NAVLE Questions Flashcards
Toceranib phosphate (Palladia) is an FDA approved treatment for which of the following conditions in dogs?
- Giardia
- Mast cell tumor
- Bordetella
- Lymphoma
- Parvovirus
- Dirofilaria
Answer: Mast cell tumor
Explanation
In 2009, toceranib (Palladia) became the first FDA approved veterinary chemotherapeutic for treatment of cancer.
Toceranib is an inhibitor of a membrane-bound signaling molecule called a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK). Many mast cell tumors are known to have mutations in an RTK that contributes to their aggressive behavior and can be blocked by this drug.
Previously, all chemotherapeutics in veterinary medicine were human-approved drugs used off-label. Because the approval of this drug was the first of its kind, it has the potential to show up on boards.
***PowerPage: Mast Cell Tumors
You are examining a 13-year old Paint mare for a 2-week history of inappetence and mild weight loss. On closer examination, you observe the following lesions on the white areas of the horse (see image). What condition should you consider?
- Primary insect hypersensitivity
- Photosensitization secondary to hepatic disease
- Dermatitis secondary to renal failure
- Dermal necrosis secondary to NSAID administration
Answer: Photosensitization secondary to hepatic disease
Explanation
Horses may demonstrate photosensitization from liver disease because the chlorophyll in the diet is usually converted to phylloerythin and excreted by the liver. With hepatic disease, the phylloerythin is deposited in the skin; UV light reacts with it and results in dermal damage.
Skin lesions are not seen with NSAIDs and renal disease, whereas insect hypersensitivity is usually associated with urticaria.
What is the most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis sicca in dogs?
- Immune mediated adenitis
- Trauma to the lacrimal nerve
- Canine distemper virus infection
- Skull irradiation
Answer: Immune mediated adenitis
Explanation
The correct answer is immune mediated adenitis. These can all cause KCS but immune mediated adenitis accounts for about 75% of KCS in dogs.
***PowerLecture: Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca
What are the morbidity and mortality rates for an outbreak of swine influenza in a herd of pigs?
- Low morbidity and low mortality
- Low morbidity and high mortality
- High morbidity and low mortality
- High morbidity and high mortality
Answer: High morbidity and low mortality
Explanation
The correct answer is high morbidity and low mortality.
Swine influenza causes outbreaks of respiratory illness in most pigs in a herd. Clinical signs include a high fever, prostration, coughing, anorexia, conjunctivitis, oculonasal discharge. Recovery takes about 1-2 weeks.
Concurrent illness with other respiratory pathogens or poor husbandry can exacerbate the disease and cause higher mortality rates.
***PowerLecture: Respiratory Diseases.
What is the most common dermatophyte infecting the dog?
- Microsporum canis
- Microsporum nanum
- Trichophyton mentagrophytes
- Microsporum gypseum
Answer: Microsporum canis
Explanation
The correct answer is Microsporum canis. Microsporum gypseum is the second most common, and T. mentagrophytes is third most common in dogs.
Several kids are noted to be extremely lame and febrile. On physical exam you palpate markedly swollen joints. There are no adults noted to be lame or show any similar clinical signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Erysipelothrix
- Pasteurella multocida
- Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides
- Clostridium novyi
Answer: Mycoplasma mycoides spp.mycoides
Explanation
Mycoplasma mycoides ssp. mycoides (large colony type) in kids will result in the clinical signs described.
Sometimes pneumonia is also a prominent part of the syndrome. Age of onset is usually at 2-4 weeks, and treatment is controversial because some animals may remain carriers following treatment. Treatment consists of tetracyclines or other antimicrobial effective against mycoplasma. Prognosis for a complete recovery is guarded, and animals may become carriers. Thus, culling of all affected and test positive animals is recommended in some circumstances, depending on herd size and owner’s wishes. The disease is contagious and usually introduced by a mammary carrier, which is subclinical. This agent can also cause mastitis in does.
