CAMRT Review: CT Theory 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Other names for scout images?

A
  • localizer
  • reference
  • topogram
  • scanogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is ventral the anterior or posterior part of the body?

A

Anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does intermediate mean?

A

Between 2 structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does ipsilateral mean?

A

On the same side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does contralateral mean?

A

On the opposite side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does rostral mean?

A

Towards the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does thenar mean?

A

The base of the thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Shoulder muscles?

A
  • Supraspinatus: lies in the fossa
  • Infraspinatus: large, triangular
  • Teres minor: lies just below the infraspinatus
  • Subscapularis: only one anterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Positioning for lower extremities?

A
  • Supine, feet first
  • No rotation
  • Axial plane perpendicular to anatomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Positioning for upper extremities?

A
  • Supine, head first
  • No rotation
  • Axial plane perpendicular to anatomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Shoulder: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: AC joint to Scapular tip
SFOV: Large (body)
DFOV: 25cm, skin surface to midline
Algorithm: Bone, WW2000 WL500
Recons: standard, MPR, 3D SR and SSD
kVp 140 mA 300
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Elbow: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A

Anatomy: above elbow joint to below radial tuberosity
SOFV: large (body)
DFOV: 15cm
Algorithm: Bone WW2000 WL500
kVp 140 mA 300
Recons: standard (soft tissue), MPR, 3D SR and SSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Elbow positioning

A
  • prone

- affected arm extended over head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Shoulder positioning?

A
  • supine
  • affected arm at side
  • unaffected arm raised above head
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Wrist positioning?

A
  • prone

- affected arm extended over head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wrist: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A

Anatomy: proximal wrist joint to proximal metacarpals
SFOV: large(body)
DFOV: 10 cm
Algorithm: bone WW2000 WL500
kVp 140 mA 300
Recons: standard (soft tissue), MPR, 3D SR and SSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hip positioning?

A
  • supine

- legs flat on table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hip: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A

Anatomy: above SI joints to 4cm below lesser trochanters
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: 30 cm, symph to skin surface
Algorithm: bone WW2000 WL500
kVp 140 mA400
Recons: Standard (soft tissue), MPR, 3D SR and SSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Knee/tibial plateau positioning?

A
  • supine
  • legs flat on table
  • tape feet together to prevent motion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Knee: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A

Anatomy: above patella to below fibular head
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: 20cm
Algorithm: *bone plus (more detail) WW2000 WL500
kVp 140 mA 300
Recons: standard (soft tissue), MPR, 3D SR and SSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ankle positioning?

A
  • supine
  • legs flat on table
  • dorsiflex affected foot
  • move unaffected foot out of area of interest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ankle: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A

Anatomy: above ankle joint through calcaneus
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: 16cm
Algorithm: *bone plus WW2000 WL500
kVp: 140 mA 300
Recons: standard (soft tissue), MPR, 3D SR and SSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where does the pisiform sit on the triquetrum?

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the largest sesamoid bone?

A

Patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 fossas of the head?

A
  • Anterior cranial fossa
  • Middle cranial fossa
  • Posterior cranial fossa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What structures are located in the anterior cranial fossa?

A
  • frontal bone
  • ethmoid bone
  • less wings of sphenoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What structures are located in the middle cranial fossa?

A
  • sphenoid bone
  • end of carotid canal
  • temporal bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What structures are located in the posterior cranial fossa?

A
  • jugular foramen
  • occipital bone
  • foramen magnum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the tuberculum sellae?

A

Anterior portion of the sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are the hypoglossal canals located?

A

-anterolateral to foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the flax cerebri separate?

A

The cerebral hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What separates the cerebrum and cerebellum?

A

Tentorium cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

4 ventricles of the brain?

A
  • Right lateral
  • Left lateral
  • 3rd ventricle
  • 4th ventricle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What separates the right and left lateral ventricles?

A

The septum pellucidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is the cerebral aqueduct?

A

Between the 3rd and 4th ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is the 4th ventricle in relation to the pons?

