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MRT Year 2 > Sinus Comp > Flashcards

Sinus Comp Flashcards

1
Q

How many cranial bones are there?

A

8

  • frontal
  • parietals (2)
  • occipital
  • temporals (2)
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
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2
Q

What bones make up the calivarium?

A
  • frontal
  • parietals (2)
  • occipital
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3
Q

What bones make up the floor?

A
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
  • temporals (2)
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4
Q

How many facial bones are there?

A

14

  • maxilla (2)
  • zygoma (2)
  • lacrimal (2)
  • nasal (2)
  • inferior nasal conchae (2)
  • palantine (2)
  • vomer
  • mandible
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5
Q

Sutures?

A
  • Sagittal : side to side
  • Coronal: front to back
  • Lambdoidal: parietals to occipital
  • Squamosal: parietals to temporals
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6
Q

Portions of the frontal bone?

A
  • squamous/vertical (forehead)

- orbital/horizontal (superior orbit)

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7
Q

What passes through the supraorbital notch?

A

-orbital nerve/artery

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8
Q

What forms the superior part of the orbit?

A

-orbital plate, separated buy the ethmoid notch

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9
Q

What does the frontal bone articulate with?

A
  • R/L parietals
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
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10
Q

What parts of the skull so the parietals form?

A

The lateral portion and part of the roof

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11
Q

What is the widest part of the skull?

A

Parietal tubercles

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12
Q

What do the parietals articulate with?

A
  • frontal
  • occipital
  • temporals
  • sphenoid
  • opposite parietal
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13
Q

What does the occipital bone articulate with?

A
  • 2 parietals
  • 2 temporals
  • sphenoid
  • atlas (C1)
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14
Q

What do the temporal bones house?

A

-organs of hearing and balance

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15
Q

What forms the zygomatic arch?

A
  • Zygomatic process of the temporal bone

- Temporal process of the zygoma

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16
Q

Where is the temporomandibular fossa located?

A

Anterior to the EAM and inferior to the zygomatic process

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17
Q

3 parts of the temporal bones?

A
  1. Squamous portion: thin, most vulnerable
  2. Mastoid portion: posterior to EAM, contains air cells
  3. Petrous portion: petrous ridges (pyramids), housing for hearing/balance
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18
Q

What transmits nerves of hearing and equilibrium?

A

Internal acoustic meatus

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19
Q

What is an anchor for all 8 cranial bones?

A

Sphenoid

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20
Q

Where is the sphenoid sinus located in the sphenoid?

A

Body

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21
Q

Another name for sella turcica?

A

Turkish saddle

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22
Q

What sits in the sella turcica?

A

Pituitary gland

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23
Q

What is the clivus for?

A

Base of support for the pons and basilar artery

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24
Q

Where are the anterior and posterior clinoid processes located?

A

Anterior: lesser wings of the sphenoid
Posterior: dorsum sellae

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25
Q

What do the greater wings of the sphenoid help form?

A

Portion of the floor of the cranium and walls

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26
Q

3 foramina in the sphenoid?

A
  • foramen rotundum
  • foramen ovale
  • foramen spinosum
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27
Q

What help form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavities?

A

Pterygoid processes of the sphenoid

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28
Q

Upper horizontal part of ethmoid bone?

A

Cribriform plate

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29
Q

Crista gali is also known as?

A

“Roosters comb”

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30
Q

What helps for the nasal septum?

A

Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid

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31
Q

Where are the ethmoid sinuses located in the ethmoid bone?

A

In the lateral masses (labyrinths)

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32
Q

Lateral labyrithns

A
  • help form lateral walls of nasal cavity and medial walls of the orbits
  • superior and middle nasal conchae/turbinates
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33
Q

What are soft spots in infants at the sutures of the skull called?

A

Fontanels

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34
Q

“Sutural” or “wormian” bones most commonly form in what suture in adults?

A

Lambdoidal

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35
Q

The maxillary bones assist in formation of ?

A
  • mouth
  • nasal cavity
  • one orbit
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36
Q

Point where the nose and upper lip meet?

A

Acanthion

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37
Q

What forms the hard palate? What does the hard palate form?

A
  • palantine process of the maxillae

- anterior roof of mouth

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38
Q

What is cleft palate?

