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MRT Year 2 > CAMRT Review: Anatomy And Pathology > Flashcards

CAMRT Review: Anatomy And Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Planes of the body?

A
  • Sagittal
  • Coronal
  • Transverse
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2
Q

What cavities are classed as “dorsal” on the body?

A
  • cranial cavity

- spinal cavity/column

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3
Q

What cavities are classed as ventral on the body?

A
  • thoracic cavity

- abdominopelvic cavity

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4
Q

Types of membranes?

A
  • Epithelial

- Connective

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5
Q

Types of epithelial membranes?

A
  • Cutaneous
  • Serous
  • Mucous
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6
Q

What is classed as a cutaneous membrane?

A

-skin

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7
Q

Types of serous membranes?

A
  • parietal

- visceral

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8
Q

Where are serous membranes located?

A

-on surfaces with closed cavities

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9
Q

What are mucous membranes made out of? What kinds of surfaces do they line?

A
  • contain both an epithelial cell and a fibrous/connective tissue layer
  • they line body surfaces open to the exterior of the body
  • cells secrete mucous
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10
Q

Serous membranes of the thoracic cavity?

A
  • parietal/visceral pleura

- parietal/visceral pericardium

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11
Q

Serous membrane in the peritoneum?

A

-parietal/visceral peritoneum

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12
Q

Disease classifications? (6)

A
  1. Metabolic: throughout the body
  2. Genetic: hereditary
  3. Neoplastic: new tissue
  4. Autoimmune
  5. Traumatic: accident
  6. Congenital: born with it
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13
Q

Types of cellular fluid in the body? (3)

A
  1. Intracellular: fluid in cells
  2. Interstitial: in between cells
  3. Extracellular: interstitial plus blood plasma
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14
Q

Types of human tissue? (4) What do they do for the body?

A
  1. Epithelial: nutrients: food and 02
  2. Connective tissue: structure and safety
  3. Muscle tissue: movement
  4. Nervous tissue: thinking and feeling
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15
Q

What type of tissue forms the mucous, serous, and cutaneous membranes in the body?

A

Epithelial

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16
Q

Does epithelial tissue contain blood vessels? Does it have interstitial fluid?

A
  • contains no blood vessels resulting in a long healing time

- has little or no interstitial fluid

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17
Q

What is the most abundant tissue in the body?

A

Connective tissue

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18
Q

Connective tissue is largely composed of an _______?

A

Intercellular matrix

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19
Q

Types of connective tissue? (5)

A
  1. Areolar: loose and fibrous: glue that holds the organs together
  2. Adipose: fat
  3. Tendons: dense and fibrous
  4. Bone and cartilage
  5. Blood and hematopoietic tissue
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20
Q

Types of muscular tissue? (3)

A
  1. Skeletal
  2. Smooth
  3. Cardiac
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21
Q

What is nervous tissue composed of?

A

-Neurons and glia

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22
Q

Lobes of the brain?

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Temporal
  • Occipital
  • Insula (5th lobe inside brain)
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23
Q

Where is the cerebrum located? What is its purpose?

A
  • the outside of the brain

- higher brain functions (reasoning, memory, logic)

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24
Q

What is contained in the diencephalon? What does it do?

A
  • thalamus
  • hypothalamus
  • pineal gland

-hormones that control body processes

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25
Q

Parts of the brainstem?

A
  • midbrain
  • pons
  • medulla oblongata
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26
Q

What does the brainstem do?

A
  • relays info by the way of the spinal chord and superior brain
  • heart rate, breathing
  • vasodilation
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27
Q

Brain structures are protected by what 3 things.

A
  1. Calivarium
  2. Meninges
  3. CSF
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28
Q

Meninges of the brain?

A
  • Dura
  • Arachnoid
  • Pia
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29
Q

Where is CSF located?

A

In the subarachnoid space

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30
Q

What is CSF made from? What makes it?

A

Made by the choroid plexus in the floor of the 3rd and 4th ventricles
-made from fluid in blood and filters into the subarachnoid space

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31
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

A

Balance

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32
Q

When you see what structure do you know that you are finished the brain scan?

A

Cisterna magna

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33
Q

What are gyri?

A

-folds/bumps of the brain

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34
Q

What are sulci?

A

-grooves, creases outside of the brain

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35
Q

What is the space between the 2 dura maters called?

A

Venous sinus

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36
Q

What is hydrocephalus? Radiographic appearance?