A

Posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which layer of the meninges is highly vascular?

A

Pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

3 parts of the lateral ventricles?

A
  • anterior/frontal
  • posterior/occipital
  • inferior/temporal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ct number for grey and white matter?

A

Grey: 35-45
White: 20-30

**grey is more dense than white*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the largest and most dense collection of white matter? Where is it located?

A

Corpus callosum

  • midline
  • roof of lateral ventricles
  • connects right and left cerebral hemispheres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

4 segments of the corpus callosum?

A
  • Rostrum
  • Genu
  • Body
  • Splenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What separates the temporal lobes from the parietal lobes?

A

Lateral (sylvian) fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Major components of the diencephalon?

A
  • thalamus: walls of 3rd ventricle
  • hypothalamus: below thalamus, floor or 3rd ventricle
  • pituitary gland
  • epithalamus: most posterior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What connects the pituitary gland to the thalamus?

A

Infundibulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the pons sit between?

A

Anterior to cerebellum

Posterior to clivus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 main pairs of arteries that supply blood to the brain?

A
  • internal carotid arteries: anterior circulation

- vertebral arteries: posterior circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the internal carotid artery branch into?

A

Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do the vertebral arteries unite to form? Where?

A

The basilar artery anterior to the pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What makes up the circle of willis?

A
  • anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
  • anterior and posterior communicating arteries
  • internal carotid arteries
  • middle cerebral arteries ?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where do the veins of the brain drain?

A

-dural sinuses and ultimately into the internal jugular veins int he neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Major dural sinuses?

A

-Superior sagittal sinus
-Inferior sagittal sinus
-Straight sinus
(Theres also the transverse and sigmoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where do the posterior cerebral arteries supply blood to?

A
  • occipital lobe

- inferior temporal lobesq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where do the anterior cerebral arteries supply blood to?

A
  • frontal lobe

- parietal lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where does the inferior sagittal sinus drain into?

A

The straight sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where does the sigmoid sinus received blood from? Where does it drain into?

A

-receives blood from the transverse sinus and drains into internal jugular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the advantage of lining up the SOML as opposed to the OML when positioning for the head?

A

Reduced dose to eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Advantages of axial imaging of the head?

A
  • Allows gantry tilt
  • highest image quality
  • reduced radiation dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Disadvantages of axial scanning of the head?

A
  • longer exam times
  • limited ability to reconstruct data
  • possibility of patient motion, missed anatomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Advantages of helical scans of the head?

A
  • shorter exam time
  • improved spatial resolution
  • ability to reconstruct images
  • allows slice increment to be changed retrospectively
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Disadvantages of helical scans of the head?

A
  • higher radiation dose

- does not allow gantry tilt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Challenges in scanning the head?

A
  • beam hardening in the posterior fossa: decrease slice thickness and increase kVp
  • motion: helical scanning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How are CT images of the head viewed?

A
  • Standard (soft tissue) WW160 WL40

- Bone WW2000 WL500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

CT imaging of the brain: WW/WL: why do we use this WW and WL?

A

Standard soft tissue WW 160 WL 40

  • targets grey and white matter
  • narrow window width due to small difference in tissue attenuation
  • narrow window width allows best contrast resoltuion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Types of intracranial hemorrhage?

A
  • Epidural
  • Subdural
  • Subarachnoid
  • Intracerebral hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which appears darker: and epidural or subdural hematoma?

A

Subdural because venous blood is darker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the HUs of CSF and blood

A

CSF: 4-8
Blood: 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is an intracerebral hemorrhage?

A
  • caused by damage to the vessels or aneurysm rupture

- well circumscribes, homogeneous, high density region surrounded by low density edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Indications for an NECT head?

A
  • ICH
  • Early infarction
  • Dementia
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Indications for an NECT and CECT head?

