Nausea and Vomiting (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

nausea

A

uneasiness of the stomach, throat or epigastric region
awareness of the urge to vomit

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2
Q

retching

A

rhythmic contraction of the abdominal muscles without actual emesis

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3
Q

vomiting

A

forcible voluntary/involuntary expulsion of gastric contents

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4
Q

is nausea and vomiting a disease?

A

No!

It is symptoms of many different conditions

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5
Q

vomiting center

A

located in the medulla oblongata of the brain within the blood brain barrier

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6
Q

the vomiting center is stimulated by neurotransmitters released by the

A

CTZ
GI tract
cerebral cortex
limbic system
vestibular systems

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7
Q

major neurotransmitters associated with the emetic response of the VC

A

seretonin (5HT3)
Nuerokinin1 receptors
histamine receptors
muscarinic receptors
dopamine receptors

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8
Q

types of receptors that drugs agonize to decrease N/V

A

corticosteroid
cannabinoid
gabaminergic

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9
Q

central nervous systems role in N/V

A

cerebral cortex and limbic system
activated by irritation of the meninges and extreme emotional triggers

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10
Q

the CNS pathway is triggered by

A

histamine (H1) receptors and GABA receptors

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11
Q

vestibular systems role in N/V

A

activated by disturbances to the vestibular apparatus in the inner ear
motion sickness and vertigo

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12
Q

the vestibular pathway is triggered by

A

H1 receptors and Ach receptors

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13
Q

Peripheral pathways common activators are

A

toxins
dissension of the GI lumen from blockage
dysmotility of the bowels by D2 and 5HT receptors

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14
Q

the peripheral pathway is triggered by

A

chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors in the GI tract

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15
Q

CTZs role in N/V

A

readily exposed to substances circulating through the blood
NO BBB

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16
Q

activation of the CTZ is mediated primarily by

A

D2 receptors
5HT receptors
H1 receptors
NK1 receptors

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17
Q

causes of N/V for the cerebral cortex pathway

A

anxiety
raised inter cranial pressure

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18
Q

causes of N/V for the peripheral pathway

A

gastric stasis
radiation colitis
chemotherapy

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19
Q

causes of N/V for the CTZ

A

drugs
hypercalcemia

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20
Q

causes of N/V for the vestibular pathway

A

vestibular neuritis

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21
Q

drug induced N/V via tissue damage

A

Potassium chloride
NSAIDs
Iron
Opiates
Chemotherapy agents

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22
Q

drug induced N/V via chemoreceptors in the CNS

A

digoxin
dopaminergic agents
antibiotics
anticonvulsants
opiates
theophylline
chemotherapy agents

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23
Q

three neurotransmitters that have the most clinical relevance in drug induced N/V

A

D2
5HT3
NK1

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24
Q

acute CINV

A

within 24 hours after chemotherapy

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25
Q

delayed CINV

A

more than 24 hours after chemotherapy

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26
Q

anticipatory CINV

A

prior to chemotherapy when acute or delayed N/V occurred with previous courses

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27
Q

breakthrough CINV

A

emesis despite prophylactic treatment requiring rescue doses

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28
Q

refractory CINV

A

emesis during treatment cycles when prophylaxis and rescue therapy has failed

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29
Q

risk factors for CINV

A

poor emetic control with prior chemotherapy
female sex
low chronic alcohol intake
younger age

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30
Q

symptoms of N/V

A

diaphoresis
pallor
faintness
salivation

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31
Q

signs of N/V

A

malnourishment
weight loss
dehydration

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32
Q

laboratory tests for N/V

A

elevated BUN, SCr, BUN-SCr ratio
electrolyte imbalances
hypoglycemia
acid base disturbances

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33
Q

BMP for someone experiencing N/V

A

decreased Na, K, Cl and glucose
increased CO2, BUN, SCr

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34
Q

goal of antiemetic therapy

A

prevent or stop N/V without or with minimal adverse effects

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35
Q

is treatment the same for N/V of different medical situations?