A

Incomplete closing of the palantine processes of the maxillae

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39
Q

What form the posterior hard palate?

A

Palantine bones

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40
Q

Another name for zygomatic bones?

A

Malar bones

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41
Q

What are the thinnest, most fragile bones in the body?

A

Lacrimal

Nasal

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42
Q

What is the nasion?

A

Nasal bone articulation with the frontal bone

43
Q

Where do the inferior nasal conchae project from? What do they do?

A
  • project laterally from the walls of the nasal cavity and extend medially
  • divide the nasal cavity into different compartments
  • incoming are is warmed and cleaned as it comes in contact with the mucous membrane
44
Q

When do the 2 mandibular bones join?

A

1yr old

45
Q

Area anterior and posterior to gonion on the mandible?-

A

Anterior: angle (body)
Posterior: ramus

46
Q

Parts of the end of the ramus of the mandible??

A
  • Coronoid process: anterior to mandibular notch

- Condyloid process: posterior to mandibular notch

47
Q

TMJ joint classification?

A
  • synovial
  • diarthrodial
  • bicondylar AND plane/gliding
48
Q

Alveoli and roots of teeth joint classification?

A
  • fibrous
  • synarthrodial
  • gomphosis
49
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses?

A

-large air filled cavities lines with mucous membranes continuous with the nasal cavity

50
Q

Bones and their number of sinuses?

A
  • maxilla: 2
  • frontal: 2
  • ethmoid: many
  • sphenoid: 1 or 2
51
Q

Whats different about the structure of the frontal sinuses?

A

-the frontal sinuses are part of the facial bone structure and the other sinuses are contained in their respective cranial bones

52
Q

Which sinuses are present at birth?

A

Maxillary

53
Q

When are the frontal and sphenoid sinuses visible?Q

A

Age 6

54
Q

Which sinuses develop last?

A

Ethmoid

55
Q

Another name for the maxillary sinuses?

A

Antrum

56
Q

How/from where can infection spread to the maxillary sinuses?

A

From the teeth through the roots

57
Q

What is the opening to the nasal cavity in the maxillary sinus?

A

Middle nasal meatus passageway

58
Q

Where are the frontal sinuses located?

A

Between the inner and outer tables of the skull, posterior to the glabella

59
Q

Frontal sinuses are generally larger in men or women?

A

Men

60
Q

What are the groups of ethmoid sinuses?

A

Anterior, middle,m and posterior collections, but they all communicate

61
Q

In what sinus do skull pathologies usually present themselves? What will you see?

A

Sphenoid sinuses because they lie close to the floor of the cranium
“Sphenoid effusion”

62
Q

What is the osteomeatal complex?

A
  • communication/drainage between the sinuses
  • can be obstructed leading to infection
  • “sinusitis”
63
Q

2 key passageways of the osteomeatal complex?

A
  • infundibulum

- middle nasal meatus

64
Q

maxillary sinus drains through the infundibulum through the middle nasal meatus into the inferior nasal meatus

A

.

65
Q

ethmoid bulla received drainage from the frontal and ethmoid sinus cells

A

.

66
Q

frontal and ethmoids drain through the MNM to the INM and exit the body through the external nasal orifice

A

.

67
Q

How does the orbit project?

A

Upwards and to the midline

68
Q

To radiograph the optic foramen, extend the pts chin to ____ dgrees and rotate the head ______ degrees?

A

Extend: 30 degrees
Rotate: 37 degrees

69
Q

What 7 bones compose the orbits?

A
  • frontal
  • maxilla
  • zygoma
  • lacrimal
  • sphenoid
  • ethmoid
  • palantine
70
Q

Opening in posterior orbit from superior to inferior

A
  1. Optic foramen
  2. Superior orbital fissure
  3. Inferior orbital fissure

-sphenoid strut between the optic foramen and superior orbital fissure

71
Q

Types of skull fractures?

A
  • Linear: may appear as jagged or irregular lucent lines that lie 90 degrees to the axis of bones
  • Depressed: “ping pong” fragments of bone that is separated and depressed into the cranial cavity
  • Basal: fracture through dense, inner temporal bone-if bleeding, air fluid levels in sphenoid sinus on the lateral view
72
Q

Types of neoplasms?

A
  • Metastases
  • Multiple myeloma
  • Pituitary edenoma
73
Q

Type of metastases?