A
  • mass or lesion
  • arteriovenous malformation
  • metastasis
  • aneurysm
  • headache
  • seizure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

NECT head: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: skull base to vertex
If axial scanning:OML or SOML lined up
SFOV: head
DFOV: 23cm
Algorithm: standard WW140 WL40
Recons: bone WW4000 WL400
kVp 120-140 mA 150
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

CECT head: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: skull base to vertex
SFOV: head
DFOV: 23cm
Algorithm: standard WW140 WL 40
Recons: bone WW4000 WL400
kVp 120-140 mA 150
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

CECT head contrast protocols

A

100ml @ 1ml/sec
5 min scan delay
No oral contrast

  • *venous phase**
  • *long delay due to BBB**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Common indications for CT sinuses?

A
  • chronic sinusitis
  • inflammatory sinus disease
  • pre-op
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

CT sinuses: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: frontal sinus to sella turcica, frontal sinus to maxillary sinuses
SFOV: head
DFOV: 16cm
Algorithm: standard WW350 WL50
Recons: bone WW4000 WL400 
kVp 120 mA 150
*non contrast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What do you line up for positioning for CT sinuses?

A

OML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

NECT Orbits: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: orbital roofs to orbital floors
SFOV: head
DFOV: 16cm
Algorithm: *soft (increase contrast decrease noise) WW350 WL50
Recons: bone WW4000 WL400
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Contrast protocol for CECT orbits?

A
100ml @ 1ml/sec
Split bolus
-50ml @ 1ml/sec
-2 min delay
-50ml @ 1ml/sec
-scan immediately
-no oral contrast
*venous phase
-will see arterial and venous phases in same scan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Common indications for CTA COW?

A
  • locate known aneurysm
  • arteriovenous malformation
  • assessment of intracranial hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

We should not perform a CTA COW unless ______has been done?

A

A dry scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

CTA COW: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: frontal sinuses to skull base
SFOV: head
DFOV: 25cm
Algorithm: standard WW140 WL40
kVp 120 mA 500
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

CTA COW contrast protocol?

A
-60ml @ 4ml/sec
Smart Prep
-ROI on carotid artery at C4
-scan starts when adequate amount of contrast is reached
-no oral contrast
-*arterial phase, short scan delay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Common indications for NECT orbits?

A
  • foreign body

- trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Common indications for CECT orbits?

A
  • intraorbital mass
  • thyroid ophthalmopathy
  • inflammation
  • infection
  • trauma (vascular injury)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Common indications for CT facial bones?

A
  • facial fracture
  • soft tissue
  • foreign body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CT facial bones: anatomy included, SFOV, DFOV, Algorithms, WW, WL, techniques, Reconstructions

A
Anatomy: frontal sinus to mandible and nose to sella turcica
SFOV: head
DFOV: 18cm
Algorithm: standard WW350 WL50
Recons: bone WW4000 WL 400
kVp: 120 mA 150
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Borders of the nasopharynx?

A

Adenoids to soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Borders of the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate to hyoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What separates the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx?

A

The epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Borders of the laryngopharynx?

A

-hyoid bone to entrance to larynx and esophagus

90
Q

What cause depressions in the walls of the laryngopharynx?

A

Piriform sinuses

91
Q

Where is the sphenoid sinus in relation to the nasopharynx

A

Posterior

92
Q

Borders of the larynx? Vertebral levels?

A
  • laryngopharynx to trachea

- C3-C6

93
Q

What is the largest, most superior ring of the larynx?

A

Thyroid cartilage

94
Q

Is the thyroid cartilage superior or inferior to the thyroid?

A

Superior

95
Q

Where is the esophagus in relation to the trachea?

A

Posterior

96
Q

HUs of muscle and saliva glands?

A

Muscle: 35

Saliva gland: 25 (darker)

97
Q

At what vertebral level is the carina?

A

T4/T5

98
Q

3 sets of salivary glands?

A
  • Parotid: largest
  • Submandibular
  • Sublingual: smallest
99
Q

Where are the parotid glands located?

A
  • level of the EAM to the gonion

- sits between the auricle and the ramus of the mandible

100
Q

How do the parotid glands differ in appearance from other salivary glands?

