
There is a mass at the tip of the penis suspicious for a mast cell tumor. You should amputate the tip and submit it for histopathology.
Answer: This is a urethral prolapse and can be repaired by performing a urethropexy.
The image is classic for a urethral prolapse. This condition is almost exclusive to young English bulldogs. It is interesting that this patient was incidentally 12 years of age. The cause of urethral prolapse is not always determined but may be secondary to excessive masturbation, sexual excitement, or an infection. Treatment involves either urethropexy to replace the prolapse or amputation of the tip. The patient should be examined closely to ensure there is no evidence of concurrent neoplasia or infection.
Lucy is an 11 year-old female spayed Labrador retriever presenting in acute respiratory distress after playing fetch on a hot summer day. On initial exam, Lucy is panting heavily and a loud stridor is audible. Upon further history-taking the owners tell you that Lucy’s bark has changed over the past couple of months. What is the most common complication/side effect of the recommended treatment for Lucy’s condition?
Drooling
Megaesophagus
Aspiration pneumonia
Tracheal collapse
Kidney disease
Answer: Aspiration Neumonia.
Explanation
Lucy’s presentation is typical for a dog with laryngeal paralysis. The arytenoid cartilages fail to abduct during inspiration, resulting in upper airway obstruction. These patients often present with acute clinical signs even though the disease is chronic in nature. Surgical arytenoid lateralization (tie-back) is the treatment of choice but with the chronically opened airway, aspiration pneumonia can be a common side effect. If surgery is not an option, prednisone can be given to help reduce laryngeal inflammation.
A 2-year-old neutered male greyhound presents for crusting along his ear pinnae and elbows. The owner also explains that the dog is intensely pruritic. The dog mainly lives indoors but is also let outside into the backyard. The owner lives on a large rural property that is heavily wooded. You perform cytology, which returns negative for bacteria and yeast. You are highly suspicious of Sarcoptes. Which of the following would be most useful to help in your diagnosis of Sarcoptic mange?
Superficial skin scrape, histopathology, trichogram
Deep skin scrape, pinnal-pedal reflex, clinical signs
Histopathology, deep skin scrape, trichogram
Pinnal-pedal reflex, clinical signs, superficial skin scrape
Clinical signs, superficial skin scrape, trichogram
Answer: Pinnal-pedal reflex, clinical signs, superficial skin scrape
A superficial skin scrape is most useful. A deep skin scrape is used for Demodex mites, which reside in the hair follicles. Superficial skin scraping is indicated for Sarcoptic mange, since this mite lives in the stratum corneum.
Pinnal-pedal reflex can be positive in 70% of Sarcoptic mange infestation but can also be positive in any dog with pruritus. Clinical signs are helpful because Sarcoptes typically infects the non-haired portions of the skin such as the ear pinnae, elbows, hocks, and ventral abdomen. If the mite is not found on skin scraping and you have clinical signs indicative of Sarcoptes then a therapeutic trial is warranted. Keep in mind that in most cases you will not be able to find the mite.
A trichogram would not be indicated. This method can be used to diagnose dermatophytosis and sometimes Demodex. Histopathology will reveal a perivascular dermatitis that is non-specific. Rarely are the mites found on histopathology.
A 10 year old female spayed Schipperke dog presents to your emergency clinic for profuse vomiting for several days and weakness. You perform initial bloodwork and find that her blood pH is 7.6 (7.35-7.45) and her potassium is 1.8 mmol/L (3.4-4.9 mmol/L). She weighs 12 kg. You immediately start her on intravenous fluids supplemented with potassium. What is the maximum rate of intravenous potassium that would be considered safe to administer to this dog?
6 mEq/hr
12 mEq/hr
24 mEq/hr
18 mEq/hr
3 mEq/hr
Answer: 6mEq/hr
Explanation
The maximum safe rate of potassium infusion is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr. As this dog weighs 12 kg, the maximum is 6 mEq/hr. This is one of those rates that you need to know. Administering potassium more rapidly than this can result in fatal arrhythmias.
The best diagnostic test to differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs is which of the following?
Urine cortisol: creatinine ratio
Serum cortisol
Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
Answer: High-dose dexamethasone suppression test
The correct answer is high-dose dexamethasone suppression test. HDDST will suppress cortisol secretion in about 75% of PDH patients 3-6 hours post dexamethasone administration. Cortisol secretion does not become suppressed with dexamethasone administration with adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism. If cortisol secretion is suppressed with a HDDST, PDH is diagnosed. If cortisol is not suppressed, there is a
50-50 chance that the hyperadrenocorticism is due to PDH or an adrenal tumor.
LDDST will suppress cortisol secretion in approximately 65% of pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism patients. The urine cortisol:creatinine ratio measures the significance of urine cortisol concentration and may be increased with both PDH and ADH. Serum cortisol levels may be affected in many different situations such as stress; therefore they are an unreliable indicator of disease. An elevated serum cortisol level will not differentiate between PDH and ADH.
Which is a cause of primary bacterial pneumonia in dogs?
Bacillus spp.
Bordetella bronchisepica
Pasteurella multocida
Pseudomonas spp.
Answer: Bordetella bronchiseptica.
Explanation
Although not common, Bordetella infections can develop into a primary pneumonia, particularly if the dog has a weakened immune system. The other choices require an underlying problem such as aspiration, foreign body, viral infection, neoplasia, etc. to be present in order to create an infection.
Secondary bacterial infections can be extremely severe and need to be diagnosed and treated appropriately and aggressively.
Which of the following is the most likely side effect of KBr therapy in epileptic dogs?
Sedation
Pancreatitis
Vomiting
Polyuria and polydipsia
Answer: Sedation.
Explanation
The correct answer is sedation. Possible side effects of KBr therapy include polyphagia, polyuria and polydipsia, ataxia, skin reactions, pancreatitis, and vomiting. However, sedation is more likely to occur than these.
A 7 year old Poodle presents for a left sided head tilt, a ventral strabismus on the left, and right horizontal nystagmus. The dog is obtunded, has conscious proprioception deficits in both right limbs, and a right sided facial paralysis. Where is the lesion?
Peripheral nerve on the right
Central nervous system on the right
Central nervous system on the left
Peripheral nerve on the left
Answer: Central nervous system on the right
Explanation
The correct answer is central nervous system on the right. This dog has paradoxical vestibular disease. This disease is usually caused by a destructive lesion in the CNS in which there is loss of inhibition of the vestibular output on the side of the lesion. There is therefore a relative increase in vestibular output on the side of the lesion, causing vestibular signs on the side opposite the lesion (yes, this can be confusing). In this case, the right sided lesion has vestibular signs that would normally localize the lesion to the left side. When the lesion causes vestibular signs and proprioceptive deficits, the lesion is ipsilateral to the side with the proprioceptive deficits.
A 9-year old female spayed German Shepherd presented for extreme lethargy. Physical examination and diagnostics were consistent with a hemoabdomen.
The patient was taken to surgery and a splenic mass was found (see image). The remainder of your abdominal exploration was unremarkable. What is the most common malignant tumor of the spleen in the dog?
Transitional cell carcinoma
Hemangiosarcoma
Lymphoma
Mast cell tumor
Answer: Hemangiosarcoma
The correct answer is hemangiosarcoma. This tumor accounts for approximately 2/3 of malignant splenic masses and will have metastasized in >90% of cases by the time they are diagnosed. Chemotherapy would be recommended for adjunct therapy after surgical removal of the spleen. Lymphoma is not as commonly found in the spleen in dogs, and you would have expected enlarged lymph nodes to be mentioned in the question. Mast cell tumors occur with some frequency in the spleen of cats but not so often in dogs. Transitional cell carcinomas are typically found in the urinary bladder, since that is where transitional cells are located.
A 3-year old Husky bitch comes to your clinic. The owner tells you that the bitch is in heat and has been receptive to males. Which of the following would you expect to see on vaginal cytology?
B
D
C
A
Answer: C
Dogs in estrus should have cellular vaginal cytology consisting predominantly (>90%) of cornified epithelial cells. This corresponds to image
C.
Image A is from a dog in anestrus, note that it is less cellular. Image B is from a dog in early diestrus.
Image D is from a dog in diestrus.
On routine physical exam, you find Dipylidium caninum segments on the perianal region of a dog. Which of the following assumptions can be made?
The dog was infected in utero by transplacental transmission
The dog acquired the infection by coprophagia
The dog acquired the infection by eating uncooked beef
The dog should be treated for fleas and
tapeworms
Answer: The dog should be treated for fleas and tapeworms
Explanation
The correct answer is the dog should be treated for fleas and tapeworms. Fleas are a required intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum. Dogs become infected by swallowing fleas that carry the tapeworm eggs. Finding proglottids of this tapeworm in the feces or perianally indicates the presence of fleas on the dog.
Which of the following is an appropriate objective in the repair of an articular fracture in a dog?
6-8 weeks of strict post-operative rest
Early return to function
Avoid rigid fixation of the fracture
50% or greater alignment
Answer: Early return to function.
Explanation
The correct answer is early return to function. With articular fractures, the 3 major goals of the clinician are:
Rigid fixation of the fracture fragments; neglecting to do this will result in loose fracture fragments within the joints that will promote osteoarthritis.
