CAMRT Review: Anatomy And Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
Planes of the body?
A
- Sagittal
- Coronal
- Transverse
2
Q
What cavities are classed as “dorsal” on the body?
A
- cranial cavity
- spinal cavity/column
3
Q
What cavities are classed as ventral on the body?
A
- thoracic cavity
- abdominopelvic cavity
4
Q
Types of membranes?
A
- Epithelial
- Connective
5
Q
Types of epithelial membranes?
A
- Cutaneous
- Serous
- Mucous
6
Q
What is classed as a cutaneous membrane?
A
-skin
7
Q
Types of serous membranes?
A
- parietal
- visceral
8
Q
Where are serous membranes located?
A
-on surfaces with closed cavities
9
Q
What are mucous membranes made out of? What kinds of surfaces do they line?
A
- contain both an epithelial cell and a fibrous/connective tissue layer
- they line body surfaces open to the exterior of the body
- cells secrete mucous
10
Q
Serous membranes of the thoracic cavity?
A
- parietal/visceral pleura
- parietal/visceral pericardium
11
Q
Serous membrane in the peritoneum?
A
-parietal/visceral peritoneum
12
Q
Disease classifications? (6)
A
- Metabolic: throughout the body
- Genetic: hereditary
- Neoplastic: new tissue
- Autoimmune
- Traumatic: accident
- Congenital: born with it
13
Q
Types of cellular fluid in the body? (3)
A
- Intracellular: fluid in cells
- Interstitial: in between cells
- Extracellular: interstitial plus blood plasma
14
Q
Types of human tissue? (4) What do they do for the body?
A
- Epithelial: nutrients: food and 02
- Connective tissue: structure and safety
- Muscle tissue: movement
- Nervous tissue: thinking and feeling
15
Q
What type of tissue forms the mucous, serous, and cutaneous membranes in the body?
A
Epithelial
16
Q
Does epithelial tissue contain blood vessels? Does it have interstitial fluid?
A
- contains no blood vessels resulting in a long healing time
- has little or no interstitial fluid
17
Q
What is the most abundant tissue in the body?
A
Connective tissue
18
Q
Connective tissue is largely composed of an _______?
A
Intercellular matrix
19
Q
Types of connective tissue? (5)
A
- Areolar: loose and fibrous: glue that holds the organs together
- Adipose: fat
- Tendons: dense and fibrous
- Bone and cartilage
- Blood and hematopoietic tissue
20
Q
Types of muscular tissue? (3)
A
- Skeletal
- Smooth
- Cardiac
21
Q
What is nervous tissue composed of?
A
-Neurons and glia
22
Q
Lobes of the brain?
A
- Frontal
- Parietal
- Temporal
- Occipital
- Insula (5th lobe inside brain)
23
Q
Where is the cerebrum located? What is its purpose?
A
- the outside of the brain
- higher brain functions (reasoning, memory, logic)
24
Q
What is contained in the diencephalon? What does it do?
A
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- pineal gland
-hormones that control body processes
25
Parts of the brainstem?
- midbrain
- pons
- medulla oblongata
26
What does the brainstem do?
- relays info by the way of the spinal chord and superior brain
- heart rate, breathing
- vasodilation
27
Brain structures are protected by what 3 things.
1. Calivarium
2. Meninges
3. CSF
28
Meninges of the brain?
- Dura
- Arachnoid
- Pia
29
Where is CSF located?
In the subarachnoid space
30
What is CSF made from? What makes it?
Made by the choroid plexus in the floor of the 3rd and 4th ventricles
-made from fluid in blood and filters into the subarachnoid space
31
What is the cerebellum responsible for?
Balance
32
When you see what structure do you know that you are finished the brain scan?
Cisterna magna
33
What are gyri?
-folds/bumps of the brain
34
What are sulci?
-grooves, creases outside of the brain
35
What is the space between the 2 dura maters called?
Venous sinus
36
What is hydrocephalus? Radiographic appearance?
“Water on the brain”: abnormal accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain
- appears as dilated ventricles
- may be congenital or acquired
37
Types of hydrocephalus?