Moldy sweet clover contains a toxin that affects which of the following?
- Liver
- Skin
- Kidney
- Coagulation cascade
- Red blood cells
Answer: Coagulation cascade
Explanation
The correct answer is the coagulation cascade. Moldy sweet clover contains dicumarol, which is a vitamin K antagonist and can thus lead to coagulopathy. Treatment is with vitamin K1.
A 5-year old mare is hospitalized for intestinal impaction. The horse passed the impaction today and now has diarrhea. How would you treat this horse?
- Docusate sodium (DSS)
- Oral fiber
- Intravenous fluids
- Antibiotics
- Mineral oil
Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation
The correct answer is intravenous fluids. DSS, mineral oil, and fiber supplementation will likely not benefit a horse with diarrhea. There is no described infection, so antibiotics are not indicated at this time.
IV fluids wil help replace fluid losses associated with diarrhea and will help maintain a normal hydration state.
It has been a long night in your Portland, Oregon emergency practice. About 2am, a panicked owner calls about her 8-year-old Welsh Terrier named Winston. He began acting strangely about 30 minutes ago after getting into a plate of recreational brownies. After much hesitation, you learn he “may” have eaten about a quarter of an ounce of marijuana.
(1 ounce = 28.3 grams) Winston weighs 11.4 kg. You recommend she bring him in right away for an examination and
possible treatment. Which of the following clinical signs do you expect to see with this level of THC intoxication?
- Malignant hyperthermia
- Polyphagia
- Urinary incontinence
- Hyperactivity
- Tonic-clonic seizures
Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation
The correct answer is urinary incontinence. THC intoxication is caused by inhalation of the smoke or ingestion of any portion of the plant, products laced with marijuana, or products made with concentrated THC oil.
Neurologic and Gl signs (e.g., CNS depression, ataxia, vomiting, tremors, acute onset of urinary incontinence, hypothermia) are the most commonly reported clinical signs of marijuana intoxication in dogs.
The minimum lethal THC dose in dogs is >3 g/kg; however, the ingestion dose is rarely known. If recent ingestion is known, early decontamination (e.g., induction of emesis, administration of activated charcoal) should be performed if the patient is stable.
Treatment is mostly based on supportive care for clinical signs (e.g., intravenous fluid support, thermoregulation). Intravenous lipid emulsion therapy has been reported in severe cases, as THC is a highly lipid-soluble compound. Recovery is dose-dependent and may take 24 to 72 hours.
Fatalities are rare but have been reported
What is the significance of xanthochromia on a CSF tap?
- Evidence of prior hemorrhage
- Evidence of neoplasia
- Evidence of an infectious process
- Evidence of nervous coccidiosis
Answer: Evidence of prior hemorrhage
Explanation
The correct answer is evidence of prior hemorrhage. This is that yellow discoloration that can be seen for at least a week after bleeding in the CSF.
A black discoloration would be diagnostic for melanoma.
You are called out to a ranch to examine a Charolais cow. Her owner suspects that she may have an esophageal obstruction, because she is drooling excessively and holding her head extended as if uncomfortable. On physical exam, you also note nasal discharge that contains a small amount of food and water. You are unable to palpate a foreign body or obstruction within the esophagus, but you are concerned that the owner’s assessment may be correct. You begin searching for the presence of which other abnormality that would support the suspected diagnosis?
- Colic
- Free gas bloat
- Diarrhea with mucus & blood
- Subcutaneous emphysema
Answer: Free gas bloat
Explanation
The correct answer is free gas bloat. Ruminal microbial fermentation and neutralization of salivary bicarbonate continually produce gas as an end product (primarily methane & carbon dioxide) in proportion to the rate of fermentation. Normally the ruminant can eructate volumes of gas that exceeds the amount produced even at maximum rates of fermentation. In the case of an obstruction, however, this gas will build up within the rumen and lead to bloat or ruminal tympany.