Anatomic realignment (50% or even 75% is not adequate with articular fractures, in contrast to long bone fractures)
Early return to function. With long bone fractures, extended rest is recommended to promote stability and healing of the bone. The opposite is true in articular fractures where prolonged rest after repair will promote fibrosis, causing decreased range of motion in the joint.
Which digit has been partially amputated in the picture below? (hint: this is the right forelimb of a dog)
5th digit
3rd digit
4th digit
1st digit
2nd digit
Answer: 3rd digit
Explanation
The correct answer is 3rd digit. Remember that a dog’s digits are numbered from 1 to 5, starting medially with the small 1st metacarpal that is associated with the dewclaw (essentially like the thumb on a primate). This digit is not well visible in the photograph, but you should still be able to see that it is the third digit that has had the ungual crest and process amputated.
You are treating an 8-year old mix breed terrier for ventricular tachycardia post splenectomy. You determine that you’ve given too much lidocaine to the patient. What clinical signs or laboratory findings are you most likely to see initially?
Muscle tremors and seizures
Bradycardia and hypotension
Increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing
Methemoglobinemia
Diarrhea
Answer: Muscle tremors and seizures.
Explanation
Early clinical signs associated with lidocaine toxicity include neurological symptoms such as seizures and tremors. Nausea and vomiting may occur, but is usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression can also occur, but usually later on in the course of clinical signs.
Lidocaine toxicity in an 8-year-old mixed breed terrier initially presents with neurological symptoms like muscle tremors and seizures. While nausea and vomiting may occur, these are usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression are possible but typically occur later in the clinical course. Early recognition and intervention are critical to manage toxicity effectively.
You are treating an 8-year old mix breed terrier for ventricular tachycardia post splenectomy. You determine that you’ve given too much lidocaine to the patient. What clinical signs or laboratory findings are you most likely to see initially?
Muscle tremors and seizures
Bradycardia and hypotension
Increased respiratory rate and difficulty breathing
Methemoglobinemia
Diarrhea
Answer: Muscle tremors and seizures.
Explanation
Early clinical signs associated with lidocaine toxicity include neurological symptoms such as seizures and tremors. Nausea and vomiting may occur, but is usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression can also occur, but usually later on in the course of clinical signs.
Lidocaine toxicity in an 8-year-old mixed breed terrier initially presents with neurological symptoms like muscle tremors and seizures. While nausea and vomiting may occur, these are usually transient. Cardiovascular and respiratory depression are possible but typically occur later in the clinical course. Early recognition and intervention are critical to manage toxicity effectively.
A recently adopted 5-month-old female spayed mixed breed dog presents for vaccines, and you auscult a V/VI murmur at the left heart base. It is a very loud continuous murmur, which sounds like a washing machine. The owner reports normal activity, energy, and appetite. Her gums are pink with good refill. She has strong synchronous pulses. Based on your assessment, you most suspect which of the following?
Patent ductus arteriosus
Heartworm infection
Physiologic murmur
Atrial septal defect
Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation
A patent ductus arteriosus typically is associated with a loud, continuous murmur that may be ausculted at the left heart base/axillary region. The sound is sometimes described as sounding like a “washing machine.” Subaortic and pulmonic stenosis also typically have loud systolic murmurs heard best at the left heart base.
An atrial septal defect is not typically associated with an intense murmur. More commonly, the murmur of ASD is Il-III/VI and is located at the left heart base due to increased flow across the pulmonary valve because of left-to-right shunting. (Note, you do not hear the flow across the atrial septum because it is of very low velocity).
The life cycle of the heartworm is approximately 6 months (this patient is only 5 months old), and heartworm does not typically cause this type of murmur. Physiologic murmurs are typically a grade I-II/VI, and are low intensity.
A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is likely in this 5-month-old dog, given the loud, continuous “washing machine” murmur at the left heart base. PDA is associated with such murmurs, unlike atrial septal defects, which usually have softer murmurs. Heartworm infection is improbable due to the dog’s age, and physiologic murmurs are typically low-intensity.
All of the following drugs are appropriate in the management of tachycardia associated with this arrhythmia in small animal patients except:
Isoproterenol
Atenolol
Digoxin
Procainamide
Diltiazem
Answer: Isoproterenol
This ECG shows atrial fibrillation. Atenolol is a beta-blocker and will slow AV nodal conduction to decrease the ventricular response rate to atrial fibrillation. Procainamide is a class 1A anti-arrhythmic and can be used in attempts to convert atrial fibrillation to a normal sinus rhythm, though it is rarely effective. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker and can be used to slow AV nodal conduction and ventricular response rate. Digoxin will increase vagal tone to the AV node to slow conduction and decrease the heart rate. Isoproterenol is a nonspecific beta receptor agonist, and will increase the ventricular rate in response to atrial fibrillation, thus is inappropriate in the management of this dysrhythmia.
Isoproterenol is inappropriate for managing atrial fibrillation in small animals as it increases ventricular rate. Atenolol (beta-blocker), Digoxin (increases vagal tone), and Diltiazem (calcium channel blocker) slow AV nodal conduction, decreasing the ventricular response rate. Procainamide (class 1A anti-arrhythmic) attempts to convert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm, though rarely effective.
A 10-year old male castrated Collie presents for what the owner calls heart failure. Which of the following is not a typical sign of right heart failure?
Exercise intolerance
Muscle wasting
Hepatomegaly
Tachypnea
Cough
Answer: Cough
Explanation
The correct answer is cough. Coughing is typically a sign of left heart failure that occurs with the development of pulmonary edema and/or bronchial compression from an enlarged left atrium. In right heart failure, tachypnea and dyspnea can develop due to pleural effusion. Hepatomegaly occurs due to venous congestion from the damming of blood into the liver. Exercise intolerance develops because a decrease in cardiac output causes a decrease in oxygenation of tissues. Muscle wasting occurs from loss of protein into effusions and from hepatic and Gl malfunction. Other signs of right heart failure include lethargy, weakness, venous distention, ascites, and peripheral edema.
Cough is not typical of right heart failure; it’s usually associated with left heart failure due to pulmonary edema or bronchial compression. Right heart failure signs include tachypnea, hepatomegaly, exercise intolerance, muscle wasting, lethargy, weakness, venous distention, ascites, and peripheral edema. These result from pleural effusion, venous congestion, and decreased cardiac output.
Which of the following is a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor that can be used in dogs?
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Vasopressin
Epinephrine
Phenylephrine
Answer: Vasopressin
Explanation
The correct answer is vasopressin. Epinephrine and phenylephrine are adrenergic vasoconstrictors.
Isoproterenol and dobutamine cause vasodilation. Vasopressin (also known as anti-diuretic hormone) is a V-1 receptor, non-adrenergic, vasoconstrictor.
Vasopressin is a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor used in dogs. Unlike epinephrine and phenylephrine, which are adrenergic vasoconstrictors, and isoproterenol and dobutamine, which cause vasodilation, vasopressin acts on V-1 receptors to induce vasoconstriction.
Dilated cardiomyopathy is a common disease seen in dogs. Which one of the following medications is indicated for the treatment of DCM?
Atropine
Prednisone
Enalapril
Adriamycin
Answer: Enalapril
Explanation
The correct answer is enalapril. All others would be contraindicated. Enalapril is an ACE-inhibitor, which blunts the adverse effects of the renin-agiotensin-aldosterone system thereby reducing sodium and fluid retention.
Additionally, ACE-inhibitors cause mild vasodilation by preventing the production of angiotensin-ll, which reduces ventricular afterload. Lastly, enalapril and other ACE-inhibitors are protective to cardiac muscle by blunting aldosterone and other hormones which induce cardiac remodeling.
An 8-year old male castrated Labrador Retriever presents for collapsing episodes. You record an ECG, which is shown here. What is your diagnosis?
Complete heart block
Sinus arrest
Normal sinus rhythm
Atrial premature complexes
Ventricular premature complexes
Answer: Complete heart block
The correct answer is complete heart block. The ECG shows frequent P waves and two ventricular escape beats from different foci. Complete heart block typically results from degeneration and fibrosis of the cardiac conduction system. The animal then relies on a slow escape rate, which often results in clinical symptoms of weakness and collapse. Sinus arrest would be seen as periods of flat line on the ECG with no atrial activity; normal sinus rhythm would show conduction of the P waves with QRS complexes following. Ventricular premature complexes is incorrect because the above 2 ventricular beats are escapes, they are not premature.
Atrial premature complexes is wrong as the atrial rhythm is normal.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in the dog?
Valvulotomy by catheterization device
Balloon valvuloplasty
Surgical valvulotomy
Patch grafting of the outflow tract
Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty
Explanation
The correct answer is balloon valvuloplasty. This procedure is performed by inserting a catheter into either a jugular vein or a femoral vein and advancing it into the region of stenosis at the pulmonic outflow tract. Once in place, a balloon surrounding the catheter is inflated to stretch the stenotic region open. Surgical valvulotomy or patch grafting is the treatment used for severe cases that cannot be balloon-dilated.
Balloon valvuloplasty is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in dogs. It involves inserting a catheter through the jugular or femoral vein to the pulmonic outflow tract and inflating a balloon to stretch the stenotic region. Surgical valvulotomy or patch grafting is reserved for severe cases unresponsive to balloon dilation.