1. Communicating: inability to absorb CSF into the venous sinuses or an overproductions of CSF
2. Non-communicating: obstruction of the flow of CSF
38
What can be done to treat hydrocephalus?
-shunt that drains into the peritoneal cavity
39
What is a concussion? Symptoms?
Temporary loss of normal brain function due to a blunt trauma that bends the brain stem
- can be acute or may appear over days or months
- nausea, vomiting, light sensitivity, vertigo,mood and sleep changes
40
What is a cerebral contusion?
Bruising of the brain caused by blunt trauma that throws the brain against the rough interior surface of the skull
-edema, swelling, and tissue necrosis
41
What is the most immediately life threatening hematoma?
Epidural
42
What is an epidural hematoma? Causes? Radiographic Appearance?
Acute arterial bleed between the dura mater and skull
- usually caused by tear in the middle meningeal artery due to a # in the parietotemporal region of the skull
- causes mass effect
- looks like a lens shape (double convex)
43
What is the mass effect?
Displacement of brain structures
44
What is a subdural hematoma?
Venous bleed caused by ruptured veins between the dura and arachnoid mater, associated with a blow to the frontal or occipital bone
- headache, agitation, confusion, drowsiness, gradual neurological deficits
- appears as crescent shaped lesion
45
What is a subarachnoid hematoma?
Venous bleed into the ventricular system
- may increase intracranial pressure
- can be treated surgically, with drugs, or placement of a catheter
- appears as increased density in the falx cerebri, sub-arachnoid cisterns, or sulci
46
What is a TIA?
Temporary loss of neurological functions that resolve within 24hrs
47
Types of CVA?
1. Acute ischemic stroke
| 2. Hemorrhagic stroke
48
What is an acute ischemic stroke?
Acute brain infarction caused by loss of blood supply to a portion of the brain
-usually caused by atherosclerotic disease of the brain
49
What is a hemorrhagic stroke?
Ruptured blood vessel in the brain
| -usually caused by hypertension, rupture of a berry aneurysm, or AVM
50
Symptoms of a stroke?
- acute hemiparesis (weakness) /hemiplegia (paralysis)
| - difficulty speaking
51
Clot busting drugs are in-effective _____hrs after initial onset of a stroke?
3
52
What is an AVM?
Atriovenous malformation
| -abnormal communication between an artery and a vein
53
What is the most common type of primary brain tumour?
Glioma (astrocytoma)
54
What does a glioma disrupt?
The blood brain barrier
55
What is meningitis?
Acute inflammation of the pia and arachnoid mater
| -bacterial or viral pathogens can spread from the ear, upper respiratory tract, sinuses, blood stream etc.
56
What type of meningitis is most common?
Bacterial
57
Symptoms of meningitis?
- acute severe headache
- can be diagnosed with lab test of CSF
- can lead to encephalitis which is life threatening
58
What are contraindications for a lumbar puncture?
- increased intracranial pressure
| - cerebral hemorrhaging
59
What is spina bifida? Types?
Incomplete closure of the vertebral canal
1. Occulta
2. Meningocele
3. Myelocele
4. Myelomeningocele
60
Parts of an intervertebral disk?
1. Annulus fibrosis
| 2. Nucleus pulposus
61
Symptoms of a herniated disk?
-sudden sever pain and muscle weakness in upper or lower limbs
62
What is Parkinson’s caused by?
Inadequate production of the neuro transmitter dopamine
63
What is the endocrine system?
Cells that produce hormones and release them into the intercellular spaces that are picked up by the blood stream
64
What is the exocrine system?
Collections are glandular tissue in organs that produce and release non-hormonal substances into ducts
65
What allow the brain and body to have control over the secretion rates of hormones?
Negative feedback
66
Where is the pineal gland located?
-the roof of the 3rd ventricle
67
What does the pineal gland secrete?
Melatonin to regulate sleep/wake patterns
68
What does the anterior pituitary gland secrete?
1. ADH: antidiuretic hormone: stops production of urine
2. TSH: thyroid stimulating hormone
3. GH: growth hormone
4. ACTH: adrenocotropic hormone: stimulates adrenal glands
69
What is giantism?
