Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacotherapeutics > Ophthalmology > Flashcards

Ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

Primary Open Angle Glaucoma Pathophysiology

A

increase in IOP due to decrease outflow of aqueous humor through trabecular meshwork and schlemm’s canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Primary Open Angle Glaucoma symptomatology

A

rarely experience symptoms until progression of central tunnel vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ocular hypertension

A

two instances of IOP over 25 mmHg

sometimes 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

angle closure glaucoma

A

closure of the anterior chamber angle
medical emergency
30 mmHg or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

acute Angle closure glaucoma symptomatology

A

decreased vision
halos around lights
headache
severe eye pain
N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

chronic angle closure glaucoma symptomatology

A

symptom free
or decrease in central vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal flow rate of aqueous humor

A

8-22 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IOP > 40 mmHg

A

Emergency referral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IOP 30-40 mmHg

A

Urgent referral if no symptoms suggesting acute glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IOP 25-29 mmHg

A

Evaluation within one week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IOP 23-24 mmHg

A

Repeat measurement to confirm and/or referral for eye exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Individuals over age ____ should undergo periodic comprehensive eye evaluations.

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The rapidity and degree of _____ elevation from _____ determines whether symptoms occur.

A

IOP

angle-closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnostic Techniques for Glaucoma

A

Tonometry
Fundoscopic Exam
Visual Field Exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Contraindication for asthma or COPD with glaucoma

A

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)
Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Contraindication for cold/flu remedies with glaucoma

A

OTCs that contain decongestants like pseudoephedrine or phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Contraindication for incontinence or overreactive bladder with glaucoma

A

Tolterodine (Detrol)
Oxybutynin (Ditropan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Contraindication for allergy relief and decongestion with glaucoma

A

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Loratadine (Claritin)
Fexofenadine (Allegra)
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindication for migraine attacks with glaucoma

A

Sumatriptan (Imitrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Contraindication for prevention of motion sickness with glaucoma

A

Scopolamine patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contraindication for depression/anxiety with glaucoma

A

Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Paroxetine (Paxil)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Tofranil (Imipramin)
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Glaucoma Treatments

A

Direct-acting Cholinergic Agonists
Beta-Adrenergic Blockers
Alpha-2 Agonists
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
Prostaglandin Agonists
Rho Kinase Inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Direct-acting Cholinergic Agonists

A

Pilocarpine (Isopto-Carpine)
Carbachol (Miostat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Direct-acting Cholinergic Agonists MOA

A

Enhances outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Direct-acting Cholinergic Agonists Side Effects

A

Miosis, periorbital pain, brow ache, myopia, blurred vision
Cholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Direct-acting Cholinergic Agonists Administration

A

Four times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Beta-Adrenergic Blockers

A

Timolol (Timoptic, Timoptic XE, Betimol)
Betaxolol (Betoptic)
Carteolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Beta-Adrenergic Blockers MOA

A

Decreases production of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Beta-Adrenergic Blockers Side Effects

A

stinging, burning
bradycardia, heart block, reduced BP
bronchospasm
depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

All beta blockers are nonselective except _____.

A

Betaxolol (Betoptic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists

A

Brimonidine (Alphagan P)
Apraclonidine (Iopidine)

32
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists MOA

A

Decreased production and increased outflow of aqueous humor

33
Q

Alpha-2 Agonists Side Effects

A

red eye and ocular irritation

34
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors (topical)

A

Dorzolamide (Trusopt)
Brinzolamide (Azopt)

35
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors MOA

A

Decreased production of aqueous humor

36
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors Side Effects (topical)

A

burning, stinging, altered taste
contraindicated in sulfonamide allergies

37
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors oral preparations

A

Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Methazolamide (Neptazane)
Most potent for reducing IOP

38
Q

Prostaglandin Agonists

A

Lantoprost (Xalatan)
Bimatoprost (Lumigan)
Latanoprostene buniod (Vyzulta)
Travoprost (Travatan)
Tafluprost (Zioptan)

39
Q

Prostaglandin Agonists MOA

A

Enhances outflow of aqueous humor

40
Q

Prostaglandin Agonists Side Effects

A

darkening of eye color and eyelid, hyperemia, blurred vision, eyelash lengthening

41
Q

Which medication is marked only for eyelash hypotrichosis?

