Sickle Cell Disease (exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

sickle cells are RBCs that become

A

sickle shaped and inflexible

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2
Q

normal Hgb

A

HbA
consists of 2 normal alpha and 2 mortal beta chains

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3
Q

patients with normal Hgb are homozygous for normal hemoglobin

A

HbAA

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4
Q

sickle cell Hgb is an abnormality in

A

the beta chain

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5
Q

most patients with SCD are

A

homozygous for HbS

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6
Q

one HbS and one HbA results in

A

sickle cell trait (SCT)

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7
Q

does a person with sickle cell trait have sickle cell disease?

A

no

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8
Q

HbSS

A

2 genes for HbS
most severe form of SCD

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9
Q

HbSC

A

1 gene for HbS and 1 gene for HbC

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10
Q

HbS/B+ thalassemia

A

1 gene for HbS
reduced amounts of beta globin

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11
Q

HbS/B0 thalassemia

A

1 gene for HbS
no beta global production
similar severity to HbSS

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12
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A

2 of the most severe forms of SCD (HbSS and HbS/B0 thalassemia)

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13
Q

patient with SCA also have

A

SCD

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14
Q

SCD shortens the lifespan by

A

20-30 years

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15
Q

if first neonatal screening test is positive, then what is done?

A

a second test is done by 2 months of age to confirm diagnosis

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16
Q

vasoocclusion

A

rigid, sticky cells clog blood vessels

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17
Q

vasoocclusion causes

A

ischemia
pain
organ damage

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18
Q

hemolysis

A

abnormal RBCs get destroyed in the spleen

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19
Q

sickle RBC life span

A

10-20 days

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20
Q

functional asplenia

A

sickle cells obstruct blood flow to spleen
increased risk for infection

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21
Q

most common infection due to functional asplenia

A

streptococcus pneumonia

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22
Q

anemia begins to develop

A

4-6 months after birth

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23
Q

initial presentation of SCA in infants

A

develop hemolytic anemia and vasoocclusion
swelling and pain of hands and feet (dactylitis)

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24
Q

guidelines available on management of SCD complications

A

cardiopulmonary and kidney disease
cerebrovascular disease
management of acute and chronic pain
stem cell transplantation
transfusion support

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25
Q

possible cure for SCD

A

hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

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26
Q

HSCT carries many risk, but optimal outcomes are with

A

matched sibling donor (95-98%)

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27
Q

consider with matched unrelated donor in patients ____________ with severe complications

A

under age 16

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28
Q

Casgevy increases production of

A

HgF

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29
Q

Lyfgenia increases production of

A

HgA

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30
Q

Casgevy and Lyfgenia are approved for patients

A

age 12 and older with episodes of vasoocclusive crises

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31
Q

Casgevy and Lyfgenia MOA

A

stem cells are modified and transplanted back to the patient where they multiply in the bone marrow

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32
Q

most common cause of death in children with SCD is

A

sepsis due to S. pneumonia

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33
Q

prevention of infection in SCD patients

A

immunizations
penicillin prophylaxis

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34
Q

Immunization recommendations in SCD

A

influenza yearly over 6 months of age
meningococcal vaccine at 8 weeks
2 types of pneumococcal vaccines

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35
Q

2 types of pneumococcal vaccines given in SCD

A

PV15 or 20 (4 dose series)
PPSV23 (at age 2 and 5 years later)

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36
Q

PPSV23 does not need to be given if the patient already received

A

PV20

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37
Q

Penicillin decreases the risk of pneumococcal infection by

A

84%

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38
Q

if the patient has a penicillin allergy give

A

erythromycin 20mg/kg/day

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39
Q

continue prophylaxis at age 5 only if the patient has high risk for infection such as

A

splenectomy
history of invasive pneumococcal infection

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40
Q

consider withholding penicillin prophylaxis in children with

A

less severe forms of SCD unless they’ve had a splenectomy

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41
Q

screening is recommended for

A

renal disease
pulmonary HTN
ophthalmologic complications
stroke

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42
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

stimulates HbF production
decreases HbS polymer formation and RBC sickling

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43
Q

Hydroxyurea MOA

A

causes stress erythropoiesis
rapid erythroid regeneration
shift of erythrocyte Hgb production to HbF

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44
Q

indications for hydroxyurea therapy

A

children and infants over 9 months with SCA
adults with SCA
consider in patients with HbSC or HbS/B+ thalassemia with recurrent sickle cell pain

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45
Q

Hydroxyurea is recommended for adults with SCA who have

A

3 or more moderate-severe pain crises within a year
SCD associated pain interfering with daily activity/QOL
Severe symptomatic chronic anemia
history of severe and/or recurrent acute chest syndrome
history of stroke (but can’t give chronic transfusion)