Hyperpituitarism before the fusion of the growth plate
70
What is acromegaly?
Hyperpituitarism after the fusion of growth plates
71
What do the parathyroid glands secrete?
-PTH: parathyroid hormone: increases blood calcium levels
72
What does the thyroid gland secrete?
1. Thyroid hormone: speeds up cellular metabolism
| 2. Calcitonin: decreases blood calcium levels
73
What does the adrenal cortex secrete?
-cortisol: increases blood sugar levels, suppresses immune system, anti-inflammatory
74
What do the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets secrete?
Glucagon: hyperglycemic: raises blood sugar
75
What do the beta cells of the pancreatic islets secrete?
Insulin: hypoglycemic: decreases blood sugar
76
What causes dwarfism in children?
Hypopituitarism
77
What is the most common cause of dwarfism?
Achondroplasia
- congenital
- inability to convert epiphyseal cartilage to bone
78
What is diabetes insipidus? Symptoms?
- deficiency of ADH caused by trauma to the head
| - polyuria, thirst
79
What is Cushings? Signs/symptoms?
- excessive levels of glucocorticoids in the blood stream
| - increased obesity of trunk of body, buffalo hump, moon face, loss of muscle mass, and bone density
80
What is Addisons disease? Signs/symptoms?
Insufficient production of cortisone
- most common in women between 30 and 60
- hypoglycemia, weight loss, fatigue
- enlargement of adrenal glands
81
What is hyperthyroidism most commonly caused by?
Graves disease
82
Hyperthyroidism?
Over secretion of thyroid hormone
- elevated metabolic rate
- sweating, sleeplessness, tremors, tachycardia, exopthalmos
83
Hypothyroidism can lead to ______ and ______?
- myxedema
| - goiter
84
Hypothyroidism?
Under production of thyroid hormone
| -chills, thick dry skin, constipation, lethargy, mental slowness
85
What is goiter?
Enlarged thyroid
| -develops when hypothyroidism is caused by iodine insufficiency
86
What is cretinism?
Infant hypothyroidism
| -short stature, protruding tongue, flattened nose, wide set eyes, developmental deficits
87
What is Hashimotos disease?
Low thyroid in adults
- cause by autoimmune thyroiditis or radiation/surgery to thyroid
- low energy, cold, personality changes, weight gain
88
Hyperparathyroidism?
Over secretion of parathyroid hormone
- increased blood calcium levels
- commonly associated with renal failure
- decreased bone density
89
Hypoparathyroidism?
Decreased levels of PTH in the blood
| -tetanty, if not treated, then death
90
Types of diabetes mellitus?
1. Jeuvenile: does not produce insulin
| 2. Adult: no longer responds to insulin
91
Symptoms of hypoglycemia?
- faintness
- tremors
- lightheadedness
- perspiration
92
Symptoms of diabetes mellitus?
- chronic hyperglycemia
- increased thirst
- increased urine production
- decreased circulation in peripheral vessels
93
Blood composition?
55% plasma
| 45% formed elements
94
Types of blood cells?
- Erythrocytes (RBCs): carry oxygen
- Leukocytes (WBCs): infection control
- Thrombocytes (Platelets): blood clotting
95
Stages of immune system defence?
1. Physical: skin, hair, fluid, mucous
2. Inflammation (non-specific)
3. Cell mediated (specific)
96
Stages of inflammation?
1. Swelling: extra fluids
2. Heat: blood rushing to area
3. Redness: blood rushing to area
4. Pain: fluids pushing on nerves
97
Types of non-granular WBCs?
- lymphocytes
| - monocytes
98
All blood cells are formed in ________?
Bone marrow
99
Types of lymphocytes?
B: blood stream “jr high”
T: thymus gland “jr high”
NK: killer cells
100
Which cells run cell mediated immunity?
T-cells
101
What happens if the T cells get overwhelmed in cell mediated immunity?
Call for help from B cells
102
Types of B-lymphocytes?
- plasma: antibodies
| - memory: remembers pathogen (vaccination)
103
Leukemia causes an _______(increase or decrease) in WBCs?