A 4-year old male Australian Shepherd is presented to your clinic for treatment of heartworm disease. Which of the following statements about heartworm disease is true?
strict activity restriction of the dog is very important once medical treatment is initiated
Doxycycline can be used to treat heartworms
Ivermectin is the treatment of choice for adult worms
The owners should be informed that dogs often can develop right heart failure post treatment even if the dog was clinically normal pre treatment
Answer: strict activity restriction of the dog is very important once medical treatment is initiated
Explanation
The correct answer is strict activity restriction of the dog is very important once treatment is initiated. Dogs should be restricted in activity at least 4-6 weeks post treatment to decrease the likelihood of thromboembolic events and to allow the lungs to recover from injury due to worm death. Dogs are not as likely to develop right heart failure after treatment of heartworm disease if they were previously clinically normal. Ivermectin is often used to prevent heartworm disease and for treating microfilariae, but the treatment of choice for adult worms is melarsomine IM. Doxycycline is often used to treat the Wolbachia bacteria that are often found with heartworms, but is ineffective at treating the worms themselves.
Strict activity restriction is crucial once heartworm treatment starts, to reduce thromboembolic events and allow lung recovery post worm death. Dogs clinically normal pre-treatment rarely develop right heart failure afterward. Ivermectin prevents heartworm and treats microfilariae, but melarsomine IM treats adult worms. Doxycycline targets Wolbachia bacteria associated with heartworms, not the worms themselves.
Which of the following is a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor that can be used in dogs?
Epinephrine
Phenylephrine
Vasopressin
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Answer: Vasopressin.
Explanation
The correct answer is vasopressin. Epinephrine and phenylephrine are adrenergic vasoconstrictors.
Isoproterenol and dobutamine cause vasodilation. Vasopressin (also known as anti-diuretic hormone) is a V-1 receptor, non-adrenergic, vasoconstrictor.
Which of the following is the most common treatment for aortic stenosis in a dog?
Surgical repair
Medical management with beta blockers
Medical management with furosemide
Balloon dilation of the stenotic region by catheterization
Answer: Medical management with Beta-Blockers
Explanation
The correct answer is medical management with beta blockers. Beta blockers such as atenolol are often used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, thus reducing the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias. The owners should also be warned that the dog will need prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia, since it is at high risk of developing infective endocarditis. Balloon dilation by catheterization can be attempted in some patients, but the results are usually no better than medical therapy with beta blockers.
Surgical repair is difficult, expensive, and does not give very good results either. There is no indication for furosemide unless the dog is in heart failure.
Medical management with beta blockers, such as atenolol, is the most common treatment for aortic stenosis in dogs. Beta blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand and ventricular arrhythmias. Prophylactic antibiotics are needed to prevent infective endocarditis. Balloon dilation offers no better results than beta blockers, and surgical repair is challenging and less effective. Furosemide is only indicated for heart failure.
A 1.5-year old male castrated Boxer presents for exercise intolerance and syncopal episodes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a grade 4/6 left systolic murmur heard best at the base of the heart. Thoracic radiographs show a mildly enlarged left ventricle and left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta. What test will best help you to confirm your tentative diagnosis?
Heartworm antigen test
CT scan
24 hour Holter ECG monitor
Coombs test
Echocardiogram
Answer: Echocardiogram
The breed, clinical history of syncope, radiographic findings, and auscultation findings are most consistent with aortic stenosis. Echocardiography would be the best method for diagnosing the disease in which you would find left ventricular concentric hypertrophy, stenosis of the aortic outflow tract, and post-stenotic dilatation of the ascending aorta.
A Holter monitor is the test of choice for arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) which is also seen in Boxers and causes syncope but does not fit with the physical exam or radiographic findings. Also called Boxer cardiomyopathy, ARVC is a disease associated with fibrofatty infiltrate into the right ventricle resulting in electrical conduction disturbances and resultant VPCs.
A CT scan would not add more information, and cardiac motion typically causes resolution problems on thoracic CT scans. The signs are not consistent with heartworm, which is primarily a right heart problem, or with hemolytic anemia, which a Coombs’ test might be useful for.
A 2 year old male castrated Boxer presents for exercise intolerance and syncopal episodes. Cardiac auscultation reveals a 4/6 left systolic murmur heard best at the base of the heart. Thoracic radiographs show a mildly enlarged left ventricle and left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pulmonic stenosis
Aortic stenosis
Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
Boxer cardiomyopathy
Answer: Aortic stenosis.
Explanation
The correct answer is aortic stenosis. The breed, clinical history of syncope, radiographic findings, and auscultation findings are most consistent with aortic stenosis. Echocardiography would be the best method for diagnosing the disease in which you would find left ventricular hypertrophy, stenosis of the aortic outflow tract, and post-stenotic dilatation of the aorta.
Pulmonic stenosis would result in changes in the right heart and pulmonary outflow tract. Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve typically occurs in older animals, results in a murmur heard best at the left apex, and would not cause a dilation of the ascending aorta.
Boxer cardiomyopathy (or arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy) is principally an electrical disease causing frequent VPCs to occur. Dilation of the heart may occur in 10-15% of cases. The best way to diagnose Boxer cardiomyopathy is with a 24 hour cardiac Holter monitor.
The most likely diagnosis is aortic stenosis. The breed, syncope, radiographic findings (mildly enlarged left ventricle and atrium, segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta), and auscultation (4/6 left systolic murmur at heart base) support this. Echocardiography reveals left ventricular hypertrophy, aortic outflow tract stenosis, and post-stenotic aorta dilation. Pulmonic stenosis affects the right heart, myxomatous mitral valve degeneration affects older dogs with a murmur at the left apex, and Boxer cardiomyopathy involves frequent VPCs and is diagnosed with a Holter monitor.
A 9 month old shepherd cross presents for lethargy and exercise intolerance. Your physical exam reveals dark red mucous membranes and a heart murmur. A CBC reveals a hematocrit of 70% (35-57%). Which of the following could NOT explain the given findings?
Atrial septal defect with tricuspid stenosis
PDA with pulmonary hypertension
Atrial septal defect with systemic hypertension
Tetralogy of Fallot
Answer: Atrial septal defect with tricuspid stenosis
Explanation
The correct answer is atrial septal defect with systemic hypertension. This dog’s polycythemia developed due to shunting of venous blood into the arterial circulation (aka right-to-left shunting) leading to hypoxemia and an increased drive for erythropoiesis and secondary polycythemia. This can be caused by any of the other 3 answer choices. An atrial septal defect with systemic hypertension results in oxygenated blood shunting into the venous circulation or left-to-right shunting, which usually does not cause hypoxemia.
Atrial septal defect with systemic hypertension cannot explain the findings. This condition causes left-to-right shunting, leading to oxygenated blood entering the venous circulation, not hypoxemia. The dog’s polycythemia (hematocrit 70%) suggests right-to-left shunting, leading to hypoxemia and increased erythropoiesis. This can be caused by PDA with pulmonary hypertension, atrial septal defect with tricuspid stenosis, or Tetralogy of Fallot.
A 1-year old German Shepherd Dog presents for its first physical exam. Cardiac auscultation reveals a continuous murmur. Thoracic radiographs and echocardiography lead you to the diagnosis of a very large, cylinder-shaped patent ductus arteriosus with left-to-right shunting of blood. Which of the following statements is most true?
Placement of constrictor ring is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Coil embolization is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Furosemide and enalapril are the most appropriate forms of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Answer: Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Explanation
The correct answer is surgical ligation of the PDA is the most appropriate form of treatment. A large cylindrical PDA is unlikely amenable to closure via traditional coil embolization. Most canine PDAs are funnel-shaped with the smaller end of the funnel attached to the pulmonary artery, and the wider end attached to the aorta. The funnel shape is what allows the coils to lodge in place and cause closure of the PDA. Coils would not stay in place in a large, cylindrical PDA, so surgical ligation is the treatment of choice for this patient. There are newer nickel-titanium devices (Amplatz Canine Ductal Occluder) that show promise for minimally-invasive closure of PDAs which do not taper, but this answer was not provided. Ameroid constrictor rings are typically used for ligating hepatic shunts, and not for PDAs. Medical management with diuretics and heart drugs are only indicated prior to correction of the PDA if the dog is in heart failure.
Surgical ligation is the most appropriate treatment for a large, cylinder-shaped PDA. Traditional coil embolization is ineffective for cylindrical PDAs, as coils need a funnel shape to lodge properly. The newer Amplatz Canine Ductal Occluder might be effective but wasn’t an option. Ameroid constrictor rings are for hepatic shunts, and medical management with furosemide and enalapril is only for pre-correction heart failure.
Which of the following drugs and treatment intervals are appropriate for preventing heartworm disease in dogs?
Milbemycin twice daily
Ivermectin once a month
Milbemycin oxime once daily
Ivermectin once daily
Diethylcarbamazine once monthly
Answer: Ivermectin once a month.
Explanation
The correct answer is ivermectin once monthly. Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) can be used to prevent heartworm, but is administered once daily. Milbemycin oxime is another preventative used once monthly.
Which of the following has the least effect on heart rate?
Morphine
Ketamine
Propofol
Thiopental
Answer: Propofol.