A

-fatty tissue and lymph nodes within the gland

101
Q

Where are the submandibular glands located?

A
  • border the posterior half of the mandible

- extend from the gonion to the level of the hyoid bone

102
Q

Where are the sublingual glands located?

A

-sit under tongue on the floor of the mouth

103
Q

What joins the two lobes of the thyroid gland?

A

The isthmus

104
Q

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

On the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland

105
Q

Which are bigger: veins or arteries?

A

Veins

106
Q

Where does the right common carotid artery arise from?

A

The brachiocephalic artery

107
Q

Where is the right common carotid artery in relation to the SC joint?

A

Posterior

108
Q

Where do the common carotids bifurcate?

A

C3-C4 (level of thyroid cartilage)

109
Q

Where are the carotid arteries in relation to the jugular veins?

A

Medial

110
Q

Where do the internal carotid arteries enter the brain?

A

-enters the base of skull through the carotid canal in the temporal bone

111
Q

Where do the external carotid arteries enter the skull?

A

-through the parotid gland to the level of the TMJ

112
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries branch from?

A

The subclavian arteries

113
Q

What are typically the largest vessel in the neck?

A

The internal jugular vein

114
Q

What do the internal jugular veins unite with to form the brachiocephalic veins?

A

The subclavian veins

115
Q

Where are the internal jugular veins in relation to the common carotid arteries?

A

Lateral to the common carotid artery

Posterior to the internal carotid artery

116
Q

Which is more lateral: the internal or external jugular vein?

A

External jugular vein

117
Q

Where do the vertebral veins drain into?

A

The brachiocephalic veins

118
Q

Which are less round: veins or arteries?

A

Veins

119
Q

After the level of the common carotid artery, the internal jugular veins travel _________ and sit anteriorly to the common carotid arteries

A

Anteriorly

120
Q

Positioning for a CT neck?

A
  • head holder or sponge
  • supine
  • head first
  • suspend respiration
  • suspend swallowing
  • angle gantry to be parallel to hard palate*
121
Q

Challenges in scanning the neck?

A

Dental work: split the scan and angle in between to avoid streaks
Large shoulders: depress shoulders as much as possible

122
Q

How are images of the neck viewed?

A

Standard/soft tissue: WW160 WL40
Soft WW350 WL50
Bone: WW2500 WL40

123
Q

Does a CT soft tissue neck involve contrast?

A

Yes

124
Q

Common indications for CECT soft tissue neck?

A
  • neck mass
  • vascular abnormality
  • lymphadenopathy
  • cysts
  • abscess
125
Q

Common indications for NECT soft tissue neck?

A

-salivary stones

126
Q

Why would we image salivary stones without contrast?

A

Contrast will mask the stones because they both appear white

127
Q

What is the gold standard for stroke imaging?

A

CT angiography

128
Q

3 categories of strokes?

A
  • ischemic
  • hemorrhagic
  • hypotensive
129
Q

Risk factors for strokes?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Homocysteine and Vitamin B deficiency
  • high cholesterol
  • heart disease
  • diabetes
  • migraines
  • smoking
  • hereditary
  • obesity
  • substance abuse
130
Q

What is the most common type of stroke?

A

Ischemic (80%)

131
Q

2 main types of ischemic strokes?

A
  1. Thrombotic: blood clot within the artery

2. Embolic: travelling particle in bloodstream that lodges in a smaller artery, cutting off blood supply

132
Q

What is a hypotensive stroke?

A

-blood pressure is too low and can reduce oxygen supply to the brain

133
Q

Most common site of TIA?

A

Carotid arteries

134
Q

Symptoms of a TIA of the carotid arteries?

A
  • vision loss* supply blood to retinal arteries
  • speech
  • partial/temporary paralysis
  • tingling
  • numbness
  • unilateral symptoms
135
Q

Symptoms of a TIA of the basilar artery?

A
  • bilateral symptoms
  • dim, grey, blurry vision
  • vision loss in both eyes
  • tingling in mouth, teeth, gums
  • headache, posterior, often
  • dizziness
  • vomiting
  • difficulty swallowing
  • inability to speak clearly
  • weakness in arms or legs
136
Q

CECT Soft tissue neck: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions?