Increase (incorrectly formed ones)
104
Types of leukemia?
AML: mostly children
ALL: 80% adults
CML: mostly adults
CLL: 20% of all cases, good prognosis
105
Signs of lymphocytic leukemia?
- increase in WBCs
- swollen glands/lymphnodes
- enlarged spleen
106
Signs of myelocytic leukemia?
- increase in WBCs
| - radiolucent bands in metaphysis, widened end of longbones
107
Signs of all leukemias?
- profound fatigue: decreased RBCs, decreased oxygen = tired
- spongey gums
- sudden onset of acute hemorrhagic episodes
- bone pain/weakness
- prone to infection
108
What is anemia?
Low levels of RBCs
- most common cause is iron deficiency or chronic blood loss, or where RBCs don’t form properly
- pale, fatigue, muscle weakness, SOB, increased respiration and heart rate
- widened medullary canals
109
What is lymphoma?
Cancer of the B and T lymphocytes
110
What does cancer grading do?;
Determines how aggressive or malignant the tumour is
111
What does cancer staging do?
Determines how widespread the cancer is in the body
112
Layers of the heart from outer to inner?
1. Pericardial Sac
2. Epicardium
3. Myocardium
4. Endocardium
113
What layer of the heart helps form the atria and ventricles?
Endocardium
114
What is a cardiac tamponade?
-fluid in the pericardial cavity restricts the heart from beating
115
What keeps blood flowing?
- heart beat
- pressure
- vasodilation
- valves in veins
- venous heart : calf muscles
- breathing
- blood pressure gradient
116
What would cause circulatory shock?
- neurogenic: loss of vasodilation
- heart is impaired
- occlusion
- blood loss
117
What is patent ductus arteriosis?
The duct that runs from the pulmonary artery to the aorta doesn’t close after birth
-after birth, some of the blood gets shunted back into the pulmonary trunk, causing enlargement of the pulmonary arteries, lungs, left atrium, and left ventricle
118
What is an atrial septal defect?
The foramen ovale doesn’t close off within the first year of life as it should
- blood from the high pressure left atrium is shunted to the lower pressure right atrium after birth which increases the workload of the right ventricle and leads to increased flow to the lungs
- increased lung marking and enlarged pulmonary outflow tract
119
What is a ventricular septal defect?
Abnormal opening between the right and left ventricles
- increased flood flow to and from the lungs, increased workload for the left atrium and ventricle
- enlargement of the pulmonary trunk, left atrium and ventricle, as well as increased pulmonary markings
120
What is a tetrology of fallot?
Combo of 4 defects
1. Pulmonary valve stenosis
2. Superior ventricular septal defect
3. Overriding aorta (opens to both ventricles)
4. Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
- “boot” “wooden shoe” “coeur en sabot” appearance
- best demonstrated with ultrasound
121
What is coarctation of the aorta?
Stenosis of the descending aorta, just distal to the arteries that branch off to supply blood to the head, neck, and upper extremities
- most common cause of hypertension in children
- aorta looks like a “3”
122
What is the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?
Arteriosclerosis: general term of thickening and loss of elasticity in the walls of the arteries
Atherosclerosis: build up of fibro-fatty deposits (plaques)
123
Where does atherosclerosis mostly occur?
- aorta
- common iliacs
- femoral
- cerebral
- coronary arteries
124
What is CAD?
Coronary artery disease: atherosclerosis in the coronary vessels
-symptoms range from angina pectoris to myocardial infarction
125
What is an aneurysm? Types?
Weakness in the wall of an artery that causes bulging
1. Saccular (berry): involves on side of the artery
2. Fusiform: involves entire circumference
3. Dissecting: separation of tunica intima from the tunica media (blood flowing between the layers of the artery
126
What is a Myocardial Infarction?
Death of some portion of the heart muscle most commonly caused by an acute thrombus in the coronary arteries
127
Symptoms of a MI?
Men: SOB, severe pain, profuse diaphoresis, nausea, vomiting
Women: less severe symptoms
128
What is angina pectoris?
Severe chest tightness, pain that radiates to the jaw/neck/left arm, because of a temporary insufficient oxygen supply to the heart
129
Types of heart failure?