Explanation
The correct answer is propofol. Ketamine causes an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. It is considered seizureogenic and has poor muscle relaxation effects, however it provides good analgesia. Thiopental is an ultra fast acting thiobarbiturate that causes an increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and decreased cardiac contractility. It is also an arrhythmogenic agent. Morphine is an opioid that causes bradycardia. Propofol does not result in any significant cardiac changes. It is ultra-short in duration, can cause apnea and myoclonus, and is considered anticonvulsive. It may cause a mild bradycardia but you mainly see that when used in combination with other opiates. More recently propofol has been associated with myocardial depression and hypotension in critically ill dogs and may not be the induction agent of choice as a result. Despite these findings, propofol still has the least effect on heart rate.
Propofol has the least effect on heart rate. Ketamine increases heart rate and blood pressure, Thiopental increases heart rate and blood pressure but decreases cardiac contractility, and Morphine causes bradycardia. Propofol primarily causes mild bradycardia when combined with other opiates and has minimal cardiac impact, making it the best option regarding heart rate stability.
Which of the following is true about diltiazem?
Diltiazem slows the heart by antagonizing beta adrenergic receptors.
Diltiazem speeds up the heart because it is a beta adrenergic agonist.
Diltiazem slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells.
Diltiazem speeds up the heart rate by increasing the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells.
Answer: Diltiazem slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells.
Explanation
The correct answer is diltiazem slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells.
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used to slow the heart to treat supraventricular tachycardias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and hypertension.
Diltiazem slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into myocardial cells. It is a calcium channel blocker used to manage supraventricular tachycardias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and hypertension. It does not antagonize beta adrenergic receptors or act as a beta adrenergic agonist.
A 2-year old male castrated Beagle presents for vomiting and diarrhea. The blood smear for a CBC shows microfilariae in the peripheral blood. Which of the following parasites must be ruled out?
Acanthocheilonema reconditum
Filaroides osleri
Strongyloides stercoralis
Uncinaria stenocephala
Answer: Acanthocheilonema reconditum
Explanation
The correct answer is Acanthocheilonema reconditum (previously Dipetalonema reconditum).
Acanthocheilonema reconditum is a blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of Heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Acanthocheilonema reconditum is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated. Uncinaria stenocephala, Strongyloides stercoralis, and Filaroides osleri would not be found in the blood.
Diltiazem slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into myocardial cells. It is a calcium channel blocker used to manage supraventricular tachycardias, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and hypertension. It does not antagonize beta adrenergic receptors or act as a beta adrenergic agonist.
Which of the following statements is true about central venous pressure?
It is a direct measure of preload
It is an estimation of afterload
it is a direct measure of blood pressure in the cranial vena cava
The measurement is independent of cardiac output
The measurement is independent of venous vessel tone
Answer: it is a direct measure of blood pressure in the cranial vena cava
Explanation
The correct answer is it is a direct measure of blood pressure in the cranial vena cava. Venous blood volume, venous vessel tone, and cardiac output determine the CVP. CVP is an estimate of preload, not a direct measurement. Cardiac output is one of the factors along with venous tone and venous blood volume in obtaining CVP. Afterload is the force against which the myocardium must contract.
Central venous pressure (CVP) is a direct measure of blood pressure in the cranial vena cava. It is influenced by venous blood volume, venous vessel tone, and cardiac output. CVP estimates preload but does not directly measure it. Afterload is the resistance against which the myocardium contracts.
Which abnormal heart sound are you least likely to be able to auscult in a dog?
Atrial fibrillation
Gallop rhythm
First degree AV block
Sinus arrhythmia
Answer: First degree AV block
Explanation
The correct answer is first degree AV block as this is a very subtle prolongation between the P and the R wave which can usually only be recognized by evaluation of an ECG strip.
First degree AV block is least likely to be ausculted in a dog, as it involves a subtle prolongation between the P and R wave detectable only via ECG. Other abnormal heart sounds like atrial fibrillation, gallop rhythm, and sinus arrhythmia are more easily ausculted.
You diagnose a dog with a larger left to right ventricular septal defect with advanced sequelae to the abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely radiographic appearance of this dog’s thorax?
Right ventricular and left atrial enlargement with pulmonary vasculature hypoperfusion
Left atrial and left ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion
Right ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion and a normal left heart
Enlargement of all 4 heart chambers and hyperperfusion of the pulmonary vasculature
Answer: Left atrial and left ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion
Explanation
The correct answer is left atrial and left ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion. In dogs with a VSD, the shunt occurs during systole when both ventricles are contracting so blood is shunted from the left ventricle almost directly into the pulmonary artery. The right ventricle acts as a conduit between the left ventricle and pulmonary artery and is less commonly affected by the shunted blood. The excess blood flow is found in the pulmonary vasculature, left atrium, and left ventricle, thus enlarging these structures.
The most likely radiographic appearance for a dog with a larger left to right ventricular septal defect and advanced sequelae is left atrial and left ventricular enlargement with pulmonary hyperperfusion. In VSD, blood shunts from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery during systole, causing excess blood flow in the pulmonary vasculature, left atrium, and left ventricle, enlarging these structures.
A 15-year old male castrated terrier mix presents for cough and rapid, shallow breathing. You auscult a grade IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and crackles throughout both lung fields. An echocardiogram is performed, shown here. What findings are shown on this echocardiogram?
Tricuspid valve endocarditis
Mitral valve prolapse
Pulmonic stenosis
Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
Answer: Mitral valve prolapse.
Explanation
The correct answer is mitral valve prolapse. Note how the mitral valve bends back into the left atrium consistent with mitral valve prolapse. The valve is also thick and mitral regurgitation is likely, which fits with the heart murmur reported. The left ventricular lumen is dilated and walls appear of normal thickness, so concentric hypertrophy is not present. The pulmonic valve is not seen in this image plane. The right ventricle is not well seen either, but in the very near field, the right ventricular wall appears normal. What can be seen of the tricuspid valve does not appear to have any vegetations consistent with endocarditis.
The echocardiogram shows mitral valve prolapse, evidenced by the mitral valve bending back into the left atrium. The valve is thickened, likely causing mitral regurgitation, consistent with the reported heart murmur. The left ventricular lumen is dilated with normal wall thickness, ruling out concentric hypertrophy. The pulmonic valve and right ventricle are not visible, and the tricuspid valve lacks vegetations indicative of endocarditis.
Mitral regurgitation in dogs eventually results in which of the following?
Eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle
Concentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
Concentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle
Answer: Eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle
Explanation
The correct answer is eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle. Mitral regurgitation is the process of blood flowing back from the left ventricle to the left atrium due to a defect in the valve. The excess blood flow causes volume overload of the left atrium leading to eccentric hypertrophy or dilation of the chamber. The excess blood volume will then return to the left ventricle during the next diastole, resulting in dilation and eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle as well. Concentric hypertrophy occurs in cardiac chambers when they are pressure overloaded, such as in the case of pulmonic stenosis or aortic stenosis.
Mitral regurgitation in dogs leads to eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium and left ventricle. The regurgitation causes volume overload, resulting in dilation and eccentric hypertrophy of the left atrium. This excess blood then flows into the left ventricle during diastole, causing its dilation and eccentric hypertrophy. Concentric hypertrophy is associated with pressure overload conditions like pulmonic or aortic stenosis.
Which of the following findings is consistent with Tetralogy of Fallot in a dog?
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Aortic stenosis
Polycythemia
Severe generalized cardiomegaly on thoracic radiography
Answer: Polycythemia
Explanation
Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital defect of the heart which includes pulmonic stenosis (not aortic stenosis), dextro-positioned aorta (over-riding), RIGHT ventricular hypertrophy, and a ventricular septal defect. It causes shunting of venous blood across the VSD into the arterial circulation which leads to hypoxemia, and an increased drive for erythropoiesis, causing polycythemia.
Affected animals tend be underdeveloped in size and have a history of exercise intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea, or syncope due to hypoxemia. Thoracic radiographs usually show a normal to mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette with right ventricular enlargement and pulmonary hypoperfusion due to the shunting of venous blood into the arterial circulation.
Polycythemia is consistent with Tetralogy of Fallot in dogs. This congenital defect includes pulmonic stenosis, dextro-positioned aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and a ventricular septal defect, leading to venous blood shunting into the arterial circulation. This results in hypoxemia, driving erythropoiesis and causing polycythemia. Affected dogs often exhibit exercise intolerance, dyspnea, tachypnea, or syncope, with thoracic radiographs showing a normal to mildly enlarged cardiac silhouette, right ventricular enlargement, and pulmonary hypoperfusion.
Dopamine is often used for which of the following reasons?
To increase contractility of the heart
To increase heart rate
To increase arterial blood pressure
To decrease blood pressure
Answer: To increase arterial blood pressure
Explanation
The correct answer is to increase blood pressure. High doses of dopamine are used as an alpha agonist to increase peripheral resistance and increase blood pressure. It is often used during anesthesia and emergency situations to alleviate hypotension.
Dopamine is often used to increase arterial blood pressure. At high doses, dopamine acts as an alpha agonist, increasing peripheral resistance and blood pressure. It is commonly administered during anesthesia and in emergency situations to counteract hypotension.
A 1-year old German Shepherd Dog presents for its first physical exam. Cardiac auscultation reveals a continuous murmur. Thoracic radiographs and echocardiography lead you to the diagnosis of a very large, cylinder-shaped patent ductus arteriosus with left-to-right shunting of blood. Which of the following statements is most true?