Dr. Burgos needs to evaluate the profitability of the large animal practice where he works. The practice has been less profitable than expected over the past two years. The practice owners have set a goal to increase profitability each month for the next twelve months. The practice owners have given Dr. Burgos access to the financial records for the past month as a reference. How should Dr. Burgos calculate the profit generated in the past month?
- Compare the month’s expenses with the month’s gross revenue.
- Calculate the total amount of revenue generated during the month.
- Determine the month’s gross revenue and subtract the cost of goods sold.
- Subtract the month’s expenses from the month’s net revenue.
Answer: Compare the month’s expenses with the month’s gross revenue
Explanation
Profit is equal to the gross revenue (the total amount of income) minus the expenses. Profit is also known as net revenue. The total amount of revenue generated is the gross revenue. The gross revenue is only part of the equation needed to calculate profit. Net revenue is synonymous with profit.
Cost of goods sold is the expenses which are directly related to sale of products and does not represent the total expenses for the practice.
Source: BSAVA Manual of Small Animal Practice Management and Development. Clarke, C. and Chapman, M.
2017. British Small Animal Veterinary Association. Pages 435-461.
A 6-month-old female Yorkshire Terrier presents for ovariohysterectomy. She is up to date on preventive care and her owner does not have any concerns. On your physical exam, you note that the puppy is small, with a body condition score of 2/9. The remainder of her exam is unremarkable. You perform a fecal parasite examination, which does not reveal the presence of any intestinal parasites. Pre-anesthetic bloodwork reveals elevations in ALP and ALT. Based on these findings, you recommend bile acids testing. Which of the following findings are you most expecting to see on this testing?
- Markedly elevated post-prandial bile acids
- Pre-prandial bile acids greater than post-prandial bile acids
- Post-prandial bile acids greater than pre-prandial bile acids
- Markedly elevated pre and post-prandial bile acids
- Markedly elevated resting bile acids
Answer: Markedly elevated post-prandial bile acids
Explanation
Any increase in bile acids is indicative of hepatic pathology. A canine patient with a portosystemic shunt will typically have a markedly increased post-prandial bile acid measurement. This is thought to be due to the shunting of non-filtered blood (after eating) back to circulation, as well as decreased liver function.
Resting bile acid measurement will typically be elevated in a canine patient with liver disease, but this test is not specific for a shunt.
The presence of higher post-prandial bile acids than pre-prandial bile acids is normal, but this trend can be reversed even in a normal patient.
A patient with hepatic pathology commonly has elevated pre and post-prandial bile acids, but this is not specific to the type of pathology.
An 11-year-old neutered male Dalmation presents for acute onset ataxia and horizontal nystagmus. He is drinking well, but is less enthusiastic about eating than usual. Upon physical exam, you notice a head til to the left, circling to the left, and the fast phase of the nystagmus is towards the right. The otoscopic exam is unremarkable. In addition to your minimum database (CBC, Chemistry profile, and UA), what other actions or test(s) should be considered as part of your initial diagnostic plan?
Thyroid hormone assays
Skull radiographs
Myringotomy with bacterial culture and cytology
Cerebrospinal fluid evaluation
Answer: Thyroid hormone assays
Explanation
An older dog with a sudden onset of peripheral vestibular signs is a classic presentation for geriatric vestibular disease.
Since the otoscopic exam was normal, anesthetizing the patient for myringotomy and collection of samples for bacterial culture and cytology would not be part of the initial workup. Further, anesthesia to obtain skull radiographs for evaluation of the tympanic bullae may be necessary, but usually isn’t one of the first steps.
Hypothyroidism is a known cause of peripheral neuropathies, including the vestibular nerve, although the pathophysiology remains unclear. Therefore, a thyroid panel should always be part of the diagnostics in cases of geriatric vestibular disease.
A 15 year old brood mare was frightened and reared over backward and hit herself on the poll of the head. What are the two most common bones that are likely to fracture in this type of injury?