1. Left-sided heart failure: congestive heart failure: when LV cannot pump blood effectively
2. Right-sided heart failure: occurs secondary to left sided because of back up of blood in the lungs is too much for the RV to overcome, can also be caused by a blocked pulmonary artery
130
What is an arrhythmia? Types?
Any condition where the heart cannot beat normally
1. Bradycardia
2. Tachycardia
3. Sinus dysrhythmia: heart rate increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration
4. Premature Contractions
5. Fibrillation: individual cardiac muscle fibre contractions are out of sync with one another
131
Which is more immediately life threatening: ventricular fibrillation or atrial fibrillation?
Ventricular
132
2 types of valvular disease? What valve is it most common in?
1. Heart valve is stenotic
2. Heart valve is insufficient and cannot close properly
- cause “heart murmur”
- most common mitral valve secondary to rheumatic fever
133
What is pulmonary edema?
Fluids in the interstitial spaces of the lung parenchyma
134
What is a DVT?
Deep vein thrombosis: blood clot formed in a lower extremity vein
-may be caused by trauma, bacterial infections, prolonged bed rest, and oral contraceptives
135
What is a pulmonary embolus?
Piece of thrombus breaks loose, enter blood stream, and becomes stuck in a pulmonary artery
- causes ARDS, heart failure, cardiogenic shock
- risk increases with bed rest and inactivity
136
What is a varicose vein?
Veins that are permanently dilated and tortuous because of blood that has pooled in them
-most often found in superficial veins of lower extremities
137
What secures the tongue to the bottom of the oral cavity?
Lingual frenulum
138
What is mastication?
Chewing
139
What pass through/ are contained in the porta hepatis?
1. Hepatic artery
2. Portal vein
3. Common hepatic duct
140
What does the liver do?
LOTS OF THINGS including:
- regulation of blood metabolism
- cleaning of toxins
- storing vitamins, iron, and glycogen
- make bile
141
When fatty chyme enters the duodenum, a hormone called_________ is released which triggers the gall bladder to release bile.
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
142
Layers of the GI tract from inner to outer?
1. Mucosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis
4. Serosa
143
What is an esophageal atresia?
- congenital
- esophagus has formed with 2 blind pouches
- baby cannot swallow saliva
- **contrast esophagram is contraindicated**
144
What is a tracheoesophageal fistula?
Abnormal passageway between the esophagus and trachea
145
What is achalasia?
Lowe esophageal sphincter cannot relac
- sternal pain and dysphagia
- dilated proximal esophagus
- “rat tail” “beak-like” appearance
146
What is Barrett’s esophagus?
Pre-cancerous cells in the esophagus (secondary to GERD?)
147
What is GERD?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
| -heart burn, chest pain that mimics heart disease
148
Where do esophageal carcinoma tumours usually originate?
The GE junction
149
What is the difference between a sliding hiatal hernia and a rolling/paraesophageal hernia?
Sliding: some portion of stomach and GE junction moves above the diaphragm
Rolling: GE junction stays below diaphragm
150
What position will demonstrate a sliding hiatal hernia?
Trendelenberg
151
What is hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?
Hyperplasia, hypertrophy, or elongation of the pylorus
- can be palpated as a mobile, hard “olive”
- profuse projectile vomiting
- “string sign” at pyloric sphincter
152
What is a common cause of gastritis?
-helicobacter pylori
153
What is a peptic ulcer?
Inflammatory process in the stomach and duodenum secondary to gastritis
- stomach acid wears through lining
- usually in lesser curvature or duodenal bulb
154
What is a peptic ulcer aggravated by?
NSAIDS and H.pylori
155
What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding and pneumoperitoneum?
Peptic ulcer
156
2 types of peptic ulcers?
1. Benign
| 2. Malignant
157
What is a sign of gastric cancer?
Stomach doesn’t churn as much: looks “stuck”
158
How many layers of the bowel does crohn’s affect?
All of them
159
Another name for Crohn’s?
Regional enteritis
160
Radiographic indications for Crohn’s?