A

“Water on the brain”: abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain

  • appears as dilated ventricles
  • may be congenital or acquired
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37
Q

Types of hydrocephalus?

A
  1. Communicating: inability to absorb CSF into the venous sinuses or an overproductions of CSF
  2. Non-communicating: obstruction of the flow of CSF
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38
Q

What can be done to treat hydrocephalus?

A

-shunt that drains into the peritoneal cavity

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39
Q

What is a concussion? Symptoms?

A

Temporary loss of normal brain function due to a blunt trauma that bends the brain stem

  • can be acute or may appear over days or months
  • nausea, vomiting, light sensitivity, vertigo,mood and sleep changes
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40
Q

What is a cerebral contusion?

A

Bruising of the brain caused by blunt trauma that throws the brain against the rough interior surface of the skull
-edema, swelling, and tissue necrosis

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41
Q

What is the most immediately life threatening hematoma?

A

Epidural

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42
Q

What is an epidural hematoma? Causes? Radiographic Appearance?

A

Acute arterial bleed between the dura mater and skull

  • usually caused by tear in the middle meningeal artery due to a # in the parietotemporal region of the skull
  • causes mass effect
  • looks like a lens shape (double convex)
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43
Q

What is the mass effect?

A

Displacement of brain structures

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44
Q

What is a subdural hematoma?

A

Venous bleed caused by ruptured veins between the dura and arachnoid mater, associated with a blow to the frontal or occipital bone

  • headache, agitation, confusion, drowsiness, gradual neurological deficits
  • appears as crescent shaped lesion
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45
Q

What is a subarachnoid hematoma?

A

Venous bleed into the ventricular system

  • may increase intracranial pressure
  • can be treated surgically, with drugs, or placement of a catheter
  • appears as increased density in the falx cerebri, sub-arachnoid cisterns, or sulci
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46
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Temporary loss of neurological functions that resolve within 24hrs

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47
Q

Types of CVA?

A
  1. Acute ischemic stroke

2. Hemorrhagic stroke

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48
Q

What is an acute ischemic stroke?

A

Acute brain infarction caused by loss of blood supply to a portion of the brain
-usually caused by atherosclerotic disease of the brain

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49
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Ruptured blood vessel in the brain

-usually caused by hypertension, rupture of a berry aneurysm, or AVM

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50
Q

Symptoms of a stroke?

A
  • acute hemiparesis (weakness) /hemiplegia (paralysis)

- difficulty speaking

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51
Q

Clot busting drugs are in-effective _____hrs after initial onset of a stroke?

A

3

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52
Q

What is an AVM?

A

Atriovenous malformation

-abnormal communication between an artery and a vein

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53
Q

What is the most common type of primary brain tumour?

A

Glioma (astrocytoma)

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54
Q

What does a glioma disrupt?

A

The blood brain barrier

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55
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the pia and arachnoid mater

-bacterial or viral pathogens can spread from the ear, upper respiratory tract, sinuses, blood stream etc.

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56
Q

What type of meningitis is most common?

A

Bacterial

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57
Q

Symptoms of meningitis?

A
  • acute severe headache
  • can be diagnosed with lab test of CSF
  • can lead to encephalitis which is life threatening
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58
Q

What are contraindications for a lumbar puncture?

A
  • increased intracranial pressure

- cerebral hemorrhaging

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59
Q

What is spina bifida? Types?

A

Incomplete closure of the vertebral canal

  1. Occulta
  2. Meningocele
  3. Myelocele
  4. Myelomeningocele
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60
Q

Parts of an intervertebral disk?

A
  1. Annulus fibrosis

2. Nucleus pulposus

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61
Q

Symptoms of a herniated disk?

A

-sudden sever pain and muscle weakness in upper or lower limbs

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62
Q

What is Parkinson’s caused by?

A

Inadequate production of the neuro transmitter dopamine

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63
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

Cells that produce hormones and release them into the intercellular spaces that are picked up by the blood stream

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64
Q

What is the exocrine system?

A

Collections are glandular tissue in organs that produce and release non-hormonal substances into ducts

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65
Q

What allow the brain and body to have control over the secretion rates of hormones?

A

Negative feedback

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66
Q

Where is the pineal gland located?

A

-the roof of the 3rd ventricle

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67
Q

What does the pineal gland secrete?

A

Melatonin to regulate sleep/wake patterns

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68
Q

What does the anterior pituitary gland secrete?

A
  1. ADH: antidiuretic hormone: stops production of urine
  2. TSH: thyroid stimulating hormone
  3. GH: growth hormone
  4. ACTH: adrenocotropic hormone: stimulates adrenal glands
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69
Q

What is giantism?