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46
Q

Hydroxyurea brand names used for sickle cell anemia

A

droxia
siklos

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47
Q

droxia target population

A

approved for adults
guidelines recommend for children

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48
Q

skills target population

A

children over 2
adolescents
adults

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49
Q

Hydrea is used for

A

leukemia
head and neck cancers

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50
Q

droxia requires renal dose adjustment when creatinine clearance is

A

less than 60 ml/min

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51
Q

adverse effects of hydroxyurea

A

bone marrow suppression
dry skin
hyperpigmentation of skin/nails
acute leukemia and chronic opportunistic infections (chronic use)

52
Q

when is improvement observed when taking hydroxyurea?

A

3-6 months

WAIT FULL 6 MONTHS!!

53
Q

bone marrow suppression from hydroxyurea results in

A

neutropenia
thrombocytopenia
anemia
dec reticulocyte count

54
Q

bone marrow suppression from hydroxyurea usually resolves on its own ________________________

A

2 weeks after discontinuation

55
Q

can hydroxyurea be used in pregnancy?

is it safe for males when getting pregnant?

A

no! can cause fetal harm

no! may damage spermatozoa and testicular tissue; genetic abnormalities

56
Q

before women start hydroxyurea, what needs to be tested?

57
Q

women should avoid pregnancy for at least ______________ post hydroxyurea therapy

58
Q

men should use effective contraceptives for at least _______________ after Siklos and ______________ after Droxia

A

6 months

1 year

59
Q

what should be monitored for toxicity when taking hydroxyurea?

A

serum creatinine
ALT/AST
neutrophils
platelets
hemoglobin
reticulocytes

60
Q

what do we monitor for adherence in patients taking hydroxyurea?

A

HgF and MCV are expected to increase

61
Q

___________ supplementation is recommended when taking hydroxyurea since low levels can be based by high ___________ level

A

folic acid

MCV

62
Q

if toxicity from hydroxyurea does not recur after __________ then the dose can be increased

63
Q

Parameters to check when deciding to hold hydroxyurea

A

neutrophils
platelets
hemoglobin
reticulocytes

64
Q

L-glutamine adverse effects

A

constipation
pain in stomach area
nausea
cough
headache
pain in hands, feet, back and chest

65
Q

L- glutamine MOA

A

precursor to NAD+
improves and restores the ratio of NADH to NAD+ which may help sickle RBCs to tolerate increased oxidative stress

66
Q

L-glutamine target populations

A

5 years and older
prevents vasoocclusive pain in patients with 2 or more episodes in the prior year

67
Q

why was Voxelotor withdrawn from the market?

A

higher rates of vasooclussive crisis and fatal events compared to placebo

68
Q

Crizanlizumab (adakveo) indication

A

reduces vaso-occlusive crises frequency in SCD
given IV

69
Q

Crizanlizumab (adakveo) target population

A

16 years and older

70
Q

common ADRs of Crizanlizumab (adakveo)

A

nausea
arthralgia
back pain
fever

71
Q

Crizanlizumab (adakveo) MOA

A

binds to P-selectin and inhibits interactions with RBCs, platelets, endothelial cells, etc

72
Q

Crizanlizumab (adakveo) results in decreased ______________ and reduced _____________

A

platelet aggregation and vasoocclusion

painful SCD crises

73
Q

Transfusion therapy provides SCD patients with

A

normal RBCs containing HgA

74
Q

simple transfusion

A

transfuses blood

75
Q

exchange transfusion

A

removes volume of blood from patient then transfuse
allows transfusion of extra blood
less change of iron overload
higher % of HgA transfused

76
Q

risks of transfusion

A

alloimmunization
non hemolytic transfusion reactions
hyperviscosity
viral transmission
volume overload
iron overload

77
Q

alloimmunization is when ______________ gets activated against the transfused blood and can result in ____________

A

the immune system

hemolysis

78
Q

iron overload

A

iron levels increase with transfusions
liver, heart, and pancreas can be damaged

79
Q

how to manage iron overload

A

minimize excess dietary iron
iron chelating agents

80
Q

how to diagnose iron overload

A

liver biopsy
MIR of liver (Q1-2 years)
serum ferritin level

81
Q

in iron overload, consider chelation therapy when

A

ferritin > 1500-2000 mcg/L
patient received over 1 year of chronic infusions

82
Q

Deferasirox black box warning

A

acute renal failure
hepatic failure
GI hemorrhage

83
Q

Deferasirox is contraindicated in patients

A

with platelets under 50,000

84
Q

Deferasirox MOA

A

binds iron in the gut for fecal elimination

85
Q

Deferasirox (exjade) administration

A

dissolve in water, OJ, apple juice
take on empty stomach - 30 minutes before a meal