- Basisphenoid and basioccipital
- Talus and central tarsal bone
- Petrous temporal bone and stylohyoid bone
- Mandible and maxilla
Answer: Basisphenoid and basioccipital
Explanation
The correct answer is basisphenoid and basioccipital bones. The basioccipital fracture is thought to occur as a result of an avulsion fracture from the pull of the ventral straight muscle of the neck on its insertion point (basioccipital bone).
A new bird owner wants to know what the name of the glandular stomach in the bird is. What is your answer?
Cloaca
Proventriculus
Crop
Ventriculus
Answer: Proventriculus
Explanation
The correct answer is proventriculus.
The ventriculus is the grinding stomach.
The cloaca is the common exit for the gastrointestinal system, reproductive system and urinary system.
The crop is the outpouching of the esophagus responsible for storing food.
A chicken flock is having problems with mortality due to development of tumors, particularly in egg layers. You perform a post-mortem exam on a deceased chicken and find multiple focal grey tumors in the bursa, liver, spleen and kidney. Histologically, the tumors are composed of large lymphoid cells that are histologically uniform. You suspect that the flock may be affected by lymphoid leukosis. Which of the following is true about this disease?
- The incubation period is 1-2 weeks
- The most important route of transmission is respiratory
- Eliminating infected cocks will clear the flock of the problem within 4-6 months
- It is caused by viruses that are rapidly inactivated at ambient temperatures or by most disinfectants
Answer: It is caused by viruses that are rapidly inactivated at ambient temperatures or by most disinfectants
Explanation
Avian leukosis is caused by the strains of the leukosis/sarcoma group of avian retroviruses.
Certain subgroups of these viruses can cause lymphoid leukosis which is a clonal malignancy of the bursal lymphoid system. Transformation can occur as soon as 1-2 months after infection although tumors can take several more months to develop.
The most important mode of transmission appears to be vertical due to shedding by the hen into the egg. This can result in a congenitally infected chicken that remains viremic for life.
Horizontal infection can occur, primarily by fecal-oral transmission. For this reason, eliminating infected cocks will not dramatically influence the rate of infection.
In addition, the virus can cause a subclinical disease syndrome of decreased egg production without tumor formation that may actually be the more economically important form of the disease.
Lymphoid leukosis can be difficult to distinguish from Marek’s disease or from other B-cell lymphomas caused by reticuloendotheliosis virus.
ELISA detection kits against several subgroups of avian leukosis viruses are available.
You are examining a 6-year old Thoroughbred gelding for acute onset of diarrhea on a warm summer day. Upon physical examination, tachycardia and fever are present along with severe diarrhea. You also notice signs of lameness in the front feet suggestive of laminitis. What is a cause of diarrhea that is seasonal and is associated commonly with laminitis?
- Salmonella typhimurium
- Neorickettsia risticii (Potomac Horse Fever)
- Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
- Clostridium sordellii
Answer: Neorickettsia risticii (Potomac Horse Fever)
Explanation
Neorickettsia risticii commonly causes diarrhea in the warmer summer months and is observed in horses stabled near bodies of water. Although a trematode vector is suspected, the exact pathogenesis remains an area of study. The treatment is oxytetracycline.
While many causes of diarrhea can result in laminitis, PHF has been associated with laminitis frequently.
Salmonella can also result in the clinical signs noted but is not restricted by season.
***PowerLecture: Gastrointestinal Disorders
Glomerular filtration rate is most reliably assessed by which test?
- BUN
- Urine specific gravity
- Serum creatinine
- Urine protein: creatinine ratio
Answer: Serum creatinine
Explanation
The correct answer is serum creatinine. A rise in serum creatinine is proportional to a fall in GFR. A 4-fold increase in creatinine corresponds to a 4-fold decrease in GFR.