A

Hyperpituitarism before the fusion of the growth plate

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70
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Hyperpituitarism after the fusion of growth plates

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71
Q

What do the parathyroid glands secrete?

A

-PTH: parathyroid hormone: increases blood calcium levels

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72
Q

What does the thyroid gland secrete?

A
  1. Thyroid hormone: speeds up cellular metabolism

2. Calcitonin: decreases blood calcium levels

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73
Q

What does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A

-cortisol: increases blood sugar levels, suppresses immune system, anti-inflammatory

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74
Q

What do the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets secrete?

A

Glucagon: hyperglycemic: raises blood sugar

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75
Q

What do the beta cells of the pancreatic islets secrete?

A

Insulin: hypoglycemic: decreases blood sugar

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76
Q

What causes dwarfism in children?

A

Hypopituitarism

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of dwarfism?

A

Achondroplasia

  • congenital
  • inability to convert epiphyseal cartilage to bone
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78
Q

What is diabetes insipidus? Symptoms?

A
  • deficiency of ADH caused by trauma to the head

- polyuria, thirst

79
Q

What is Cushings? Signs/symptoms?

A
  • excessive levels of glucocorticoids in the blood stream

- increased obesity of trunk of body, buffalo hump, moon face, loss of muscle mass, and bone density

80
Q

What is Addisons disease? Signs/symptoms?

A

Insufficient production of cortisone

  • most common in women between 30 and 60
  • hypoglycemia, weight loss, fatigue
  • enlargement of adrenal glands
81
Q

What is hyperthyroidism most commonly caused by?

A

Graves disease

82
Q

Hyperthyroidism?

A

Over secretion of thyroid hormone

  • elevated metabolic rate
  • sweating, sleeplessness, tremors, tachycardia, exopthalmos
83
Q

Hypothyroidism can lead to ______ and ______?

A
  • myxedema

- goiter

84
Q

Hypothyroidism?

A

Under production of thyroid hormone

-chills, thick dry skin, constipation, lethargy, mental slowness

85
Q

What is goiter?

A

Enlarged thyroid

-develops when hypothyroidism is caused by iodine insufficiency

86
Q

What is cretinism?

A

Infant hypothyroidism

-short stature, protruding tongue, flattened nose, wide set eyes, developmental deficits

87
Q

What is Hashimotos disease?

A

Low thyroid in adults

  • cause by autoimmune thyroiditis or radiation/surgery to thyroid
  • low energy, cold, personality changes, weight gain
88
Q

Hyperparathyroidism?

A

Over secretion of parathyroid hormone

  • increased blood calcium levels
  • commonly associated with renal failure
  • decreased bone density
89
Q

Hypoparathyroidism?

A

Decreased levels of PTH in the blood

-tetanty, if not treated, then death

90
Q

Types of diabetes mellitus?

A
  1. Jeuvenile: does not produce insulin

2. Adult: no longer responds to insulin

91
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A
  • faintness
  • tremors
  • lightheadedness
  • perspiration
92
Q

Symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

A
  • chronic hyperglycemia
  • increased thirst
  • increased urine production
  • decreased circulation in peripheral vessels
93
Q

Blood composition?

A

55% plasma

45% formed elements

94
Q

Types of blood cells?

A
  • Erythrocytes (RBCs): carry oxygen
  • Leukocytes (WBCs): infection control
  • Thrombocytes (Platelets): blood clotting
95
Q

Stages of immune system defence?

A
  1. Physical: skin, hair, fluid, mucous
  2. Inflammation (non-specific)
  3. Cell mediated (specific)
96
Q

Stages of inflammation?

A
  1. Swelling: extra fluids
  2. Heat: blood rushing to area
  3. Redness: blood rushing to area
  4. Pain: fluids pushing on nerves
97
Q

Types of non-granular WBCs?

A
  • lymphocytes

- monocytes

98
Q

All blood cells are formed in ________?

A

Bone marrow

99
Q

Types of lymphocytes?

A

B: blood stream “jr high”
T: thymus gland “jr high”
NK: killer cells

100
Q

Which cells run cell mediated immunity?

A

T-cells

101
Q

What happens if the T cells get overwhelmed in cell mediated immunity?

A

Call for help from B cells

102
Q

Types of B-lymphocytes?

A
  • plasma: antibodies

- memory: remembers pathogen (vaccination)

103
Q

Leukemia causes an _______(increase or decrease) in WBCs?