A

NO

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36
Q

non-pharmacological management for N/V

A

dietary, physical or physiological changes

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37
Q

BRAT diet

A

bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast diet

bland foots to decrease N/V

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38
Q

simple N/V

A

minimal therapy
nonprescription and prescription agents
single agents usually

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39
Q

complex N/V

A

combination therapy (prescription)

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40
Q

factors that can be used to determine which agent to use

A

suspected etiology of symptoms
ability of the patient to take a dosage form
success of previous antiemetic agents

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41
Q

antihistamine-anticholinergic drugs treat N/V due to

A

motion sickness or vertigo

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42
Q

adverse reactions of antihistamine-anticholinergic agents

A

drowsiness, confusion, blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation and tachycardia

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43
Q

what type of patients are at higher risk for complications associated with antihistamine-anticholinergic agents

A

narrow angle glaucoma
prostatic hyperplasia
cardiovascular disease

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44
Q

examples of antihistamine and anticholinergic drugs

A

Dramamine (dimenhydrinate)
Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
Visatril, Atarax (Hydroxyzine)
Bonine, Antivert (Meclizine)
Transderm Scop (Scopolamine)

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45
Q

use antihistamine drugs _________________ before travel and apply a scopolamine patch _______________ prior to motion sickness triggers

A

30-60 minutes

4-6 hours

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46
Q

three main groups of dopamine antagonists

A

phenothiazines
butyrophenones
pro kinetic agents

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47
Q

phenothiazines examples

A

promethazine
prochlorperazine
chlorpromazine

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48
Q

phenothiazines are used for

A

gastritis
gastroenteritis
PONV
RINV
CINV

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49
Q

don’t use dopamine antagonists in patients with

A

a prolonged QT interval
or patients at risk for developing one

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50
Q

EPS syndrome includes

A

acute dystonic reactions
akathisia
pseudoparkinsonism
tardive dyskinesia

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51
Q

normal QTc intervals for men and women

A

men - under 450 milliseconds

women - under 460 milliseconds

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52
Q

do not give any dopaminergic antagonists when the QTc interval is above ____________ because it can cause

A

500 ms

torsades de pointes

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53
Q

doses of dopaminergic antagonists should be given ________________ before chemotherapy and _______________ prior to radiation

A

30-60 minutes

1-2 hours

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54
Q

example of butyrophenones

A

droperidol
haloperidol

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55
Q

droperidol prevents

A

PONV, RINV and CINV for patients intolerant to other first line agents

56
Q

haloperidol has antiemetic effects at

57
Q

droperidol has a _________________ regarding the potential for QT interval prolongation and __________________

A

FDA black box warning

cardiac arrhythmias

58
Q

examples of pro kinetic agents

A

metoclopramide (reglan)
domperidone

59
Q

metoclopramide is useful in

A

PONV, CINV, RINV, gastroparesis and GERD

60
Q

metoclopramide increases __________________ and promotes ________________

A

lower esophageal sphincter tone

gastric motility

61
Q

domperidone is a

A

FDA investigational drug protocol

62
Q

domperidone minimally crosses the

A

BBB and less likely to cause centrally mediated adverse effects

63
Q

Metoclopramide acts as a

A

D2 receptor antagonists in the CTZ and peripherally in the GI tract

64
Q

Metoclopramide is given

A

30-60 minutes before meals

65
Q

dronabinol is mainly used for

A

preventing and treating refractory CINV

66
Q

oral dronabinol has antiemetic activity due to

A

activation of cannabinoid receptors CB1 and CB2 within the CNS

67
Q

adverse effects of dronabinol

A

sedation
euphoria
hypotension
ataxia
dizziness

68
Q

serotonin antagonists examples

A

ondansetron
granisetron
dolasetron
palonosetron

69
Q

serotonin antagonists are used to treat

A

CINV, PONV, RINV

70
Q

common side effects of serotonin antagonists

A

headache
somnolence
diarrhea
constipation

71
Q

what needs to be monitored when on ondansetron or dolasetron?

does this need to be monitored when on granisetron or palonosetron?