- skip lesions
- cobblestone
- pipe-like narrowing
- string sign
161
What is the most common small bowel obstruction?
Adhesion
162
What is the most common complication of a large bowel obstruction? Where is it most likely to occur?
Perforation in the cecum
163
In a hernia, what layers are protruding through what layers?
Mucosa and submucosa are protruding through the muscularis
164
What does intussusception look like? Symptoms?
Coiled spring appearance
- pain
- blood in stool
- palpable mass on right side
- chronic condition in adults
- most common in children (congenital)
165
Where does a volvulus most commonly occur? What is the radiographic sign?
Cecum and sigmoid colon
| -“lead pipe” sign
166
What is adynamic illeus? Radiographic indication?
No peristalsis int the small and large bowels
- almost always occurs after abdominal surgery
- air fluid levels in both the small and large bowel with no obvious point of obstruction
167
What is diverticulosis? Radiographic sign?
Out of control diverticulitis
- colonic outpouchings of the mucosa and submucosa through the muscularis at points of weakness in the bowel wall
- chronic/intermittent pain in lower abdomen around meals
- “saw-tooth” appearance
168
What increases the chance of bowel cancer?
Ulcerative colitis
169
What layers does ulcerative colitis affect?
The mucosal layer of the large bowel
- usually rectosigmoid colon
- most often in young, caucasian adults
- bloody diarrhea, pain, fever, weight loss, toxic megacolon
170
What is contraindicated during a toxic megacolon attack?
Barium enema
171
Radiographic sign of ulcerative colitis?
“Collar-buttoned” and “lead pipe”
172
2 types of polyps in the colon?
1. Pedunculated: has a stalk
| 2. Sessile: no stalk
173
Where are polyps most commonly found?
-rectosigmoid area and left colon
174
Where can colon cancer spread to? Radiographic appearance?
Lymph, liver, or lungs
| -“apple core” sign or “napkin ring”
175
What is zenker’s diverticulum?
- large outpouchings of esophagus just above the upper esophageal sphincter
- weakening of muscle wall
- dysphagia, aspiration, regurgitation of food
176
What is giardiasis?
- infection of the lumen of small intestine
| - dilation with thicker folds
177
What is Meckel’s diverticulum?
- birth defect
| - sacklike outpouching in intestinal wall caused by persistence of umbilical vesicle
178
What is cholelithiasis? Symptoms?
Freely moving stones in the gallbladder
| -jaundice, grey-white feces
179
Causes of gallstones?
- significant rapid weight loss achieved
| - extreme dieting
180
Risk factors of gallstones?
- genetics
- female
- forty
- “fat”
181
What is cholecystitis?
Acute inflammation of the gallbladder, 95% caused by obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone
182
Types of hepatitis and how you get them?
A and E: “ate” them
B: blood and bodily fluids
C: blood transfusions, most common cause of chronic hepatitis
183
What is hepatitis? Symptoms?
Most common inflammatory disease of the liver
- jaundice, vomiting, tenderness, pain, cirrhosis, hypertension, hepatocellular necrosis, fatty liver
- increased risk for liver cancer
- decreased blood clotting with chronic hepatitis
184
What kinds of hepatitis are there vaccinations for?
A and B
185
What is the #1 cause of cirrhosis?
Alcoholism
186
What causes fluid build up between the liver and ribs?
Cirrhosis because the liver shrinks
187
What causes ascites?
Portal hypertension
188
What causes esophageal varicies and (epigastric veins: caput medussa)
Portal hypertension
189
What is the “dog-eared” bladder a radiographic sign for?
Ascites
190
What are esophageal varicies?
Collateral veins
Rupture is fatal and leads to 1/3rd of all cirrhosis deaths
“Worm-like” filling defects in upper GI
191
What is the most common cause of death when you have hepatocellular carcinoma?
Hemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity
192
What is acute pancreatitis?
Inflammation of the pancreas caused by digestive enzymes that have become activated and begin to digest the pancreas from the inside out
193
What is chronic pancreatitis?
Frequent, intermittent damage to the pancreas causes scar tissue to form and the pancreas can no longer produce digestive enzymes insulin or glucagon