A
  • Osteolytic: destructive, irregular
  • Osteoblastic: proliferative, increased density
  • Combo: “moth-eaten” appearance
74
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

1 or more bone tumours that originate in the bone marrow

75
Q

Pituitary adenoma?

A
  • tumour of pituitary gland
  • enlargement of sella turcica, erosion of dorsum sellae
  • increase technique because of decreased field size
76
Q

Pagets disease (osteitis deformans)

A
  • bone destruction/repair
  • dense, soft bone
  • increase technique
77
Q

Mastoiditis?

A
  • bacterial infection of the mastoid process
  • fluid filled abscess replaced mastoid air cells
  • progressive hearing loss
78
Q

Acoustic neuroma?

A
  • benign tumour of auditory nerve
  • hearing loss, dizziness, loss of balance
  • widened internal auditory canal
79
Q

Cholesteatoma?

A
  • benign mass/tumour most common in middle ear of mastoid region secondary to trauma
  • destroys bone
80
Q

Polyp?

A

-growth that arises from the mucous membrane

81
Q

Osteosclerosis?

A
  • excessive spongey bone formation in the middle and inner ear
  • most common cause of adult hearing loss
82
Q

Blowout fracture?

A

Fracture of the floor of the orbit

Inferior rectus muscle forced into maxillary sinus causing entrapment and diplopia (double vision)

83
Q

Tripod fracture?

A
  • fracture of the zygoma in 3 places
  • orbital process
  • maxillary process
  • arch
84
Q

LeFort fracture?

A
  • bilateral, horizontal fracture of the maxillae

- can result in unstable detachment fragment

85
Q

Contrecoup fracture?

A

-fracture on one side, impact on the other

86
Q

Osteomyelitis?

A
  • infection of bone or bone marrow
  • caused by bacteria from trauma, post op, fractures
  • may spread via blood
87
Q

Sinusitis?

A
  • acute or chronic infection of the sinus mucosa

- headache, pain, swelling, low grade fever

88
Q

Secondary osteomyelitis?

A
  • infection of bone/bone marrow secondary to sinusitis

- erosion of bony margins of the sinuses

89
Q

TMJ syndrome?

A
  • pain and clicking that indicate dysfunction of the TMJ

- may be caused by malocclusion, stress, muscle spasm, or inflammation

90
Q

Classifications of the skull?

A
  • Mesocephalic (average): petrous ridges to MSP = 47 deg
  • Brachycephalic (wider): greater than 47 deg
  • Dolichocephalic (longer): less than 47 deg
91
Q

Degree difference between the IOML and OML?

A

-7-8 degrees

92
Q

Another name for the IOML?

A

Reids baseline

93
Q

What is the glabellalveolar line used for?

A

Tangential nasal bones

94
Q

Why is erect preferred for facial bones?

A

-moving head to line up is easier

95
Q

Exposures for paranasal sinuses?

A 
Medium kVp (70-80 A, 75-90 D) to provide sufficient contrast of paranasal sinuses
Small focal spot for max detail
96
Q

Exposure for facial bones?

A

Medium kVp (65-85 A, 75-90 D)
Small focal spot
Short exposure time

97
Q

5 skull positioning errors?

A
  • rotation
  • tilt
  • excessive flexion
  • excessive extension
  • incorrect CR angle
98
Q

In a Caldwell, the CR is perpendicular to what anatomy?

A

The frontal and ethmoid sinuses, orbital margins, and nasal septum

99
Q

What happens if the patient chin is tucked to much on a Townes?

A

-dorsum sellae will be foreshortened and superimposed over the atlas’ posterior arch

100
Q

What happens if the C1 vertebral foramina are seen on a lateral?

A

-tip of head is tilted away from the IR

101
Q

SMV: neck overextended?

A

The mandibular mentus too far anterior to ethmoid sinuses

102
Q

How is the OML compared to the IR in a Water’s?

A

37 degrees

103
Q

Maxillary sinuses superimposed over the posterior molars and alveolar processes during a Waters?

A

Chin raised too much

104
Q

What is perpendicular to the IR when doing a modified waters?

A

The orbital floors

  • OML 55 degrees to IR
  • LML perpendicular to IR
  • petrous ridges in maxillary sinuses

MRT Year 2 (18 decks)

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