Furosemide and enalapril are the most appropriate forms of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Coil embolization is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Placement of constrictor ring is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Answer: Surgical ligation is the most appropriate form of treatment for a cylinder-shaped PDA
Explanation
The correct answer is surgical ligation of the PDA is the most appropriate form of treatment. A large cylindrical PDA is unlikely amenable to closure via traditional coil embolization. Most canine PDAs are funnel-shaped with the smaller end of the funnel attached to the pulmonary artery, and the wider end attached to the aorta. The funnel shape is what allows the coils to lodge in place and cause closure of the PDA. Coils would not stay in place in a large, cylindrical PDA, so surgical ligation is the treatment of choice for this patient. There are newer nickel-titanium devices (Amplatz Canine Ductal Occluder) that show promise for minimally-invasive closure of PDAs which do not taper, but this answer was not provided. Ameroid constrictor rings are typically used for ligating hepatic shunts, and not for PDAs. Medical management with diuretics and heart drugs are only indicated prior to correction of the PDA if the dog is in heart failure.
Surgical ligation is the most appropriate treatment for a large, cylinder-shaped PDA in a 1-year-old German Shepherd Dog. Traditional coil embolization is ineffective for cylindrical PDAs, as coils require a funnel shape to lodge properly. Newer devices like the Amplatz Canine Ductal Occluder show promise but weren’t options here. Ameroid constrictor rings are for hepatic shunts, and medical management with diuretics and heart drugs is only for pre-correction heart failure.
Using phenothiazines in dogs causes which of the following effects?
Increase in hematocrit
Increases in myocardial sensitivity to catecholamine induced arrhythmias in the heart
Hypotension
Analgesia
Answer: Hypotension.
Explanation
The correct answer is hypotension. Phenothiazines cause sedation, but do not provide analgesia. They may decrease hematocrit due to splenic sequestration of red blood cells. They decrease the sensitivity of the myocardium to catecholamine-induced arrhythmias.
Phenothiazines cause hypotension in dogs. They provide sedation without analgesia, may decrease hematocrit due to splenic sequestration of red blood cells, and decrease myocardial sensitivity to catecholamine-induced arrhythmias.
A 7 year-old male neutered Doberman has recently been diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy. On your physical exam, you auscult a “tennis shoes in a dryer” sound. What heart rhythm are you describing?
Bradycardia
Tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
Respiratory sinus arrhythmia
Atrioventricular block
Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation
Patients with enlarged atria can develop the arrhythmia atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a rapid irregularly irregular rhythm. Primary atrial fibrillation occurs idiopathically in some large-breed dogs, and patients are usually asymptomatic. Secondary atrial fibrillation is more common and occurs secondary to underlying cardiac disease.
Atrial fibrillation is the heart rhythm described by the “tennis shoes in a dryer” sound in a 7-year-old Doberman with dilated cardiomyopathy. It is characterized by a rapid, irregularly irregular rhythm and commonly occurs in dogs with enlarged atria due to underlying cardiac disease.
A 11-year old male castrated Golden Retriever presents for collapse with muffled heart sounds on examination. You ultrasound the heart and obtain the following image; the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) are labeled. A large mass is seen in the right atrioventricular groove with pericardial effusion. What is the likely diagnosis?
Hemangiosarcoma
Lymphoma
Chemodectoma
Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage
Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
Answer: Hemangiosarcoma.
Explanation
The correct answer is hemangiosarcoma. Hemangiosarcoma of the heart has a predilection for the right auricle of dogs, with Golden Retrievers being predisposed. Stabilization of this patient will require pericardiocentesis; prognosis is guarded and may include chemotherapy, pericardiectomy, or rarely auriculectomy. Chemodectoma arises from the ascending aorta and heart base; lymphoma is rare in the heart of dogs and is more commonly metastatic than a single mass. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage is incorrect because of the clear evidence of a mass.
The likely diagnosis is hemangiosarcoma. Hemangiosarcoma often affects the right auricle in dogs, with Golden Retrievers being predisposed. Stabilization involves pericardiocentesis; prognosis is guarded and may involve chemotherapy, pericardiectomy, or rarely auriculectomy. Chemodectoma arises from the ascending aorta and heart base. Lymphoma in the heart is rare and typically metastatic. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage is excluded due to the evident mass.
Which of the following is used as a medical management option in congestive heart failure in a dog?
Lidocaine
Mirtazapine
Increased sodium intake
Furosemide
Answer: Furosemide.
Explanation
The correct answer is furosemide. Sodium-restricted diets, ACE inhibitors such as enalapril, and diuretics such as furosemide decrease blood volume and preload. ACE inhibitors also reduce afterload by preventing production of angiotensin-ll. a potent vasoconstrictor. Pimobendan is also beneficial in the management of congestive heart failure in the dog due to its positive inotropic effects.
Lidocaine is used for treating ventricular arrhythmias. Mirtazapine is an appetite stimulator and not a drug used to treat CHF.
A 5-year old Pug in an animal shelter dies after experiencing cough, exercise intolerance, and dyspnea as well as ascites and hepatomegaly secondary to congestive heart failure. You perform a necropsy and find the parasite shown in the image below residing primarily in the pulmonary artery. How is this parasite transmitted?
Mosquito
Aerosol
Tick
Fecal-oral
Flea
Answer: Mosquito.
Dirofilaria immitis or heartworm is the parasite in dogs that resides in the pulmonary artery and can cause congestive heart failure if not recognized and treated. Mosquitoes carrying infective heartworm larvae transmit the infection through bites. The larvae then grow and develop over several months to become sexually mature worms. They then release offspring (microfilariae) into the blood stream.
This ECG recording (bottom recording) is from a 10-year old miniature poodle with a history of heart disease that is untreated. She presented for a 3-day history of diarrhea and decreased appetite. On physical examination you auscult a grade Ill/VI heart murmur and clear lung sounds. There are no obvious pulse deficits palpated. What is the appropriate treatment for this arrhythmia?
Give the patient a bolus of lidocaine and begin continuous infusion for twelve hours and then try to wean off the lidocaine
Begin the patient on oral mexiletine and recheck an ECG strip in 5 days
No anti-arrhythmic therapy is necessary at this time
Give the patient an intravenous injection of furosemide and begin oral administration of furosemide
Answer: No anti-arrhythmic therapy is necessary at this time
There are several general guidelines/recommendations regarding treatment of ventricular premature contractions which is what is shown on the ECG strip. These include a heart rate of over 180 bpm, pulse deficits, clinical signs, and VPCs for over 20 seconds in duration. In this case, the heart rate is visible on the recording and clearly not elevated. The patient’s physical exam findings are not suggestive of an immediate problem secondary to the arrhythmia. There are many dogs with intermittent VPCs that are not of clinical importance.
However, it is recommended that the patient be evaluated regularly and ideally have a consultation with a cardiologist to ensure the progression of heart disease is being minimized.
Furosemide is not indicated as there is not an indication that the patient is fluid overloaded or in fulminant heart failure.
Mexiletine is a Class IB anti-arrhythmic and is not necessary given the lack of severity in the ECG findings.
No anti-arrhythmic therapy is necessary at this time. The ECG shows ventricular premature contractions (VPCs) without clinical signs such as an elevated heart rate over 180 bpm, pulse deficits, or sustained VPCs over 20 seconds. Regular evaluation and cardiologist consultation are recommended to monitor heart disease progression. Furosemide is unnecessary as there’s no indication of fluid overload or heart failure. Mexiletine, a Class IB anti-arrhythmic, is also not needed given the mild ECG findings.
A 6-year old female spayed Beagle presents for lethargy. On exam you detect a heart rate of 25 beats per minute and record an ECG, which is shown here. What is the treatment of choice?
Pacemaker implantation
Atropine administered intramuscularly
Doxycycline
Furosemide
Sotalol
Answer: Pacemaker implantation
Explanation
The correct answer is pacemaker implantation. The rhythm is complete heart block (also known as 3rd degree AV block). There is no consistent PR interval; the ventricular beats are escape beats. Atropine can be considered, but is typically not effective in 3rd degree AV block. The only way to restore a normal heart rate in this patient is by implanting a pacemaker, which will require referral to a cardiologist.
Sotalol is a ventricular antiarrhythmic, which would actually be dangerous in this patient because it may suppress the ventricular escape focus. Furosemide and doxycycline will not prove beneficial for this rhythm disturbance.
Pacemaker implantation is the treatment of choice for a 6-year-old Beagle with complete heart block (3rd degree AV block), indicated by a heart rate of 25 bpm and an ECG showing no consistent PR interval with escape beats. Atropine is typically ineffective in 3rd degree AV block. Sotalol, a ventricular antiarrhythmic, could suppress the ventricular escape focus, making it dangerous. Furosemide and doxycycline are not beneficial for this rhythm disturbance.
A 12-year old female Dalmatian has a Holter monitor placed for an arrhythmia heard on exam. The following trace is from that monitor; similar abnormalities were seen frequently throughout the 24hrs. What is your treatment recommendation for this arrhythmia?
Mexiletine
Diltiazem and furosemide
Amlodipine
Pimobendan
Answer: Mexiletine
Explanation
The correct answer is mexiletine. The Holter ECG shows a couplet of ventricular premature complexes. If frequent ventricular ectopy is seen, particularly with runs or R-on-T episodes, treatment is advised with oral ventricular antiarrhythmics. Mexiletine is an oral class I antiarrhythmic that is well-tolerated in dogs.
