Cirrhosis and Liver Disease Part II (exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

screening tests for varices

A

transient elastography
EGD

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2
Q

when liver stiffness is ______________ and platelets are ______________ there is a low risk of varices

A

under 20 pKa

over 150,000

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3
Q

when liver stiffness is ______________ and platelets are ______________, _________ is recommended

A

over 20 kPa

EGD

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4
Q

EGD

A

invasive
varices can be seen
required for patients with high risk TE
repeat annually for patients who have low risk findings

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5
Q

indications for primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding if the patient has compensated cirrhosis

A

clinically significant portal hypertension

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6
Q

the goal of primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding if the patient has compensated cirrhosis is

A

prevention of cirrhosis decompensation

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7
Q

indications for primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding if the patient has decompensated cirrhosis

A

medium/large varices NEED
small varices - Child-Pugh class C, Red Wale Marks (at least one)

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8
Q

preferred therapy for primary prophylaxis of variceal bleeding

A

nonselective beta blocker (carvedilol, propanolol, nadolol)

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9
Q

__________ is preferred for variceal bleeding in compensated cirrhosis

A

carvedilol

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10
Q

what agent is recommended for primary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding in decompensated cirrhosis?

A

any nonselective beta blocker

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11
Q

alternative method of prophylaxis available for medium/large varices only

A

endoscopic variceal ligation (EVL)

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12
Q

endoscopic variceal ligation

A

placement of rubber bands around varices
q1-2 weeks until obliteration of varices

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13
Q

consider _______ when beta blockers cannot be used

A

EVL

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14
Q

when can EVL not be done?

A

in patients with small varices

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15
Q

nonselective beta blockers decrease portal pressure by

A

reducing portal venous flow

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16
Q

beta blockers contraindications

A

asthma
extreme bradycardia
2nd, 3rd degree AV block w/o implanted pacemaker
insulin dependent DM with hypoglycemic episodes
PAD

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17
Q

beta blockers adverse effects

A

hypotension
bradycardia
CNS effects
worsening of lung disease

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18
Q

use beta blockers with caution in ________________ because it may worsen outcomes

A

refractory ascites

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19
Q

treat acute variceal bleeding as

A

a medical emergency (ICU)

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20
Q

in a patient with acute variceal bleeding, provide ___________________ to maintain hemodynamic stability

A

intravascular support and blood transfusions

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21
Q

pharmacotherapy for acute variceal bleeding

A

octreotide (most common)
terlipressin
somatostatin
vasopressin

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22
Q

start pharmacotherapy for acute variceal bleeding as soon as

A

variceal bleeding is suspected

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23
Q

endoscopic therapy for acute variceal bleeding

A

perform EGD within 12 hours
EVL (preferred)

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24
Q

1st line therapy for acute variceal bleeding

A

octreotide (Sandostatin)

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25
Q

MOA of octreotide

A

local splanchnic vasoconstriction and decreased portal inflow
less systemic side effects than vasopressin

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26
Q

while on octreotide, monitor

A

hyperglycemia
bradycardia
HTN
arrhythmia
abdominal pain
vomiting

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27
Q

start all patients with variceal bleeding on a short course of

A

antibiotics

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28
Q

preferred antibiotic for variceal bleeding

A

ceftriaxone (1g/day) x 7 days

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29
Q

balloon tamponade

A

temporarily effective in stopping bleeds
rebleeding is common

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30
Q

TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt)

A

stents placed between the hepatic and portal veins
decreased incidence of rebleeding

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31
Q

TIPS is indicated in those

A

with high risk hemorrhage
who fail to achieve hemostasis standard treatment

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32
Q

who requires secondary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding?

what is recommended?

A

all patients!

combination of EVL and nonselective BB

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33
Q

exceptions for secondary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding

A

patients who received TIPs procedure

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34
Q

when assessing a patient with ascites, perform a

A

abdominal paracentesis

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35
Q

what is an abdominal paracentesis

A

needle is inserted into peritoneal cavity and ascitic fluid is removed

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36
Q

after abdominal paracentesis is performed __________ is analyzed for

A

ascitic fluid

cell count with differential, total protein and culture of fluid

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37
Q

serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)

A

serum albumin - ascitic fluid albumin

38
Q

if SAAG is greater or equal to 1.1 g/dl

A

there is portal HTN

39
Q

if SAAG is less than 1.1 g/dl

A

consider other causes of ascites

40
Q

grade 1 (mild ascites)

A

only detected on ultrasound

41
Q

grade 2 (moderate ascites)

A

moderate symmetric dissension of the abdomen

42
Q

grade 3 (large/gross ascites)

A

marked distention of the abdomen

43
Q

treatment is recommended for what classifications of ascites?