A

Increase (incorrectly formed ones)

104
Q

Types of leukemia?

A

AML: mostly children
ALL: 80% adults
CML: mostly adults
CLL: 20% of all cases, good prognosis

105
Q

Signs of lymphocytic leukemia?

A
  • increase in WBCs
  • swollen glands/lymphnodes
  • enlarged spleen
106
Q

Signs of myelocytic leukemia?

A
  • increase in WBCs

- radiolucent bands in metaphysis, widened end of longbones

107
Q

Signs of all leukemias?

A
  • profound fatigue: decreased RBCs, decreased oxygen = tired
  • spongey gums
  • sudden onset of acute hemorrhagic episodes
  • bone pain/weakness
  • prone to infection
108
Q

What is anemia?

A

Low levels of RBCs

  • most common cause is iron deficiency or chronic blood loss, or where RBCs don’t form properly
  • pale, fatigue, muscle weakness, SOB, increased respiration and heart rate
  • widened medullary canals
109
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Cancer of the B and T lymphocytes

110
Q

What does cancer grading do?;

A

Determines how aggressive or malignant the tumour is

111
Q

What does cancer staging do?

A

Determines how widespread the cancer is in the body

112
Q

Layers of the heart from outer to inner?

A
  1. Pericardial Sac
  2. Epicardium
  3. Myocardium
  4. Endocardium
113
Q

What layer of the heart helps form the atria and ventricles?

A

Endocardium

114
Q

What is a cardiac tamponade?

A

-fluid in the pericardial cavity restricts the heart from beating

115
Q

What keeps blood flowing?

A
  • heart beat
  • pressure
  • vasodilation
  • valves in veins
  • venous heart : calf muscles
  • breathing
  • blood pressure gradient
116
Q

What would cause circulatory shock?

A
  • neurogenic: loss of vasodilation
  • heart is impaired
  • occlusion
  • blood loss
117
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosis?

A

The duct that runs from the pulmonary artery to the aorta doesn’t close after birth
-after birth, some of the blood gets shunted back into the pulmonary trunk, causing enlargement of the pulmonary arteries, lungs, left atrium, and left ventricle

118
Q

What is an atrial septal defect?

A

The foramen ovale doesn’t close off within the first year of life as it should

  • blood from the high pressure left atrium is shunted to the lower pressure right atrium after birth which increases the workload of the right ventricle and leads to increased flow to the lungs
  • increased lung marking and enlarged pulmonary outflow tract
119
Q

What is a ventricular septal defect?

A

Abnormal opening between the right and left ventricles

  • increased flood flow to and from the lungs, increased workload for the left atrium and ventricle
  • enlargement of the pulmonary trunk, left atrium and ventricle, as well as increased pulmonary markings
120
Q

What is a tetrology of fallot?

A

Combo of 4 defects

  1. Pulmonary valve stenosis
  2. Superior ventricular septal defect
  3. Overriding aorta (opens to both ventricles)
  4. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
    - “boot” “wooden shoe” “coeur en sabot” appearance
    - best demonstrated with ultrasound
121
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta?

A

Stenosis of the descending aorta, just distal to the arteries that branch off to supply blood to the head, neck, and upper extremities

  • most common cause of hypertension in children
  • aorta looks like a “3”
122
Q

What is the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?

A

Arteriosclerosis: general term of thickening and loss of elasticity in the walls of the arteries
Atherosclerosis: build up of fibro-fatty deposits (plaques)

123
Q

Where does atherosclerosis mostly occur?

A
  • aorta
  • common iliacs
  • femoral
  • cerebral
  • coronary arteries
124
Q

What is CAD?

A

Coronary artery disease: atherosclerosis in the coronary vessels
-symptoms range from angina pectoris to myocardial infarction

125
Q

What is an aneurysm? Types?

A

Weakness in the wall of an artery that causes bulging

  1. Saccular (berry): involves on side of the artery
  2. Fusiform: involves entire circumference
  3. Dissecting: separation of tunica intima from the tunica media (blood flowing between the layers of the artery
126
Q

What is a Myocardial Infarction?

A

Death of some portion of the heart muscle most commonly caused by an acute thrombus in the coronary arteries

127
Q

Symptoms of a MI?

A

Men: SOB, severe pain, profuse diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting
Women: less severe symptoms

128
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

Severe chest tightness, pain that radiates to the jaw/neck/left arm, because of a temporary insufficient oxygen supply to the heart

129
Q

Types of heart failure?