A
Anatomy: mid orbit to clavicles (T2-T3)
SFOV: large body
DFOV: 18cm
Algorithm: standard (or soft)WW350 WL50
Recons: bone WW4000 WL400
kVp 120 mA 150
Retrospective recons of the spine can also be done due to the large SFOV, useful for trauma
137
Q

Contrast protocol for CECT soft tissue neck?

A
125ml @ 1.5ml/sec
Split bolus
-50ml
-2min delay
-75ml
-scan 20-30 seconds after second injection
  • venous and arterial
  • oral contrast sometimes used, rare
138
Q

CTA COW and Carotids “stroke protocol”: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions?

A
Anatomy: frontal sinus to aortic arch
SFOV: large body
DFOV: 25cm
Algorithm: standard WW250 WL30
Recons: MIP WW800 WL200, thin slices
kVp 120 mA 500
139
Q

CTA COW and Carotids contrast protocol?

A

80ml @ 4ml/sec
Smart prep
-ROI on carotid artery at C4
-no oral contrast

140
Q

Within the first ____hrs of a stoke, a NECT head will appear normal in at least 1/3rd of the patients?

A

6hrs

141
Q

Where do the external carotids feed blood to?

A

The face and scalp

142
Q

Do any ribs articulate with the xiphoid?

A

No

143
Q

Which ribs does the sternum articulate with?

A

Ribs 3-7

144
Q

Which lung has a cardiac notch?

A

Left

145
Q

Borders of the superior compartment of the mediastinum?

A

Sternal angle to thymus gland

146
Q

Parts of the inferior compartment of the mediastinum?

A

-anterior, middle, and posterior compartments

147
Q

Borders of anterior, middle, and posterior compartments of the inferior compartment of the mediastinum?

A

Anterior: posterior to sternum to anterior to pericardial sac
Middle: pericardial sac, heart, roots of great vessels
Posterior: posterior to pericardium and anterior to vertebrae

148
Q

What does the mediastinum contain?

A
  • glands
  • trachea
  • esophagus
  • blood vessels
  • nerves
  • lymphatic stuctures
149
Q

Does the thymus gland enhance with contrast?

A

Slowly

150
Q

Where is the thymus gland located? What does it do?

A
  • sits posterior to the manubrium
  • responsible for cellular immunity
  • large in children, can be bigger than the heart
  • triangular shaped
151
Q

The myocardium on the _____ventricle is up to 3x thicker than that if the _____ ventricle ?

A

Thicker on the left ventricle

152
Q

A bright SVC indicates what phase?

A

Early arterial phase

153
Q

Branches off of the aortic arch from right to left.

A

Brachiocephalic trunk
Left common carotid
Left subclavian

154
Q

What does the brachiocephalic trunk bifurcate into? At what level is the bifurcation?

A
  • bifurcates at the level of the right SC joint
  • right common carotid
  • right subclavian
155
Q

Where is the left subclavian artery in relation to the left common carotid artery?

A

Posterior to the left common carotid, arches laterally

156
Q

What vessels join to form the brachiocephalic veins?

A
  • internal jugular

- subclavian

157
Q

Will the brachiocephalic veins be seen on the same axial slice as the subclavian and internal jugular veins?

A

No

158
Q

Subclavian veins are ________ to the subclavian arteries?

A

Anterior

159
Q

Subclavian veins are horizontal ________ the level that the subclavian arteries are horizontal?

A

Below

160
Q

Which branch of the aortic arch is most posterior?

A

Left subclavian artery

161
Q

Positioning for a chest CT?

A
  • supine
  • arm elevated
  • feet first
  • reduce patient motion
  • suspend breathing
162
Q

Challenges in scanning the chest?

A

Involuntary motion
-respiration and cardiac function
Patient mobility
-unable to raise arms above head

163
Q

How to manage involuntary motion on a chest scan?