A 10-year-old neutered male Beagle presented for an annual wellness exam. His owner reports that he is doing well overall, although he occasionally strains to defecate. On exam, you note that the dog’s temperature is 101.2°F with pink and moist mucous membranes, moderate dental calculus, and no abnormalities on thoracic auscultation or abdominal palpation. You perform a rectal exam and find that the left anal sac is enlarged and firm. The right anal sac expresses normally and its contents are normal color and consistency, but you are unable to express the left anal sac. You perform a complete blood cell count and serum biochemistry on the dog, which are normal except for mild hypercalcemia. What do you recommend next?
- Sedate the dog so that the anal gland can be thoroughly flushed using a catheter
- Increase dietary fiber to promote anal sac emptying
- Begin treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
- Perform a fine needle aspirate and cytology of the left anal sac
Answer: Perform a fine needle aspirate and cytology of the left anal sac
Explanation
The combination of an enlarged anal sac and hypercalcemia in an older dog strongly suggest the possibility of anal sac adenocarcinoma. Anal sac adenocarcinoma is the second most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy. The best way to confirm the diagnosis is to perform a fine needle aspirate of the anal sac. Sheets of clumped cuboidal epithelial cells with indistinct cellular borders are characteristic for this tumor.
Dietary fiber, flushing the anal sac, and antibiotics would only be effective in the case of infection, which is less likely in this dog
You examine a flock of 4-week old turkey poults that have respiratory “snicks.” On closer examination, the poults have swollen eyelids that are often pasted shut, a distinct “raccoon eye” in which there is a ring of exudate and pasted feathers around the eye, and exudate on the shoulders of many of the affected birds. On necropsy you note that several of the poults had collapsed tracheas. These findings are characteristic of infection with which of the following bacterial agents?
- Pasteurella multocida
- Bordetella avium
- Erysipelas rhusiopathiae
- Mycoplasma synoviae
- Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: Bordetella avium
Explanation
Bordetella avium is a highly infectious upper respiratory disease, most commonly seen in turkeys. It causes inflammation of the sinuses and clear nasal discharge. A “snick” or cough, difficulty breathing, tracheal rales, and changes in vocalization are all symptoms. At necropsy, the tracheas are soft, and there may be a flattening or collapsing of the trachea. The disease is diagnosed via culture on MacConkey agar.
A herd of line-bred registered Anglo-Nubian goats has had several kids born with abnormalities in the last year, and the owner asks you to investigate. The abnormalities reported include inability to stand since birth, short sternum, shortened and domed head with short curled ears, head tremor, and carpal contractures. They have no suck reflex.
Based on these clinical signs, what condition should you suspect?
- Lead poisoning, in utero
- Congenital Neospora caninum infection
- Beta mannosidosis
- Locoweed poisoning, in utero
- Congenital bovine viral diarrhea infection
Answer: Beta mannosidosis
Explanation
Storage diseases and inborn errors of metabolism can result in intraneuronal accumulation of some indigestible metabolic products, in this case mannose-based oligosaccharides. Beta mannosidase deficiency occurs as a genetic disorder in Anglo-Nubian goats and Salers calves. The plasma level of the enzyme can be tested and is zero in affected goats. Alpha mannosidosis occurs in a number of breeds of cattle.
How much protein should you feed a dog with hepatic insufficiency or hepatic encephalopathy?
- The maximum amount of protein they will tolerate without causing signs of encephalopathy
- The total quantity of protein is not important as long as they eat predominantly meat proteins rather than dairy proteins
- 1.0 gram protein/kg/day
- The minimum amount of protein they will tolerate without developing hypoproteinemia
Answer: The maximum amount of protein they will tolerate without causing signs of encephalopathy
Explanation
Dogs with hepatic insufficiency or hepatic encephalopathy need to have their protein levels restricted to reduce clinical signs associated with liver dysfunction; however, restricting protein intake to the point where hypoproteinemia develops is excessive.
If too little protein is fed to these patients, muscle catabolism may occur.
Proteins derived from meat sources are more prone to causing encephalopathy than proteins from dairy sources due to the high levels of nucleic acids and other nitrogenous compounds found in meat that are converted to ammonia.