Pimobendan improves systolic function, but does not treat arrhythmias. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used for patients with systemic hypertension. Diltiazem is used for supraventricular tachycardias to slow conduction down the AV node. Furosemide is a diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure, it does not have antiarrhythmic properties.
The correct treatment recommendation for the arrhythmia is mexiletine. The Holter ECG shows a couplet of ventricular premature complexes, and frequent ventricular ectopy, particularly with runs or R-on-T episodes, warrants treatment with oral ventricular antiarrhythmics. Mexiletine, a class I antiarrhythmic, is well-tolerated in dogs. Pimobendan, amlodipine, diltiazem, and furosemide do not address ventricular arrhythmias and serve different cardiac or hypertensive conditions.
A 7-year old male castrated Doberman Pinscher presents for lethargy and anorexia. Your physical exam reveals a 3/6 left systolic heart murmur and a rectal temperature of 103.5F (39.7 C). One of your differential diagnoses for this dog is infective endocarditis. Which area of the heart is most commonly affected in a dog with infective endocarditis?
Mitral and aortic valves
Pulmonic and aortic valves
Mitral and tricuspid valves
Ventricular endocardium
Tricuspid and pulmonic valves
Answer: Mitral and aortic valves
Explanation
The correct answer is mitral and aortic valves. Dogs with endocarditis are most commonly affected on the mitral and aortic valves. The tricuspid and pulmonary valves are rarely affected in dogs and cats, but are the more common sites of infection in large animal species.
The mitral and aortic valves are most commonly affected in dogs with infective endocarditis. In contrast, the tricuspid and pulmonary valves are rarely involved in dogs and cats but are more commonly infected in large animal species. Thus, in a 7-year-old Doberman Pinscher with signs suggestive of endocarditis, focus on the mitral and aortic valves.
A 9 year old female spayed Greyhound presents to you for evaluation of a cough of 2 weeks duration and respiratory difficulty. The owner reports that the dog collapsed while chasing her ball yesterday. On your exam, heart sounds are quiet and the dog’s mucous membranes appear pale. You elect to take thoracic radiographs which are shown below. What is an appropriate treatment?
Atenolol
Measure taurine levels
Heartworm test
Pericardiocentesis
Furosemide
Answer: Pericardiocentesis
The radiograph and findings are consistent with pericardial effusion. Note the markedly enlarged globoid cardiac silhouette on the DV projection. Pericardiocentesis is necessary for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes.
Atenolol and furosemide would be contraindicated. While this dog is showing signs of heart failure, furosemide would decrease preload on the heart and make diastolic filling even worse in cases of pericardial effusion.
Atenolol would decrease contractility. This is not a case of heartworm. Radiographic signs of heartworm include right sided cardiac hypertrophy and prominent pulmonary arteries. Taurine levels could be measured in dogs with dilated cardiomyopathy but will take days to get back and this dog needs to be treated immediately. If facilities permit, even a brief echocardiogram could be performed to confirm pericardial effusion and/or to guide the pericardiocentesis.
Pericardiocentesis is the appropriate treatment for a 9-year-old Greyhound with a cough, respiratory difficulty, and a markedly enlarged globoid cardiac silhouette on thoracic radiographs, indicating pericardial effusion. Atenolol and furosemide are contraindicated as they would worsen diastolic filling and decrease contractility, respectively. Heartworm test and taurine level measurement are unnecessary in this immediate context. An echocardiogram can confirm the diagnosis and guide pericardiocentesis.
An 11-year old female spayed Shih Tzu presents for her annual physical exam. She appears to be doing fine at home. Cardiac auscultation reveals a 2/6 left systolic heart murmur over the apex of the heart. Color Doppler echocardiography reveals a small regurgitant jet across the mitral valve. What is the most likely cause for the mitral regurgitation in this dog?
Congenital mitral dysplasia
Bacterial endocarditis
Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration
Systolic anterior motion
Answer: Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration
Explanation
The correct answer is myxomatous mitral valve degeneration. This disease is the most common cardiac disease in veterinary medicine and affects up to 60% of dogs older than 8 years of age. It commonly occurs in small breed dogs and can clinically range from having only a soft murmur to being in congestive heart failure. It is caused by degeneration and accumulation of acid-staining mucopolysaccharides in the cardiac valves and most commonly affects the mitral valve. A dog with bacterial endocarditis would show signs of systemic illness such as fever and lethargy. Congenital mitral dysplasia would usually result in more marked cardiac changes (louder murmur, more regurgitation, dilated heart chambers) at a much earlier age. Systolic anterior motion or SAM of the mitral valve occurs with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as one of the leaflets of the mitral valve obstructs the left ventricular outflow tract as the chamber contracts.
The most likely cause of mitral regurgitation in this 11-year-old Shih Tzu is myxomatous mitral valve degeneration. This common cardiac disease in dogs over 8 years old, especially small breeds, ranges from a soft murmur to congestive heart failure. It involves degeneration and mucopolysaccharide accumulation in the mitral valve. Bacterial endocarditis, congenital mitral dysplasia, and systolic anterior motion are less likely due to their distinct presentations and associated symptoms.
A 5-month-old intact female mixed breed presents to your hospital for the progressive lesions seen on the image provided. The owner described the lesions as initially being papules and vesicles that eventually ruptured. Recently, the owner has also noticed that the muscles of the face appear to be atrophied. Muscle and skin biopsies were performed which came back supportive of a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. You start the patient on an immunosuppressive dose of steroids. Which other medication would be useful for the treatment of this condition?
Meloxicam
Zinc
Hycodan
Pentoxifylline
Answer: Pentoxifylline
Explanation
Dermatomyositis (DMS) is a relatively unusual condition that results in skin lesions as well as myositis. The skin lesions initially appear as papules and vesicles which then rupture, ulcerate, and may progress to crusty alopecic lesions. The myositis sets in a little later, and atrophy of the temporalis muscle is often seen. In more severe cases, the muscles of the distal extremities become involved, and megaesophagus may be observed. Since muscle changes usually lag, other diagnostic tests such as a skin scraping and cytology are performed first to rule out other common conditions. The condition has a variable prognosis, as the clinical signs may wax and wane. Medical management usually consists of pentoxifylline, prednisone, and cyclosporine. Prednisone and cyclosporine serve as immunomodulatory medications. Pentoxifylline is used to help improve blood flow.
Hycodan contains hydrocodone and is used as a cough suppressant. Meloxicam would be contraindicated in a patient on steroids. Although it looks similar to a zinc-responsive dermatosis, zinc would not be a treatment for DMS.
Pentoxifylline is the recommended additional medication for treating dermatomyositis (DMS) in this 5-month-old mixed breed dog, along with immunosuppressive steroids like prednisone. DMS causes skin lesions and myositis, with symptoms such as papules, vesicles, and facial muscle atrophy. Pentoxifylline improves blood flow, aiding treatment. Hycodan (a cough suppressant), meloxicam (contraindicated with steroids), and zinc (not effective for DMS) are not suitable for this condition.
A 1-year old female spayed Doberman Pinscher has presented after being hit by a car. Initial chest radiographs show mild contusions, and the patient appears to be otherwise stable. A right mid-shaft long oblique femoral fracture has been identified. Routine pre-operative blood work is unremarkable. A buccal mucosal bleeding test (BMBT) is elevated at 6 minutes. What will you administer prior to surgery?
1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol
Whole blood transfusion
Desmopressin acetate
Vitamin K
Answer: Desmopressin acetate
Explanation
The correct answer is desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). Administration of desmopressin results in release of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting. Given this dog’s breed and elevated BMBT there is a very strong likelihood she is afflicted with von Willebrand’s disease. In Dobermans this results in an inability to form a clot. This can be life threatening if the dog is taken to surgery.
A whole blood transfusion does not provide an adequate source of von Willebrand factor but may be necessary if the patient’s bleeding cannot be controlled despite appropriate pre-operative measures. 1,25
dihydrocholecalciferol is the active form of vitamin D which aids intestinal resorption of calcium. The BMBT does not assess factors 2, 7, 9, or 10 and therefore vitamin K is not indicated.
Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is the appropriate treatment prior to surgery for this 1-year-old Doberman Pinscher, likely affected by von Willebrand’s disease, as indicated by an elevated BMBT. DDAVP releases von Willebrand factor to aid clotting. Whole blood transfusions do not provide sufficient von Willebrand factor and are not a primary treatment. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol and vitamin K are not indicated, as they do not address the underlying clotting deficiency.
The mean circulating life span of a neutrophil in the dog is approximately________
48 hours
120 minutes
5-9 hours
5-9 days
Answer: 5-9 hours
Explanation
The correct answer is 5-9 hours.
Neutrophil lifespans in all species, as far as we know, are less than 24 hours.
Cows-16 hours; Horses- 10-11 hours.
Platelets have a circulating half-life of 5-7 days and red blood cells have an approximate life span of 110 days in dogs
The approximate life span of red blood cells in other species (in days) is as follows: cats-70, cow-160, horse-145, pig-86, sheep-150.
The mean circulating lifespan of a neutrophil in dogs is approximately 5-9 hours. This lifespan is consistent with other species, generally being less than 24 hours. In contrast, platelets have a half-life of 5-7 days, and red blood cells last around 110 days in dogs.