A

Scan caudal-cranial as there is less motion of respiration at the apices

164
Q

How are chest images viewed? Standard WW/WL, Lung WW/WL

A

Standard/soft tissue: WW350 WL50

Lung: WW1500 WL-700

165
Q

Common indications for a routine CECT Chest?

A
  • infection
  • mass
  • empyema
  • correlate with radiographs
  • known or suspected congenital abnormalities
  • trauma
  • lung CA
166
Q

What changes about the protocol for lung nodules?

A
  • NECT
  • inspiration
  • thin slices through each nodule
167
Q

When would we use a NECT high resolution protocol?

A
  • asbestos exposure
  • inhalation injury
  • interstitial lung disease
  • diffuse pulmonary disease
  • bronchiectasis
  • airway disease
168
Q

What is different about the high resolution lung protocol?

A
  • inspiration and expiration
  • thin sections
  • DFOV set just to lungs
  • edge enhancing algorithm to optimize spatial resolution
  • can be done incremental (decrease dose, optimum resolution) or helical (fast, increase noise)
169
Q

What is different about a volumetric HRCT?

A
  • covers entire lung, rather than representative slices
  • capable of 3D post processing
  • primary disadvantage is patient dose
170
Q

What series of scans do we do for an HRCT?

A
  • supine inspiration and expiration

- prone inspiration

171
Q

What does an inspiration HRCT scan best demonstrate? Prone inspiration vs. supine inspiration?

A
  • best demonstrates contrast between the air and lung

- prone: differentiates disease from the effect of gravity on blood flow and gas volume

172
Q

What is best demonstrated on an expiration HRCT chest?

A

-demonstrates air trapping in lung (pathologies ex. emphysema, COPD)

173
Q

Other important diagnostic tests for a PE besides a CT?

A
  1. Ventilation-perfusion scanning (nuc med)
  2. Pulmonary angiography
  3. D-dimer (screens for protein in the blood that makes the blood more from to clot)
174
Q

CECT Chest: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions

A
Anatomy: apices to costophrenic angles
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: set to patient
Algorithm: Standard/soft tissue WW350 WL50
Recons: Lung WW1500 WL-700
kVp 120 mA auto mA 100-150
175
Q

Contrast protocol for a CECT routine chest?

A

80ml @ 3ml/sec
35 second scan delay
*bolus followed by saline flush

176
Q

Why is a saline flush important after the bolus especially for chest imaging?

A

Saline flush reduces beam hardening or streak artifact in SVC

177
Q

NECT Chest lung nodule: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions

A

Anatomy: apices to costophrenic angles
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: set to patient
Algorithm: standard soft tissue WW350 WL50
Recons: lung WW1500 WL-700
kVp 120 mA 80-160
*thin slices through various nodules created, often use edge enhancing algorithm to sharpen the resolution of the nodule itself

178
Q

NECT Chest Hight Resolution: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions

A
Anatomy: apices to costophrenic angles
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: set to patient, lung field only
Algorithm: lung WW1500 WL-700
Recons: none
kVp 140 mA 150-375
*thin slices created in lung windows to show detail of lung parenchyma
*for prone expiration scans, only include from carina to costophrenic angles
179
Q

Is the injection rate high or low for any arterial (angio) scans? Why?

A

High, to get peak enhancement, 4ml/sec or higher

180
Q

CECT Chest: anatomy covered, SFOV, DFOV, techniques, algorithms, reconstructions

A

Anatomy: apices to below hemidiaphragm
*SCAN INFERIOR TO SUPERIOR venous runoff will include 2cm below tibial plateau to iliac crests
SFOV: large (body)
DFOV: 38cm set to patient for chest, venous runoff 48cm
Algorithm: standard WW700 WL180 for optimal vascular
Recons: site protocol dependant
kVp 120 mA 500 (venous runoff 190)

181
Q

Contrast protocol for a CTA chest pulmonary embolism? Method 1

A
  • 120ml split bolus
  • 70ml @ 4ml/sec with smart prep (bolus tracking) with ROI over pulmonary artery
  • 50ml @ 3ml/sec 25 secs after first injection
  • lower extremity scanned 180 seconds after first bolus
182
Q

Contrast protocol for a CTA chest pulmonary embolism? Method 2

A
  • timing bolus
  • 20ml @ 4ml/sec to measure cardiac output, ROI on pulmonary artery
  • 60-80ml @ 4ml/sec and use calculated scan delay (10-12secs average)
183
Q

What is the most anterior part of the heart?