Which of the following is not unique to birds?
- Synsacrum
- Ulna bigger than the radius
- Feathers
- Uric acid excretion
Answer: Uric acid excretion
Explanation
The correct answer is uric acid excretion.
Reptiles use uric acid as their nitrogenous waste. Reptiles also have striated muscle controlling their iris as birds do.
Several 16 to 20 month old Holstein dairy heifers who have been out in pasture have developed large areas of skin sloughing, which appears to affect mainly the white unpigmented areas (see photo). Based on this observation, what is the best diagnosis?
- Allergic dermatitis
- Insect hypersensitivity
- Ordinary sunburn
- Malignant catarrhal fever, skin form
- Photosensitization
Answer: Photosensitization
Explanation
Photosensitization mainly affects unpigmented skin where photodynamic agents have accumulated making the skin hyper-reactive to UV light. The cause of this photosensitization can be primary, in which case a plant-derived compound (such as hypericum) or chemical is injected, ingested or topically applied, is the cause.
Alternatively, the cause can be secondary due to hepatic damage/failure where the liver fails to remove ingested chlorophyll-breakdown products like phylloerythin, which accumulates in the skin and results in UV damage (sunburn). You need to determine whether this is primary or secondary by checking liver enzymes and bilirubin levels.
***PowerLecture: Hepatic Disorders
It is mid-September and your Albuquerque, NM emergency practice is hopping! A good Samaritan presents with a dog he noticed panting heavily in a car on a particularly hot day. On presentation, the dog’s body temperature is 106.4°F (43oC). He is salivating, ataxic, tachycardic, with hyperemic mucous membranes. You pull blood for a complete blood count with differential, biochemistry profile, lactate levels, and PT/PTT. While you are awaiting test results, what is the one thing you would avoid in the initial stages of treatment?
- Administer antibiotics
- Administer gastrointestinal protectants
- Rapid cooling with ice bath
- Place an IV catheter and start crystalloid fluid support
Answer: Rapid cooling wth ice bath
Explanation
Of the answer choices, the one thing you want to avoid is rapid cooling with an ice bath. This would cause peripheral vasoconstriction, shunting of warm blood internally, capillary sludging that promotes DIC, and shivering, which just generates more heat. Active cooling with cool water and increased air circulation to promote evaporation is important, but you want to bring the temperature down in a measured way and stop cooling procedures once internal body temperature reaches 103.1°F (39.5oC).
Placing an IV catheter and initiating fluid resuscitation with crystalloids will help correct dehydration and aid in cooling efforts.
Administering antibiotics such as ampicillin and enrofloxacin is recommended, as there is concern for sepsis due to Gl translocation after severe mucosal damage. In addition, giving gastrointestinal protectants such as famotidine, cimetidine, and sucralfate also treat the inevitable mucosal damage experienced from such high temperatures.
Late one Thursday night in the middle of a crazy emergency shift, a Beagle presents for squinting the right eye and hiding from the owner. Normally he likes to sit directly in the owner’s lap, so this is very unusual behavior for him. On physical exam, you note blepharospasm, epiphora, and elevation of the 3rd eyelid OD. On ophthalmic exam, there is episcleral congestion, hyperemia of the conjunctiva, and a dilated, unresponsive pupil. Tonometry results are: OD 36 mmHg, OS 24 mmg. In addition to providing aggressive pain management, you begin treatment with Latanoprost, a prostaglandin inhibitor. Which of the following mechanisms of action accurately describes the function of prostaglandin analogs in the emergency treatment of this patient?
- They increase the osmotic concentration of blood perfusing the eye, causing a marked reduction in aqueous humor production and vitreous volume
- They inhibit an enzyme present in the ciliary body epithelium that contributes to aqueous humor production
- They increase aqueous outflow by constricting the pupil and contracting the ciliary muscle
- They decrease OP by reducing blood flow to the ciliary body, decreasing aqueous humor production
- They decrease IOP by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway by causing miosis
Answer: They decrease IOP by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway by causing miosis
Explanation
The correct answer is: Prostaglandin analogs decrease IOP by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor through the uveoscleral pathway by causing an intense miosis.