A
  1. Left-sided heart failure: congestive heart failure: when LV cannot pump blood effectively
  2. Right-sided heart failure: occurs secondary to left sided because of back up of blood in the lungs is too much for the RV to overcome, can also be caused by a blocked pulmonary artery
130
Q

What is an arrhythmia? Types?

A

Any condition where the heart cannot beat normally

  1. Bradycardia
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Sinus dysrhythmia: heart rate increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration
  4. Premature Contractions
  5. Fibrillation: individual cardiac muscle fibre contractions are out of sync with one another
131
Q

Which is more immediately life threatening: ventricular fibrillation or atrial fibrillation?

A

Ventricular

132
Q

2 types of valvular disease? What valve is it most common in?

A
  1. Heart valve is stenotic
  2. Heart valve is insufficient and cannot close properly
    - cause “heart murmur”
    - most common mitral valve secondary to rheumatic fever
133
Q

What is pulmonary edema?

A

Fluids in the interstitial spaces of the lung parenchyma

134
Q

What is a DVT?

A

Deep vein thrombosis: blood clot formed in a lower extremity vein
-may be caused by trauma, bacterial infections, prolonged bed rest, and oral contraceptives

135
Q

What is a pulmonary embolus?

A

Piece of thrombus breaks loose, enter blood stream, and becomes stuck in a pulmonary artery

  • causes ARDS, heart failure, cardiogenic shock
  • risk increases with bed rest and inactivity
136
Q

What is a varicose vein?

A

Veins that are permanently dilated and tortuous because of blood that has pooled in them
-most often found in superficial veins of lower extremities

137
Q

What secures the tongue to the bottom of the oral cavity?

A

Lingual frenulum

138
Q

What is mastication?

A

Chewing

139
Q

What pass through/ are contained in the porta hepatis?

A
  1. Hepatic artery
  2. Portal vein
  3. Common hepatic duct
140
Q

What does the liver do?

A

LOTS OF THINGS including:

  • regulation of blood metabolism
  • cleaning of toxins
  • storing vitamins, iron, and glycogen
  • make bile
141
Q

When fatty chyme enters the duodenum, a hormone called_________ is released which triggers the gall bladder to release bile.

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

142
Q

Layers of the GI tract from inner to outer?

A
  1. Mucosa
  2. Submucosa
  3. Muscularis
  4. Serosa
143
Q

What is an esophageal atresia?

A
  • congenital
  • esophagus has formed with 2 blind pouches
  • baby cannot swallow saliva
  • contrast esophagram is contraindicated
144
Q

What is a tracheoesophageal fistula?

A

Abnormal passageway between the esophagus and trachea

145
Q

What is achalasia?

A

Lowe esophageal sphincter cannot relac

  • sternal pain and dysphagia
  • dilated proximal esophagus
  • “rat tail” “beak-like” appearance
146
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Pre-cancerous cells in the esophagus (secondary to GERD?)

147
Q

What is GERD?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

-heart burn, chest pain that mimics heart disease

148
Q

Where do esophageal carcinoma tumours usually originate?

A

The GE junction

149
Q

What is the difference between a sliding hiatal hernia and a rolling/paraesophageal hernia?

A

Sliding: some portion of stomach and GE junction moves above the diaphragm
Rolling: GE junction stays below diaphragm

150
Q

What position will demonstrate a sliding hiatal hernia?

A

Trendelenberg

151
Q

What is hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

Hyperplasia, hypertrophy, or elongation of the pylorus

  • can be palpated as a mobile, hard “olive”
  • profuse projectile vomiting
  • “string sign” at pyloric sphincter
152
Q

What is a common cause of gastritis?

A

-helicobacter pylori

153
Q

What is a peptic ulcer?

A

Inflammatory process in the stomach and duodenum secondary to gastritis

  • stomach acid wears through lining
  • usually in lesser curvature or duodenal bulb
154
Q

What is a peptic ulcer aggravated by?

A

NSAIDS and H.pylori

155
Q

What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding and pneumoperitoneum?

A

Peptic ulcer

156
Q

2 types of peptic ulcers?

A
  1. Benign

2. Malignant

157
Q

What is a sign of gastric cancer?

A

Stomach doesn’t churn as much: looks “stuck”

158
Q

How many layers of the bowel does crohn’s affect?

A

All of them

159
Q

Another name for Crohn’s?

A

Regional enteritis

160
Q

Radiographic indications for Crohn’s?