A 7 year old female spayed Brittany Spaniel presents to your emergency clinic for a several day history of progressive weakness and lethargy. Although she was a hunting dog when she was younger, she has no recent history of travel or tick exposure. On exam, she has a temperature of 104.7F (40.4 C), heart rate of 128 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 42 breaths per minute. Her mucous membranes are pale pink with a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds. Your laboratory is closed, so you perform a blood smear and see the following. Based on the most likely diagnosis for these findings, and assuming you have access to all of these treatment options, which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Erythropoietin injections and iron supplementation
Platelet-rich-plasma transfusion and anti-inflammatory doses of corticosteroids
Packed red blood cell transfusion, immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids
Plasma transfusion, vitamin K supplementation
Fresh whole blood transfusion, Ampicillin
Answer: Packed red blood cell transfusion, immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids
Explanation
This is most compatible with a case of immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA or IHA). The findings that should lead you to this diagnosis are the clinical signs of lethargy with fever, pale mucous membranes, and blood smear findings. On the blood smear, you should see that there are small numbers of erythrocytes compared to the numbers of platelets and leukocytes. You should appreciate that there is also polychromasia (variation in the color of the erythrocytes) with some red blood cells appearing very pale and others appearing a more purple color, consistent with a regenerative response from the bone marrow. It may be difficult to appreciate spherocytes on this blood smear, but this is another classic finding in cases of IMHA.
IMHA can be a primary (idiopathic) condition or can be secondary to other causes including infectious diseases, autoimmune, or neoplastic conditions. Regardless, treatment consists of managing the debilitating anemia with transfusions of red blood cells and suppression of the immune mediated destruction of erythrocytes with immunosuppressive doses of steroids. Searching for an underlying cause and treating it appropriately is also critical.
Plasma transfusion or whole blood transfusion with Vitamin K would be appropriate treatments for coagulopathy +/- disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), especially secondary to Vitamin K antagonism (i.e. rodenticide). This case should not be confused with rodenticide toxicity due to the fever and red blood cell findings on the smear. Erythropoietin and iron might be appropriate for anemia of chronic disease, especially renal disease, but are not indicated in this case. This animal’s fever is not necessarily indicative of infection, as immune-mediated disease can be just as pyrogenic as an infectious process. Ampicillin is a beta lactam antibiotic but is not the critical therapy for this animal at this time.
More information such as coagulation times and hematocrit would have helped you in this case and certainly would have been appropriate to run if asked or if managing this case in the real world; however, for a board exam, you may not always be given all of the information you want and must base your decision on the most likely diagnosis for the information that is provided.
The most appropriate treatment for this 7-year-old Brittany Spaniel, likely diagnosed with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA), is a packed red blood cell transfusion and immunosuppressive doses of corticosteroids. IMHA is suggested by clinical signs of lethargy, fever, pale mucous membranes, and blood smear findings, including polychromasia and a decreased erythrocyte count. Immunosuppressive therapy is crucial to manage the immune-mediated destruction of erythrocytes. Additional treatments like erythropoietin, iron, plasma transfusion, vitamin K, or antibiotics are not indicated for this condition. Further investigation into potential underlying causes is also important.
A 7-year old female Lhasa Apso presents to you for lethargy and inappetence. On your exam, you detect mandibular lymphadenopathy and perform a fine needle aspirate. You see the aspirate depicted here. Which of these treatments would be given to this patient as part of a first line therapy?
Doxycycline
Milbemycin
Itraconazole
Prednisone
Carboplatin
Answer: Prednisone
Explanation
This is a case of lymphoma. The cytology depicts the classic finding of a population of lymphoid cells that are predominantly lymphoblasts based on their size and characteristics. If you were unsure about their size due to magnification, there is a neutrophil in the lower left corner for comparison. The lymphoblasts are considerably larger than the neutrophil. Mature lymphocytes would be smaller than a neutrophil. Note that there is a mitotic figure in the middle of the slide.
There are many treatments and protocols for lymphoma and some of the main agents known to have efficacy are prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and lomustine. There are many other efficacious chemotherapeutics for lymphoma but carboplatin is not considered a first line treatment for lymphoma in dogs.
The other drugs listed are antifungal (itraconazole), antibiotic (doxycycline) and anti-parasitic (milbemycin).
Prednisone is part of the first-line therapy for lymphoma, as seen in the cytology of the fine needle aspirate showing predominantly lymphoblasts. Lymphoma treatments often include prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and lomustine. Carboplatin is not a first-line treatment for lymphoma in dogs. The other options—doxycycline, milbemycin, and itraconazole—are not relevant for lymphoma, as they are an antibiotic, antiparasitic, and antifungal, respectively.
A 1-year-old male castrated Basset Hound presents for epistaxis from both nostrils, a small amount from blood from the right and a larger amount from the left. There is no history of trauma but he does go for frequent walks, and as a typical Basset, usually has his nose to the ground. His heart and lungs sound normal. You note a few ecchymotic hemorrhages on the thin skin under his abdominal region. You discuss the various causes of this issue with the owner and perform some labwork, including a coagulation panel, and the important values to note are as follows:
PCV 34%
Reticulocytes 110K
Platelets 180K/uL (143-448 K/uL)
Prothrombin Time (PT) 6.95 (6.3-13.3 seconds)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) 10.95 (10.6-16.8 seconds)
Based on this information, what is your top differential?
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
Rodenticide toxicity
Nasal foreign body
Canine thrombopathia
Answer: Canine thrombopathia
Explanation
The correct answer is canine thrombopathia. The disease is an autosomal recessive trait seen in Basset Hounds where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli. These dogs are at an increased risk for bleeding spontaneously, and an injury or surgical procedure could cause excessive hemorrhage. Platelet numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition. It isn’t an issue with platelet number, but of function.
Rodenticide would cause elevated clotting times.
Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia would cause a low platelet count.
A nasal foreign body would be less likely to cause a bilateral bleed and would not attribute to the ecchymotic hemorrhages noted on the abdominal skin.
The top differential for the 1-year-old Basset Hound with epistaxis and ecchymotic hemorrhages is canine thrombopathia. This autosomal recessive trait in Basset Hounds results in platelets failing to aggregate and secrete granules normally, leading to increased bleeding risk despite normal platelet numbers and coagulation parameters. Rodenticide toxicity would elevate clotting times, immune-mediated thrombocytopenia would lower platelet count, and a nasal foreign body typically wouldn’t cause bilateral bleeding or ecchymotic hemorrhages.
Zinc toxicity from ingestion of pennies minted after 1983 can cause which of the following?
Muscle spasms
Coagulopathy
Hemolysis
Correct Answer
Thrombocytopenia
Answer: Hemolysis
Explanation
The correct answer is hemolysis. Zinc causes a Heinz body anemia and hemolysis.
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia is classically associated with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Type IV
Type Il
Type I
Туре II!
Answer: Type II
Type I (aka immediate) hypersensitivity reactions occur when re-exposure of an antigen results in an allergic reaction. The antigen is presented and causes B cell production of IgE antibodies.
Type Il (aka cytotoxic) occurs when an antigen on a cell surface binds with an antibody and is then recognized by the body as being foreign. The antigen on the cell may have been a normal feature of the cell or it may have been acquired, such as a drug binding to the cell. Macrophages or dendritic cells then recognize the cell and “present the antigen” which then causes B cell proliferation and production of IgG and IgM antibodies. The antibodies bind to the cell and activate the complement cascade which results in cell lysis/destruction.
Type Ill (aka immune complex) occurs when there are more antigens than there are antibodies. The antigens float around in the circulation and multiple antigens may bind one antibody, thus forming an immune complex.
Large complexes can be cleared by macrophages, but smaller ones may evade the macrophages.
Type IV (delayed type hypersensitivity) takes several days to occur and rather than being antibody-mediated, it is actually cell-mediated. Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells and CD4+ helper T cells recognize antigen that is in a complex with major histocompatibility complex 1 or 2. This results in proliferation and activation of the cells. Activated CD8+ T cells then destroy the antigen containing cells while activated macrophages release hydrolytic enzymes.
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) is associated with a Type II hypersensitivity reaction. In Type II hypersensitivity, antibodies target antigens on cell surfaces, leading to cell destruction. This can occur due to the immune system mistakenly recognizing normal cell surface antigens or acquired antigens, such as those from drug interactions, as foreign. The process involves macrophages or dendritic cells presenting the antigen, leading to B cell production of IgG and IgM antibodies, which activate the complement cascade, resulting in cell lysis. This contrasts with other hypersensitivity types that involve different immune mechanisms.
A 7-year old male neutered Golden Retriever presents for lethargy and pale mucous membranes. A purple top (EDTA) tube of blood is drawn. A blood smear is made and examined. There is a moderate regenerative anemia with an increase in spherocytes. Mild agglutination is suspected. Spherocytes are consistent with which disease condition?
Iron deficiency
Grape and raisin toxicity
Cobalamin and folate deficiency
Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
Answer: Immune mediated hemolytic anemia
Explanation
In immune mediated hemolytic anemia red blood cells are coated with immunoglobulins and are then engulfed by macrophages. As a result, the RBC will lose a portion of its cell membrane but not hemoglobin. With the loss of part of the cell membrane, spherocytes appear smaller (without volume loss), no central pallor, and stain deeply red.
In iron deficiency, RBC will be hypochromic (less red) and smaller (microcytic) due to less volume.
Cobalamin and folate are necessary for DNA synthesis. Giant schnauzers have an inherited cobalamin malabsorption which results in macrocytes and ovalocytes in circulation.