86
Q

what to monitor when on Deferasirox

A

SCr
LFTs
Ferritin
auditory/ophthalmic testing

86
Q

Deferasirox (Jadenu) administration

A

swallow whole or crush and mix with soft foots
empty stomach or light meal

87
Q

Desforoxamine (desferal) ADRs

A

ocular and auditory effects
red/pink/orange discoloration of urine

88
Q

Deferiprone (Ferriprox) black box warning

what to monitor because of this

A

neutropenia

monitor ANC weekly and hold in patients with ANC < 1,500

89
Q

Deferiprone (Ferriprox) ADRs

A

discoloration of urine
GI effects
increased liver enzymes

90
Q

SCD patients often have

A

vitamin and nutrient deficiencies

91
Q

nutritional management recommendations

A

folic acid 1 mg qd
daily multivitamin without iron
vitamin d and calcium when needed

92
Q

Acute sickle cell pain (vasoocclusive crisis)

A

result from infarction due to vasoocclusion
most common reason for hospitalization in SCD
can affect multiple sites

93
Q

when there is mild Acute sickle cell pain use ____________ management

when there is moderate to severe acute sickle cell pain use _____________ management

A

outpatient

inpatient

94
Q

components of therapy for acute sickle cell pain

A

consider causes and if infection present
fluid hydration
analgesics
non pharmacological therapy (ex: heating pad)

95
Q

Analgesic therapy for mild-moderate pain

A

NSAIDs or APAP
if pain persists add opioids

96
Q

analgesic therapy for moderate-severe pain

A

parenteral opioids (morphine, hydromorphone)
consider adding NSAIDs

97
Q

should people with acute sickle cell pain be started on scheduled doses?

98
Q

change from _______ to _______ opioid therapy when pain improves

99
Q

patients with SCD have an increased risk of sepsis and infection because of

A

functional asplenia

100
Q

if a patient comes in with a temperature above ___________, evaluate immediately

101
Q

acute chest syndrome

A

new pulmonary infiltrate associated with dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, chest pain, fever, wheezing and hypoxia

102
Q

acute chest syndrome is most commonly caused by

103
Q

acute chest syndrome can develop into

A

respiratory failure and can involve many organs

104
Q

management of acute chest syndrome

A

incentive spirometry
manage pain
antibiotic therapy similar to community acquired pneumonia

105
Q

when managing pain for ACS, avoid _____________ with excessive opioid use

A

respiratory depression

106
Q

antibiotics for ACS

A

IV CEPHALOSPORIN and macrolide
alt: respiratory floroquinolone

107
Q

if a patient with ACS is wheezing or has a history of asthma

A

provide bronchodilators

108
Q

if a patient with ACS is hypoxic or is in acute distress

A

provide oxygen therapy

109
Q

Priapism

A

sustained, unwanted painful penile erection lasting 4 or more hours

110
Q

stuttering priapism

A

shorter episode, minutes to 2 hours, that resolve spontaneously

111
Q

Priapism results from

A

low blood flow to penis due to stasis and sickling of RBCs

112
Q

when does priapism require prompt medical attention?

A

when it lasts over 2-3 hours

113
Q

in patients with priapism, it is recommended to start

A

IV/PO hydration and IV/PO analgesics

114
Q

if hydration and analgesics are insufficient in patients with priapism, use

A

vasoconstrictors (phenylephrine, pseudoephedrine)
vasodilators (terbutaline, hydralazine)

115
Q

there is high risk of ___________ in SCD due to vasoocclusion in the brain

116
Q

when there is acute stroke, use

A

exchange transfusion

117
Q

for secondary stroke prevention use

A

chronic transfusion therapy (simple or exchange)

118
Q

splenic sequestration

A

sudden enlargement of spleen due to trapping of sickled RBCs in spleen

119
Q

splenic sequestration results in a drop in

A

hemoglobin
hematocrit
circulating blood volume

120
Q

splenic sequestration can lead to

A

hypovolemia, shock and death

121
Q

treatment for splenic seqestration

A

IV fluids
transfusion
splenectomy
antibiotics (if febrile)

122
Q

aplastic crisis

A

acute decrease in hemoglobin with decreased reticulocyte count
suppression of RBC production due to infection

123
Q

aplastic crisis from infection is most commonly caused by

A

parvovirus B19 infection

124
Q

aplastic crisis management

A

supportive care – most resolve spontaneously
provide blood transfusions if severe/symptomatic anemia