A

QT prolongation

it does not include a recommendation, but patients may still be at risk

72
Q

ondansetron has an off label use for

A

undifferentiated N/V presenting to the ED

may also be used for gastroenteritis and other medical conditions

73
Q

palonosetron is the first 5HT3 antagonist approved for _________________

why?

A

acute and delayed CINV

it has a longer half life and higher receptor binding affinity

74
Q

granisetron also comes in a ___________ form that is applied _____________ before chemotherapy and can be worn for up to ________________

A

patch (Sancuso)

24-48 hours

7 days

75
Q

serotonin antagonists are given _____________ before radiation

A

1 to 2 hours

76
Q

corticosteroids examples for N/V

A

dexamethasone

77
Q

dexamethasone is used to treat

A

PONV, acute and delayed CINV or RINV

78
Q

corticosteroids MOA for N/V

A

activation of the glucocorticoid receptors in the VC leads to decreased inflammation

79
Q

side effects of corticosteroids for N/V

A

short term mainly

GI upset, anxiety, insomnia, HTN and hyperglycemia

80
Q

dexamethasone is taken ______________ before chemo and _________________ before radiation

A

30-60 minutes

1-2 hours

81
Q

NK1 receptor antagonists examples

A

areprepitant
fosaprepitant
netupitant
rolapitant

82
Q

areprepitant is used to prevent

A

acute and delayed CINV and PONV

83
Q

adverse effects of NK1 receptor antagonists

A

asthenia
dizziness
hiccups

84
Q

netupitant is only available in a _______________________ and prevents _______________

A

combination oral product with palonosetron (Akynzeo)

acute and delayed CINV following moderate or high emetogenic chemotherapy

85
Q

olanzapine (Zyprexa) has antiemetic effects primarily at

A

D2, 5HT2c and 5HT3 receptors

86
Q

guidelines recommend the addition of olanzapine to

A

combination therapy for prevention of acute and delayed CINV in patients with high emetogenic chemotherapy

87
Q

adverse effects of olanzapine

A

similar to DA antagonists
metabolic syndrome (weight gain, hyperlipidemia, hyperglycemia)

88
Q

benzodiazepines are used to prevent and treat

A

CINV
adjunct to antiemetic agents in anticipatory N/V

89
Q

benzodiazepines activate

A

GABA receptors in the cortex and limbic system (CNS)

90
Q

main benzo for N/V

91
Q

_______________ can occur at high doses or when __________________ are used concomitantly

A

respiratory depression

other central depressants (alcohol)

92
Q

risk of N/V is associated with

A

generally one agent has a higher emetic risk over an other

93
Q

chemotherapy induced NV has a ________________ system for the risk of emesis with specific cytotoxic agents

A

four level classification

94
Q

when combining categories in the CINV classification system, always use the

A

highest category of the drugs to determine treatment

95
Q

high emetic risk option 1 trx

A

NK1R antagonist
5HT3 antagonist
dexamethasone
olanzapine

96
Q

high emetic risk option 2 trx

A

NEPA or fosnetupitant plus palonosetron
dexamethasone
olanzapine

97
Q

moderate emetic risk non-carboplatin trx

A

5HT3 antagonist
dexamethasone

98
Q

moderate emetic risk carboplatin based trx

A

NK1R antagonist
5HT3 antagonist
dexamethasone

99
Q

low emetic risk trx

A

dexamethasone
or
5HT3 antagonist
or
phenothiazine type drug

100
Q

minimal emetic risk trx

101
Q

when patients who experience N/V despite optimal prophylaxis for CINV and had olanzapine may be

A

offered an antiemetic from another class that was administered with prophylactic treatment
(adds to standard regimen)

102
Q

which area of the body is considered high emetic risk for RNIV?