Grape and raisin toxicity result in acute renal failure.
Spherocytes are consistent with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). In IMHA, red blood cells are coated with immunoglobulins and partially phagocytized by macrophages, leading to a loss of cell membrane but not hemoglobin. This results in smaller, deeply red cells without central pallor. In iron deficiency, red blood cells are hypochromic and microcytic. Cobalamin and folate deficiencies lead to macrocytes and ovalocytes, and grape and raisin toxicity cause acute renal failure, not changes in red blood cell morphology.
Which of these treatments might be used for a dog with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia?
Enrofloxacin
Azathioprine
Maropitant
Piroxicam
Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation
The mainstays of therapy are immunosuppression with corticosteroids and other drugs such as azathioprine or cyclosporine. Transfusions with whole blood, packed red blood cells, or oxyglobin may be necessary.
Piroxicam is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory and is contraindicated in any patient receiving corticosteroids due to risk of cumulative GI toxicity. Enrofloxacin is an antibiotic and would not commonly be prescribed for autoimmune disease. Maropitant (Cerenia) is used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Azathioprine is used for treating immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) in dogs, often alongside corticosteroids for immunosuppression. Other options include cyclosporine and blood transfusions if needed. Piroxicam, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory, is contraindicated with corticosteroids due to GI toxicity risk. Enrofloxacin is an antibiotic, and Maropitant (Cerenia) is used for nausea and vomiting, not for IMHA.
A 6-week old male intact puppy has presented to your clinic after being bitten 4 days ago. On physical examination, there is a moderate amount of purulent discharge noted from the bite wound on the left antebrachium. The wound is approximately 2 cm in length. Which antibiotic is LEAST appropriate for this patient?
Doxycycline
Cephalexin
Penicillin
Metronidazole
Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation
Doxycycline can result in delayed bone growth and discoloration of the teeth in young growing animals and is thus contraindicated. The other medications listed do not have a direct effect on young growing animals and are safe to administer; however, one must consider the likely pathogen present in the wound, what type of susceptibility pattern it has, as well as the likely penetration of your antibiotic into the area where you want it to exert its effect prior to making a choice.
A 3-year-old spayed female Rhodesian Ridgeback presents for mild pruritus and skin lesions. Upon examination, you notice diffuse papules and occasional pustules along the dorsal trunk. You conclude that the patient has folliculitis. Which of the following most commonly causes pustule formation and folliculitis such as this?
Sarcoptes scabiei
Staphylococcus
Trichodectes
Chyletiella
Answer: Staphylococcus
Explanation
Bacteria may be a cause of folliculitis. Pustules such as this are commonly associated with Staphylococcus.
Dermatophytes, and most species of Demodex, can also infect the hair follicle.
Sarcoptes scabiei, which is a non-seasonal, intensely pruritic, transmissible mite, affects the stratum corneum and is less likely to cause a folliculitis.
Chyletiella mites feed on the keratin layer of the skin as well and are less likely to cause folliculitis. These mites are known as “walking dandruff” and may cause skin flaking and typically intense pruritis.
Trichodectes is a chewing louse, which chews the skin but does not involve the hair follicle.
A 7-year-old pit bull mix presents with these skin lesions (see image) and mild pruritus. The owner has recently started him on a hypoallergenic diet. You perform a skin cytology and observe neutrophilic inflammation. What is a top differential for this condition?
Cheyletiella
Sarcoptes
Dermatophytosis
Bacterial pyoderma
Answer: Bacterial pyoderma
The lesions in the image are pustules, which form with neutrophilic inflammation and are accumulations of dead or dying polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Pustules are seen with differing types of dermatitis ranging from bacterial pyoderma, demodicosis, allergic reaction, and pemphigus. Determining the primary etiology will aid in proper treatment and resolution. Diagnostics that are always appropriate for diagnosing skin infections include skin scraping, impression smears, hair plucking for fungal culture, and biopsies if the preliminary diagnostics are unrewarding.
Demodicosis is the only mite infection that has been known to cause pustules or papules. Sarcoptes and Cheyletiella are not known to cause pustules. Sarcoptes is also usually associated with intense pruritis.
Dermatophytosis can cause pustules, but this is not routinely seen, which makes bacterial pyoderma the top differential from the given answer choices.
A chocolate lab presents for routine wellness examination and vaccinations. Your only abnormal finding on physical examination is seen here (see image). What treatment would you NOT recommend?
Dips
Manual removal
Pour on
Burn off
Answer: Burn off
Explanation
Burning may cause the ticks to become agitated and regurgitate their stomach contents into the surrounding tissues they are feeding from. This will cause severe inflammation and pruritis, and can also lead to tick borne diseases. Burning can also harm the patient. The correct way to remove ticks is to grasp them with forceps just behind their heads and gently apply traction until they release. Twisting will cause the heads to stay lodged under the skin. For large numbers or ticks, as seen in this image, Fipronil pour-ons and Permethin topicals can be used to kill off the ticks. Periodic pour-ons and bathing routinely can also be used in the face of severe infestations.
A 4-month old intact male Collie presents for severe dermatitis along his nose and ears (see image). The areas are sensitive on palpation but not pruritic. No other areas are affected. Skin scraping and cytology are negative for mites or bacteria. Fungal culture is negative. Anti-nuclear antibody tests are ordered and are also negative. How do you educate the owner based on your presumptive diagnosis?
Biopsy and culture are necessary, long-term therapy often needed.
Biopsy and culture are necessary, short-term therapy often needed.
The disease is not curable; euthanasia should be discussed.
The disease is familial, and is often cyclic and will regress.
Answer: The disease is familial, and is often cyclic and will regress.
Explanation
Familial dermatomyositis is a familial disease seen in Collies, Shetland sheepdogs, and other collie breeds.
Diagnosis can be made with skin or muscle biopsies, but can be difficult as the clinical and histopathologic signs can wax and wane. Inciting causes can include vaccinations, sunlight, viral infections, or drugs. Some cases; however, will come and go without obvious inciting causes. Some cases can become severe enough to include muscle atrophy; megaesophagus has also been seen with this disease.
Treatments are often symptomatic and supportive and include Vitamin E supplements, Omega 3 fish oils, treatments for any secondary bacterial infections, and pentoxifylline. Prednisone can also be used to get more severe cases under control. Avoiding prolonged sun exposure can also help.
Educating the owner on the fact that signs will reoccur despite treatment can alleviate some owner frustrations.
Often times signs will regress with or without treatments. Educate owners on neutering animals to prevent propagation of diseased animals.
A 2-year old female spayed Dachshund presents for further evaluation as a result of a mass on the pinna noted by the owner. On physical exam, the only abnormality noted was this mass. Cytology is consistent with a histiocytoma. Which of the following is the most reasonable treatment option?
Cryotherapy
Chemotherapy using lomustine
Radical surgical excision
Radiation therapy
Benign Neglect
Answer: Benign Neglect
Explanation
Histiocytomas are typically benign and will often present as a small, raised mass that may or may not be ulcerated. Fortunately, these masses usually regress on their own, and surgical or medical intervention is typically not necessary.
The most reasonable treatment option for a histiocytoma in a 2-year-old Dachshund is benign neglect. Histiocytomas are usually benign and often regress on their own without the need for surgical or medical intervention. They typically present as small, raised masses that may be ulcerated but usually resolve spontaneously.
Which of the following clinical signs may be seen with discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) in dogs?
Hyperpigmentation of the ventral abdomen
Depigmentation of the nasal planum
Symmetrical truncal alopecia
Swollen, painful joints
Answer: Depigmentation of the nasal planum
Explanation
The correct answer is depigmentation of the nasal planum. Clinical signs consistent with DLE include depigmentation, erythema, scaling, and loss of the “cobblestone” appearance of the nasal planum. Alopecia, crusting, scaling, and ulcerations can also be seen on the face, muzzle, lips, pinnae, and periorbitally.
Truncal alopecia would be more common with endocrine disease, such as hypothyroidism or Cushing’s disease.
Discoid lupus is the cutaneous form, and the joints are not affected like they are with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
A 5-year-old Doberman presents for chronic pruritus and recurrent bacterial skin infections. The patient has been on a 4-week course of Cephalexin and continues to get new skin lesions despite this treatment. You suspect methicillin resistance and recommend a skin culture. The owner declines a culture and would like you to select another antibiotic empirically. Which antibiotic would be the best choice considering side effects and efficacy?
Trimethoprim-sulfa
Chloramphenicol
Cefpodoxime (Simplicef)
Clindamycin
Cefovecin (Convenia)
Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation
Since you are suspicious of methicillin resistance, using any cephalosporins such as Convenia or Simplicef would not be useful. Trimethoprim-sulfa will probably be effective; however, this antibiotic should be avoided in Dobermans as they are prone to side effects such as anemia, thrombocytopenia, arthritis, and renal toxicity.
These side effects are due to a type-three hypersensitivity. Chloramphenicol may also be effective against the infection, but clindamycin would be a better choice, as it has fewer side effects. Chloramphenicol can cause peripheral neuropathy, gastrointestinal upset, bone marrow suppression, and hepatotoxicity. Additionally, chloramphenicol can also cause aplastic anemia in humans. Clindamycin can also cause gastrointestinal upset but seems to be better tolerated than chloramphenicol.