The other options describe mechanisms of action for the other four types of glaucoma drugs, respectively:
- Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., dorzolamide) inhibit an enzyme present in the ciliary body epithelium that contributes to aqueous humor production.
- B-blockers (e.g., timolol) decrease IOP by reducing blood flow to the ciliary body, thereby decreasing aqueous humor production.
- Miotics (e.g., demecarium bromide) increase aqueous outflow by constricting the pupil and contracting the ciliary muscle, thus causing a modest reduction in IOP.
- Hyperosmotic agents (e.g., mannitol) increase the osmotic concentration of blood perfusing the eye, causing a marked reduction in aqueous humor production and vitreous volume. The effect on the latter allows an intact lens to move posteriorly, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor and reducing pupillary block.
Which of the following agents causes the formation of morulae in canine monocytes?
- Ehrlichia canis
- Anaplasma phagocytophilum
- Ehrlichia ewingii
- Rickettsia rickettsii
Answer: Ehrlichia canis
Explanation
E. canis is the bacteria responsible for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis, which affects circulating canine monocytes.
This is a tick borne disease that is found throughout the world. In the United States, it is most common in the southern states. Clinical signs of an acute infection are general and include depression, fever, anorexia, and weight loss. Chronic infections can present with signs including lethargy, fever, bleeding tendencies (from thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction), lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, anterior uveitis, polyuria/polydipsia, and edema.
Blood work may shows a pancytopenia secondary to bone marrow hypoplasia. A non-regenerative anemia and thrombocytopenia are most common but other CBC abnormalities may include lymphocytosis (rarely can be misdiagnosed as chronic lymphocytic leukemia).
Chemistry abnormalities may include hypoalbuminemia, hyperglobulinemia (polyclonal gammopathy) and occasionally elevated alanine aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase.
Ehrlichia ewingii and Anaplasma phagocytophilum both affect granulocytes, not monocytes. Rickettsia rickettsii is responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
You are assisting with a farrowing operation and are advising about care of the newborn piglets.
Which of the following should piglets receive within the first few days of life?
- Ivermectin injection
- Tetanus vaccine
- Iron dextran injection
- Vitamin B-12 injection
Answer: Iron dextran injection
Explanation
Sow’s milk has a very low iron content and piglets usually suffer from insufficient iron concentrations to maintain satisfactory hemoglobin blood levels until weaning. Therefore, piglets should receive an iron dextran injection within the first 3 days of life.
Rarely, iron toxicosis in piglets can occur following injection. This may be related to low vitamin E and selenium status of the sow. If this is the case, piglets may have been born deficient in vitamin E or selenium or the colostrum was not be able to provide adequate amounts of these nutrients. Supplementing the sow’s diet with vitamin E and selenium will improve the status of the sow and help to prevent iron toxicity in the piglets.
Which of the following is most likely to be the vector for Ehrlichia canis?
- Amblyomma americanum
- Dermacentor andersoni
- Ixodes pacificus
- Dermacentor variabilis
- Rhipicephalus sanguineus
Answer: Rhipicephalus sanguineus
Explanation
The correct answer is Rhipicephalus sanguineus. Larvae or nymphs acquire E. canis from dogs and then transmit it as nymphs or adults.
Dermacentor variabilis and Dermacentor andersoni are known to transmit Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
Amblyomma americanum may transmit granulocytic ehrlichiosis which is caused by E. wingeii as well as transmit granulocytic anaplasmosis which is caused by Anaplasma phagocytophilum.
Ixodes pacificus is known to transmit Lyme disease.
What is the average duration of estrus in a cow?
- 1.5-2 days
- 8-18 hours
- 6 hours
- 24-36 hours
Answer: 8-18 hours
Explanation
The correct answer is 8-18 hours; however, receptivity may last up to 50 hours.