A

total body irritation

103
Q

recommendation for high emetic risk RINV

A

prophylaxis with 5HT3 antagonist +/- dexamethasone

104
Q

which area of the body is considered moderate emetic risk for RINV?

A

upper abdomen

105
Q

recommendation for moderate emetic risk RNIV

A

prophylaxis with 5HT3 antagonist +/- dexamethasone

106
Q

which area of the body is considered low emetic risk RINV?

A

lower thorax
pelvic
creanium
cranial spinal region
head/neck

107
Q

recommendation for low emetic risk RINV

A

prophylaxis or rescue with 5HT3 antagonist

108
Q

which area of the body is considered minimal emetic risk RINV?

A

extremities
breast

109
Q

recommendation for minimal emetic risk RINV

A

rescue with a dopamine antagonist or a 5HT3 antagonist

110
Q

preoperative prophylactic antiemetic therapy is

A

usually not required

111
Q

primary receptor targets for PONV

A

serotonin
NK1
histamine
muscarinic
dopamine

112
Q

patient specific risk factors for PONV

A

female gender
nonsmoking status
history of motion sickness/PONV

113
Q

anesthetic risk factors for PONV

A

use of volatile anesthetics
nitrous oxide
opiods

114
Q

surgical risk factors for PONV

A

duration of surgery
intra abdominal surgery
ENT surgery
major gynecologic surgery
orthopedic surgery
laparoscopic surgery

115
Q

additional methods to reduce PONV in combination with prophylactic antiemetic

A

supplemental oxygen and hydration
avoid nitrous oxide, volatile general aesthetics and opioids
use local anesthesia (propofol)

116
Q

low risk for PONV

A

0-1 risk factors
not likely to benefit from prophylaxis

117
Q

moderate risk for PONV

A

2-3 risk factors
one to two prophylactic antiemetic agents

118
Q

high risk for PONV

A

4 or more risk factors
two to three prophylactic antiemetic agents

119
Q

when to use scopolamine before surgery?

A

4 hours before the end of surgery

120
Q

when to use prochlorperazine, promethazine, metoclopramide before surgery?

A

at the end of surgery

121
Q

when to use droperidol before surgery?

A

at the end of surgery
(not really used because of torsades)

122
Q

when to use 5HT3 receptor antagonists before surgery?

A

dolasetron, granisteron, ondansetron - end of surgery
palonestron - immediately prior to anesthesia

123
Q

when to use dexamethasone before surgery?

A

at induction of anesthesia

124
Q

when to use aprepitant before surgery?

A

3 hours prior to induction of anesthesia

125
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum

A

severe physical symptoms and/or medical complications that may require hospitalization
can result in dehydration, weight loss and electrolyte abnormalities

126
Q

intitial management for NV during pregnancy

A

dietary changes and/or lifestyle modifications

127
Q

when is drug therapy considered in N/V during pregnancy?

A

persistent nausea and vomiting

128
Q

what dietary supplement is recommended for NVP?

129
Q

first line pharmacotherapy for NVP

A

pyridoxine (vitamin B6) alone or in combination with doxylamine (diclegis)

130
Q

how does doxylamine have antiemetic effects?

A

competes with H1 receptor sites
blocks CTZ
diminishes vestibular stimulation
depresses labyrinthine function through anticholinergic activity

131
Q

how does pyridoxine have antiemetic effects?

A

functions in the metabolism of proteins, carbs and fats
synthesis of GABA

132
Q

if liquids cannot be tolerated or if dehydration occurs,

A

use parenteral nutrition

133
Q

corticosteroid used for NVP

A

methylprednisolone

134
Q

why is methylprednisolone considered a last resort in NVP?

A

causes oral clefts in the fetus
avoid the first 10 weeks of gestation

135
Q

ondansetron should be avoided in the ______________ of gestation because of

A

first 10 weeks

given controversies about a potential small increase in risk of congenital abnormalities