A

Right ventricle

184
Q

What are the right and left lobes of the liver divided by?

A

The falciform ligament

185
Q

Which lobe of the liver is the most anterior?

A

Left

186
Q

Where is the quadrate lobe located?

A

Inferior to the caudate lobe

187
Q

Where is the caudate lobe located?

A
  • superior to gallbladder

- anterior to IVC

188
Q

What veins join to form the portal vein?

A
  • superior mesenteric vein

- splenic vein

189
Q

Where is the portal vein in relation to the pancreas?

A

Posterior

190
Q

Where is the portal vein in relation to the IVC?

A

Anterior

191
Q

Where is the hepatic artery in relation to the portal vein?

A

Anterior

192
Q

Where is the gallbladder attached to the liver?

A

Inferoanterior aspect of the right lobe

193
Q

HU of liver?

A

40-50

194
Q

HU of gallbladder?

A

-50 - -100 HU

195
Q

Is the liver or gallbladder darker?

A

Gallbladder

196
Q

Are the bile ducts usually seen?

A

Not unless theres a stone

197
Q

At what vertebral level does the head of the pancreas sit?

A

L2/L3

198
Q

Which is lower: the head or the tail of the pancreas?

A

The head is the lowest point (L2/L3)

199
Q

What runs through the head of the pancreas?

A

The common bile duct

200
Q

Where is the head of the pancreas in relation to the IVC?

A

Anterior

201
Q

Where are the SMV and aorta compared to the body of the pancreas?

A

Posterior

202
Q

What vessel follows the body of the pancreas?

A

Splenic vein

203
Q

How do the adrenal glands appear on an axial slice?

A

Inverted “V” or “Y”

204
Q

Which adrenal gland is lower and more medial?

A

Right

205
Q

Where is the right adrenal gland in relation to the IVC?

A

Posteior

206
Q

What is the largest lymph organ in the body?

A

Spleen

207
Q

Is the spleen considered part of the circulatory system?

A

Spleen

208
Q

What borders the spleen posteriorly?

A

-diaphragm and left lung

209
Q

What does the spleen look like in early arterial phase?

A

Heterogenous

210
Q

Which is bigger: the splenic vein or artery?

A

Splenic vein

211
Q

How do the upper poles of the kidneys sit compared to the lower poles

A

Medial and posterior

212
Q

Can we see the ureters without contrast enhancement?

A

-not well

213
Q

Where is the bladder in relation to the symphysis pubis?

A

Immediately posterior

214
Q

What gives the stomach a distinct appearance?

A

Rugae

215
Q

How to differentiate between the small and large bowel on a CT?

A

Small: plicae circularis, villi
Large: haustra

216
Q

Where does the sigmoid colon sit in relation to the bladder?

A

Posterior

217
Q

Where does the uterus sit?

A

Between the bladder and the rectum

218
Q

Where does the prostate gland sit?

A

Inferior to the bladder

219
Q

Is the central zone of the prostate gland hypodense or hyperdense?

A

Hyperdense, peripheral zone is hypodense

220
Q

When the bladder is full, where does the prostate gland move?

A

Posteriorly

221
Q

Branches of the abdominal aorta?

A
  • Inferior phrenic arteries (right and left)
  • celiac trunk (left gastric, common hepatic, splenic)
  • superior mesenteric artery
  • renal arteries (right and left)
  • gonadal arteries (right and left)
  • inferior mesenteric artery
  • lumbar arteries (right and left)
222
Q

Where does the abdominal aorta bifurcate

A

L4