How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a cat?
- 4
- 6
- 0
- 2
Answer: 2
Explanation
The correct answer is 2. The 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth of a cat are P4. There are no 3-rooted permanent mandibular teeth in the cat. Although there are only 3 permanent premolars on each side of the maxilla, they are numbered as P2, P3, and P4. There is no P1.
Which of the following statements about the female rabbit reproductive tract is correct?
- The rabbit has only one uterine horn and one cervix
- The rabbit has two uterine horns and 1 cervix
- The rabbit has 2 uterine horns and 2 cervices
- The rabbit has one uterine horn and 2 cervices
Answer: The rabbit has 2 uterine horns and 2 cervices
Explanation
The correct answer is the rabbit has 2 uterine horns and 2 cervices (and no uterine body)
Your next farm call is to a local dairy operation to check out some cows that are off feed. The producer also reports milk production was markedly decreased this morning in multiple cows. Upon arrival, you find several cows that are weak, depressed, with noticeable muscle fasciculations. Lactating adult cattle that are inappetant can succumb to dangerous electrolyte abnormalities, one of which is hypokalemia. This occurs due to increased loss in milk and lack of intake in diet. Knowing the above information, what treatment would you recommend for these cows?
- Give potassium chloride isotonic solution IV at a rate of 1.0 mEq/kg/hr
- Give potassium chloride isotonic solution IV at a rate of 0.5 mq/kg/hr
- Administer grade potassium chloride 120g ororuminally q 12 hr for two doses
- Administer grade potassium chloride 90g ororuminally q 24 hr for two doses
Answer: Administer grade potassium chloride 120g ororuminally q 12 hr for two doses
Explanation
The treatment of choice for severe hypokalemia is 120 g of feed grade KCI given in a gelatin capsule or with ororuminal intubation, then given again in 12 hours for a total of 240 g in 24 hours.
Inappetant lactating cattle can be given feed grade KCl at 60-120 g q 12 hours for two doses to prevent severe hypokalemia.
Potassium chloride needs to be given with caution as there are side effects when given at high dosages or too quickly. KCI is rarely given I to cattle due to the safety issues and cost, but if it is given, the maximum dose is 0.5 mEq/kg/hr IV. If given too quickly or at a higher dose, the cow can develop severe side effects including death. KCI given IV is not the treatment of choice for severe hypokalemia, only in recumbent animals with ruminal atony.
Which of the following is not a cause of acute hemolysis in cattle?
- Water deprivation followed by free access to water
- Moldy sweet clover
- Castor bean
- Clostridium novyi type D (Cl hemolyticum)
Answer: Moldy sweet clover
Explanation
The correct answer is moldy sweet clover. Moldy sweet clover results in a coagulopathy because it inhibits the function of vitamin K (necessary for production of factors II, VII, IX, and X). This coagulopathy results in hemorrhage.
Water deprivation results in hemolysis when the animals ingest lots of fresh water after becoming hypernatremic, the water rushes into their RBCs and they lyse. This can also occur with classic salt poisoning from ingesting salt water, but the main signs in salt poisoning tend to be neurologic.
Castor bean and Clostridium novyi type D (Bacillary hemoglobinuria) may both result in hemolysis.
Sweet Clover Poisoning in Animals
In chronic renal failure patients, what is the body’s compensatory mechanism to deal with rising phosphorus concentrations?
- Secondary hyperparathyroidism
- Primary hyperparathyroidism
- A primary increase in absorption of dietary calcium
- A decrease in dietary phosphorus absorption
Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation
The correct answer is secondary hyperparathyroidism. In chronic renal failure, phosphorus concentrations increase due to decreased glomerular filtration and decreased activity of the renal tubules. In response, the body upregulates parathyroid hormone which causes a decrease in phosphorus reabsorption in the kidneys, allowing the phosphorus concentrations to return to normal early on in the disease.
**PowerPage: Chronic Renal Insufficiency