A
  • skip lesions
  • cobblestone
  • pipe-like narrowing
  • string sign
161
Q

What is the most common small bowel obstruction?

A

Adhesion

162
Q

What is the most common complication of a large bowel obstruction? Where is it most likely to occur?

A

Perforation in the cecum

163
Q

In a hernia, what layers are protruding through what layers?

A

Mucosa and submucosa are protruding through the muscularis

164
Q

What does intussusception look like? Symptoms?

A

Coiled spring appearance

  • pain
  • blood in stool
  • palpable mass on right side
  • chronic condition in adults
  • most common in children (congenital)
165
Q

Where does a volvulus most commonly occur? What is the radiographic sign?

A

Cecum and sigmoid colon

-“lead pipe” sign

166
Q

What is adynamic illeus? Radiographic indication?

A

No peristalsis int the small and large bowels

  • almost always occurs after abdominal surgery
  • air fluid levels in both the small and large bowel with no obvious point of obstruction
167
Q

What is diverticulosis? Radiographic sign?

A

Out of control diverticulitis

  • colonic outpouchings of the mucosa and submucosa through the muscularis at points of weakness in the bowel wall
  • chronic/intermittent pain in lower abdomen around meals
  • “saw-tooth” appearance
168
Q

What increases the chance of bowel cancer?

A

Ulcerative colitis

169
Q

What layers does ulcerative colitis affect?

A

The mucosal layer of the large bowel

  • usually rectosigmoid colon
  • most often in young, caucasian adults
  • bloody diarrhea, pain, fever, weight loss, toxic megacolon
170
Q

What is contraindicated during a toxic megacolon attack?

A

Barium enema

171
Q

Radiographic sign of ulcerative colitis?

A

“Collar-buttoned” and “lead pipe”

172
Q

2 types of polyps in the colon?

A
  1. Pedunculated: has a stalk

2. Sessile: no stalk

173
Q

Where are polyps most commonly found?

A

-rectosigmoid area and left colon

174
Q

Where can colon cancer spread to? Radiographic appearance?

A

Lymph, liver, or lungs

-“apple core” sign or “napkin ring”

175
Q

What is zenker’s diverticulum?

A
  • large outpouchings of esophagus just above the upper esophageal sphincter
  • weakening of muscle wall
  • dysphagia, aspiration, regurgitation of food
176
Q

What is giardiasis?

A
  • infection of the lumen of small intestine

- dilation with thicker folds

177
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum?

A
  • birth defect

- sacklike outpouching in intestinal wall caused by persistence of umbilical vesicle

178
Q

What is cholelithiasis? Symptoms?

A

Freely moving stones in the gallbladder

-jaundice, grey-white feces

179
Q

Causes of gallstones?

A
  • significant rapid weight loss achieved

- extreme dieting

180
Q

Risk factors of gallstones?

A
  • genetics
  • female
  • forty
  • “fat”
181
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the gallbladder, 95% caused by obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone

182
Q

Types of hepatitis and how you get them?

A

A and E: “ate” them
B: blood and bodily fluids
C: blood transfusions, most common cause of chronic hepatitis

183
Q

What is hepatitis? Symptoms?

A

Most common inflammatory disease of the liver

  • jaundice, vomiting, tenderness, pain, cirrhosis, hypertension, hepatocellular necrosis, fatty liver
  • increased risk for liver cancer
  • decreased blood clotting with chronic hepatitis
184
Q

What kinds of hepatitis are there vaccinations for?

A

A and B

185
Q

What is the #1 cause of cirrhosis?

A

Alcoholism

186
Q

What causes fluid build up between the liver and ribs?

A

Cirrhosis because the liver shrinks

187
Q

What causes ascites?

A

Portal hypertension

188
Q

What causes esophageal varicies and (epigastric veins: caput medussa)

A

Portal hypertension

189
Q

What is the “dog-eared” bladder a radiographic sign for?

A

Ascites

190
Q

What are esophageal varicies?

A

Collateral veins
Rupture is fatal and leads to 1/3rd of all cirrhosis deaths
“Worm-like” filling defects in upper GI

191
Q

What is the most common cause of death when you have hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity

192
Q

What is acute pancreatitis?

A

Inflammation of the pancreas caused by digestive enzymes that have become activated and begin to digest the pancreas from the inside out

193
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A

Frequent, intermittent damage to the pancreas causes scar tissue to form and the pancreas can no longer produce digestive enzymes insulin or glucagon

MRT Year 2 (18 decks)

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