A

only grades 2 and 3

44
Q

responsive ascites

A

can be resolved or limited to grade 1 with diuretic therapy with/wo dietary sodium restriction

45
Q

recurrent ascites

A

recurs on at least 3 occasions within 12 months despite treatment

46
Q

refractory ascites

A

cannot be mobilized or unpreventable early recurrence

47
Q

treatment recommendations for ascites

A

NO alcohol
sodium restriction (less than 2g/day)
if severe hyponatremia - restrict fluids

48
Q

recommended diuretic therapy for ascites

A

spironolactone with/wo furosemide in 100:40 ratio

49
Q

goal of diuretic therapy for ascites

A

attain weight loss of 0.5 kg/day

50
Q

in patients with active bleeds, HE, or renal dysfunction, it may be necessary to

A

withhold diuretics

51
Q

what to monitor when treating ascites with diuretics?

A

sodium
body weight
SCr

52
Q

what is the drug of choice for ascites?

A

spironolactone

53
Q

an ADR of spironolactone is __________ and if this occurs, it should be switched to ___________-

A

painful gynecomastia

amiloride or eplerenone

54
Q

tense ascites

A

ascites with large volume of fluid
limits activities of daily life

55
Q

for large volume paracentesis, administer

A

albumin 6-8 g/L of fluid removed

56
Q

for tense ascites, after abdominal paracentesis, start

A

sodium restriction and diuretics

57
Q

medications to avoid in ascites

A

ACEIs
ARBs
NSAIDs
amino glycoside antibiotics

58
Q

avoid ___________ in refractory ascites

A

ACEIs and ARBs

59
Q

refractory ascites

A

unresponsive to Na restriction and high dose diuretics

60
Q

recommendations for refractory ascites

A

continue dietary sodium restriction
restrict fluids if hyponatremia
stop ACEIs/ARBs
serial therapeutic paracentesis
refer for liver transplantation
consider TIPS
peritoneovenous shunt

61
Q

diagnosis of SBP

A

ascitic fluid polymorphonuclear leukocyte over 250/mm3
no evidence of alternative source of infection

62
Q

suspect SBP in patients with ascites presenting with

A

signs and symptoms of infection

63
Q

therapy for community acquired SBP

A

third generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone)

64
Q

therapy for hospital acquired SBP, critically ill/ICU admission

A

broad spectrum needed based on local resistance patterns

65
Q

what should be done 48 hours after starting an antibiotic for SBP?

A

repeat diagnostic paracentesis to assess response to antibiotics

66
Q

when on antibiotics for SBP, if PMN decreases over 25%,

A

patient is responding to antibiotics

67
Q

when on antibiotics for SBP, if PMN decreases under 25%

A

broaden antibiotics and assess for secondary infection

68
Q

duration of antibiotics for SBP

69
Q

after culture results for SBP,

A

narrow antibiotic therapy

70
Q

when should albumin be added for SBP management?

A

patients with PMN over 250 cells/ml plus renal or liver dysfunction

71
Q

who should receive one term prophylaxis for SBP?

A

all patients with a previous episode of SBP

72
Q

long term prophylaxis for SBP should be considered for patients with ______ protein ascites and at least 1 of the following:

A

low

SCr > 1.2 mg/dl
BUN > 25 mg/dl
SNa < 130 mEq/L
Child-Pugh score > 9 with bilirubin > 3 mg/dl

73
Q

who should receive short term prophylaxis for SBP?

A

patients with acute variceal bleed for up to 7 days

74
Q

oral agents for long term prophylaxis of SBP

A

ciprofloxacin
bactrim
rifaximin

75
Q

Short term prophylaxis for variceal bleeding

A

IV ceftriaxone

76
Q

______________ levels assist in diagnosis of HE

A

venous ammonia

77
Q

diagnosis of HE is a diagnosis of

78
Q

classifying HE by underlying disease

A

type A - acute liver disease
type B - portosystemic bypass
type c - cirrhosis

79
Q

classify HE by time course

A

episodic HE
recurrent HE - multiple HE episodes within 6 months
persistent HE - always present

80
Q

classify HE by presence of precipitating factors

A

nonprecipitated
precipitated

81
Q

goal of HE treatment

A

reduce ammonia levels

82
Q

how to reduce ammonia for HE?

A

decrease protein intake
decrease ammonia/nitrogenous load via gut

83
Q

decrease ammonia/nitrogenous load via gut

A

lactulose
lactulose and PEG3350
Zinc
neomycin, metronidazole, rifaximin

84
Q

nonpharmacologic therapy for HE

A

minimize protein intake
when HE episode resolve initiate 1.2-1.5 g/kg/day of protein
avoid precipitating factors

85
Q

first line treatment for HE

86
Q

when using lactulose, you want to titrate to _________ soft stools per day

87
Q

side effects of lactulose

A

flatulence
abdominal cramping
excessively sweet taste

88
Q

If HE recurs while on lactulose, ______________ to prevent further recurrence

A

add rifaximin 550 mg PO BID

89
Q

other treatments for HE

A

PEG3350
Zinc acetate
flumazenil
bromocriptine
metronidazole or neomycin

90
Q

which treatment for HE is only when there is suspected benzodiazepine use?

A

flumazenil

91
Q

systemic complications of cirrhosis

A

hepatorenal syndrome
hepatopulmonary syndrome
coagulation disorders
endocrine dysfunction