A

Latisse (bimatoprost 0.03%)

42
Q

Rho Kinase Inhibitors

A

Netarsudil (Rhopressa)

43
Q

Rho Kinase Inhibitors MOA

A

Enhance outflow of aqueous humor

44
Q

Rho Kinase Inhibitors side effects

A

red eye and ocular irritation

45
Q

Combination Products

A

Combigan: timolol + brimonidine
Cosopt PF: dorzolamide + timolol
Simbrinza: brinzolamide + brimonidine
Rocklantan: netarsudil + latanoprost

46
Q

First Line Therapy for Glaucoma

A

Prostaglandin agonist
OR
Topical beta-blocker

47
Q

Second Line Therapy for Glaucoma

A

Increase concentration
Switch to alt first-line or add second first line
Consider adding other class alternatives: brimonidine (alpha 2) or TOPICAL carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

48
Q

Third Line Therapy for Glaucoma

A

Consider adding direct-acting cholinergic agonist or replace with cholinesterase inhibitor
May add ORAL carbonic anhydrase inhibitor instead of topical

49
Q

Blepharitis

A

Infectious disorder of eyelids caused by staph aureus and epidermidis or inflammation/hypersecretion of sebaceous glands

50
Q

First Line Therapy for Blepharitis

A

Erythromycin oint
OR Bacitracin oint
OR Azithromycin solution

51
Q

Second Line Therapy for Blepharitis

A

Topical glucocorticoids
topical cyclosporine
Oral antibiotics (doxycycline, tetracycline, azithromycin)

52
Q

Hordeolum (Stye)

A

infection of hair follicles or seb glands of eyelids caused by seborrhea and staph infections

53
Q

Hordeolum (Stye) Treatment

A

Hot compress

54
Q

Conjunctivitis (pink eye)

A

inflammation of conjunctiva due to bacteria, viruses, chemical irritants, or allergies

55
Q

Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Adults and children:
Staph and Strep
Moraxella and Haemophilus

Neonates:
N. gonorrhoeae and chlamydia

56
Q

First Line of Therapy for bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Erythromycin oint
OR
Polymyxin B - trimethoprim

57
Q

Second Line of Therapy for bacterial conjunctivitis

A

Azithromycin solution
OR Neosporin
OR Bleph -10

58
Q

Preferred agents to treat bacterial conjunctivitis in contact lens wearers or risk of keratitis (Pseudomonas)

A

Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides

59
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

Moxifloxacin (Vigamox)
Gatifloxacin (Zymaxid)
Besifloxacin (Besivance)

60
Q

Preferred Fluoroquinolones and Aminoglycosides

A

Tobramycin (Tobrex)
Gentamicin
Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin

61
Q

First Line Therapy for Viral Conjunctivitis

A

Topical antihistamines/decongestants
OR
Artificial Tears

62
Q

Treatment of Allergic Conjunctivitis

A

Mast Cell Stabilizers
Antihistamine/Mast Cell Combination
Topical Decongestants
Topical Decongestants/Antihistamine Combo

63
Q

Mast Cell Stabilizers

A

Cromolyn
Nedocromil (Alocril)

64
Q

Antihistamine/Mast Cell Stabilizer Combination

A

Azelastine
Epinastine (Elestat)
Ketotifen
Olopatadine

65
Q

Topical Decongestants

A

Naphazoline
Tetrahydrozoline

66
Q

Topical Decongestants/Antihistamine Combination

A

Naphazoline/Pheniramine (Naphcon)

67
Q

Topical NSAIDs

A

Ketorlac (Acular)
Flurbiprofen

68
Q

Do NOT use topical decongestants for more than _____.

69
Q

Keratitis

A

Infections of cornea secondary to trauma or contacts
Caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa, staph. aureus, strep. pneumoniae

70
Q

Keratitis Treatment

A

Cefazolin or vancomycin in combo with gentamicin drops or subconjunctival injections
Moxifloxacin
Besifloxacin
Gatifloxacin

71
Q

Concurrent _____ should be avoided in acute phase of infectious keratits.

A

glucocorticoid eye drops

72
Q

Ocular Herpes Simplex Infections

A

Keratitis cased by herpes simplex virus

73
Q

Treatment of Ocular Herpes Simplex Infections

A

Oral/topical antiviral therapy
Oral acyclovir or valacyclovir
Topical acyclovir or ganciclovir (alternative)
Trifluridine

74
Q

Dry Eye Syndrome (DES) Symptoms

A

Stinging, burning
Excessive tearing
Sandy/gritty sensation
Blurred vision
Redness

75
Q

First Line Therapy for DES

A

Artificial Tear Substitute

76
Q

Second Line Therapy for DES

A

Cyclosporine emulsion
Lifitegrast (Xiidra)
Varenicline (Tyrvaya)
Perfluorohexyloctane (Miebo)

Pharmacotherapeutics (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions