sept 2022 recall Flashcards

1
Q

What causes Tc prolongation?

A

Hypocalcaemia causes Tc prolongation.

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2
Q

What were the other options?

A

Other options were hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, etc.

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3
Q

What is the correct answer?

A

Hypocalcaemia is the correct answer.

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4
Q

What is one risk factor for long QTc?

A

Congenital long Q-T syndrome is a risk factor.

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5
Q

Is being female a risk for prolonged QTc?

A

Female gender is a risk factor.

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6
Q

Are extremes of age a risk for prolonged QTc?

A

Extremes of age are a risk factor.

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7
Q

How do electrolytes affect QTc?

A

Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia are risks.

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8
Q

Can liver disease cause prolonged QTc?

A

Liver disease is a risk factor.

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9
Q

Does illicit drug use cause prolonged QTc?

A

Illicit stimulants are a risk factor.

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10
Q

Do high drug dosages lengthen the Q-T?

A

High dosages can cause a lengthened Q-T interval.

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11
Q

How does exertion affect QTc?

A

High physical exertion/agitation is a risk.

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12
Q

Can rapid drug infusion cause prolonged QTc?

A

Rapid infusion of teratogenic drugs is a risk.

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13
Q

What does a jittery, crying baby suggest?

A

Maternal heroin or cocaine use is suggested.

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14
Q

What was Sarah’s newborn’s presentation?

A

Irritable, restless, tremulous, inconsolable crying.

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15
Q

Which substance did the mother most likely use?

A

Heroin is the most likely substance.

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16
Q

When does heroin withdrawal present in newborns?

A

Within 24 hours of birth with short-acting opioids.

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17
Q

What are signs of opioid withdrawal in newborns?

A

Excessive crying, tremors, increased muscle tone/reflexes.

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18
Q

Are withdrawal presentations seen with other drugs?

A

Similar presentations are seen with other drugs.

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19
Q

Is alcohol/cannabis withdrawal frequent in newborns?

A

Withdrawal is less frequent with alcohol/cannabis.

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20
Q

What are symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Microcephaly, growth retardation, and low weight are symptoms.

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21
Q

What was the baby’s weight?

A

The baby’s weight was 2kg.

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22
Q

What risk is associated with valproate?

A

Increased risk of congenital and major malformations.

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23
Q

How many exposed children have malformations?

A

Up to 11% of exposed children have malformations.

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24
Q

Name some valproate-related malformations.

A

Cleft lip/palate, neural tube, heart, and radial defects are examples.

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25
Q

Does valproate impact development?

A

Valproate causes developmental delay.

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26
Q

How does valproate affect speech?

A

Difficulty with speech/language.

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27
Q

What cognitive issue can valproate cause?

A

Lower intellectual ability is a risk.

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28
Q

What behavioral issue is linked to valproate?

A

Autism risk increases with valproate use.

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29
Q

What are clinical features of FASD?

A

Microcephaly, abnormal features, growth deficits, and intellectual issues are features.

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30
Q

Does FASD cause behavioral problems?

A

Hyperactivity and sleep problems are behavioral problems.

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31
Q

What neonatal syndrome does stimulant use cause?

A

Neonatal withdrawal syndrome is associated with stimulant use.

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32
Q

What are symptoms of stimulant withdrawal?

A

Agitation, vomiting, and tachypnoea are symptoms.

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33
Q

What is the safest antidepressant for breastfeeding?

A

Sertraline is the safest antidepressant.

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34
Q

What was the other option in the question?

A

Escitalopram was another option.

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35
Q

Is lithium okay during breastfeeding?

A

Lithium is contraindicated during breastfeeding.

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36
Q

What should be monitored in infants with lithium exposure?

A

Serum concentration and blood count.

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37
Q

How much maternal lithium is in breast milk?

A

40-50% of maternal serum level.

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38
Q

What is the infant’s serum range?

A

Infant serum level is 5%-200% of maternal level.

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39
Q

Why is serum lithium high in newborns?

A

Diminished renal clearance raises it.

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40
Q

Are SSRIs and tricyclics generally safe?

A

Yes, generally safe except doxepin.

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41
Q

Which SSRI has a lower milk/plasma ratio?

A

Paroxetine has a lower milk/plasma ratio.

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42
Q

Was fluoxetine detected in infants?

A

No, not detected in infant plasma.

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43
Q

What are the preferred tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Amitriptyline and Imipramine are preferred.

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44
Q

Do clomipramine and nortriptyline have infant effects?

A

No adverse effects in infants reported.

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45
Q

Is maternal/milk concentration the same with tricyclics?

A

Yes, maternal plasma/breast milk is the same.

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46
Q

What can doxepin metabolite cause?

A

N-desmethyldoxepine may cause severe drowsiness and respiratory depression.

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47
Q

What mood stabilizer should be avoided when breastfeeding?

A

Lithium should be avoided.

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48
Q

What is an SSRI that is best avoided in nursing mothers?

A

Paroxetine is best avoided.

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49
Q

What older antidepressant could be used if insisted?

A

Amitriptyline could be used.

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50
Q

Which is more common, bulimia or anorexia?

A

Bulimia is more common than anorexia.

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51
Q

Is the prevalence of anorexia & bulimia equal?

A

No, prevalence is not equal.

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52
Q

How does prevalence vary in developed countries?

A

There is increased variation.

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53
Q

Is eating disorder diagnosis stable?

A

No, stability of diagnosis is poor.

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54
Q

What is the prevalence of bulimia?

A

Bulimia prevalence is around 2%.

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55
Q

What is the prevalence of anorexia?

A

Anorexia prevalence is around 0.5% to 1%.

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56
Q

Is anorexia more common in lower social classes?

A

No, anorexia is not excessively represented in lower classes.

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57
Q

Which eating disorder generally starts later?

A

Bulimia generally starts later than anorexia.

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58
Q

What was once the belief about anorexia and class?

A

Once thought more common in higher classes.

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59
Q

Can anorexia affect all social classes?

A

Yes, it can affect all social classes.

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60
Q

What might explain the rise in low/middle-income countries?

A

Cultural traditions associated with industrialization and urbanization.

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61
Q

What might trigger eating disorders in susceptible people?

A

Strict dieting and exercise with Western influence.

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62
Q

What validates a test using a prior validated measure?

A

Concurrent validity validates the test.

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63
Q

What assesses consistency between raters?

A

Inter-rater reliability assesses consistency.

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64
Q

What is good test re-test reliability?

A

Signifies internal validity/stable measurements over time.

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65
Q

What does concurrent validity measure?

A

How well a test correlates with an already validated one.

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66
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

Testing subjects and comparing results in the future.

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67
Q

What does construct validity measure?

A

Measures if a scale/test measures the construct.

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68
Q

Is F2 feedback lining up with F1 predictive validity?

A

Yes, predictive validity.

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69
Q

What type of reliability did the F1 feedback have?

A

Inter-rater reliability.

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70
Q

How do radiologists’ findings demonstrate reliability?

A

Inter-rater reliability.

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71
Q

How is a new depression questionnaire assessed?

A

Concurrent validity.

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72
Q

What treats alcohol withdrawal with liver failure?

A

Oxazepam is used.

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73
Q

Why was John admitted to the hospital?

A

Confusion and decompensated liver disease.

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74
Q

What was John’s main diagnosis?

A

Cirrhosis and alcohol dependence.

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75
Q

What is the usual first choice medication for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide is the usual first choice.

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76
Q

When do you use lorazepam or oxazepam?

A

Patients with cirrhosis or advanced liver disease.

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77
Q

Why do you use lorazepam in liver disease?

A

Shorter half-life and availability IM.

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78
Q

Why is oxazepam preferred in this setting?

A

No active metabolites, shorter half-life.

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79
Q

When is disulfiram appropriate?

A

Not appropriate in acute withdrawal.

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80
Q

What is best to prevent delirium tremens with hepatic insufficiency?

A

Oxazepam is the best choice.

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81
Q

Why use oxazepam with hepatic insufficiency?

A

Only undergoes phase 2 metabolism.

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82
Q

What is the preferred drug for detoxification in COPD and liver disease?

A

Oxazepam is the preferred drug.

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83
Q

Why are shorter benzos favored?

A

Avoid over-sedation with liver disease and COPD.

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84
Q

What are the risks with shorter-acting benzos?

A

Greater risk of breakthrough seizures and misuse.

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85
Q

Which drug acts on both GABA-A and NMDA receptors?

A

Ketamine acts on both receptors.

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86
Q

What type of antagonist is ketamine?

A

NMDA antagonist is the correct answer.

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87
Q

What does ketamine do with glutamate?

A

It has effects on glutamate.

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88
Q

What does ketamine bind to on NMDA receptors?

A

Binds to the PCP site of the NMDA receptor.

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89
Q

What does ketamine cause downstream?

A

Downstream glutamate release and consequent stimulation of other receptors.

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90
Q

What is ketamine approved as?

A

An anesthetic, and also used in treatment-resistant depression.

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91
Q

What psychotic effects can ketamine have?

A

Can cause psychosis similar to schizophrenia.

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92
Q

What is a main defense in Borderline according to ICD?

A

Idealization/devaluation is the main defense.

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93
Q

What does Klein’s depressive position relate to?

A

Learning to cope with ambivalence.

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94
Q

What are the main defenses in early life?

A

Projection and introjection are the main defenses.

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95
Q

What is persecutory anxiety?

A

Fear of attack from the ‘bad mother’.

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96
Q

What is the paranoid schizoid position?

A

Splitting all aspects into good and bad elements.

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97
Q

What concerns arise as views are integrated?

A

Concern about harming or destroying the mother.

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98
Q

How is the mother viewed in the depressive position?

A

Ambivalently as having both positive and negative aspects.

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99
Q

What is an Alzheimer’s finding on CT?

A

Hippocampal atrophy is an Alzheimer’s finding.

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100
Q

What is a must for causation according to Susser?

A

Time order is an essential criterion.

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101
Q

What is an essential criterion according to Susser?

A

Direction is an essential criterion.

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102
Q

What are the three essential elements?

A

Association, Time order, and Direction.

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103
Q

What can explain the direct attribution between A and B?

A

Confounders.

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104
Q

What are the five additional elements?

A

Strength, specificity, consistency, predictive performance, and coherence.

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105
Q

What are the ECG changes with Clozapine-induced tachycardia & high troponin?

A

Saddle-type elevations, T inversion.

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106
Q

What are the ECG findings in anorexia with diuretics/laxative abuse?

A

ST segment depression with U waves from hypokalaemia.

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107
Q

What’s the ECG finding with donepezil increased to 10mg and hypotension?

A

Sinus bradycardia.

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108
Q

What favors schizophrenia over autism?

A

Near-normal development.

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109
Q

What has been added as a modifier to ASD in DSM-5?

A

Catatonia.

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110
Q

What is likely in the first case?

A

This person is likely presenting with Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

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111
Q

What is likely in the second case?

A

The young man may have Autism.

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112
Q

What is likely in the third case?

A

The third case may be presenting with mania.

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113
Q

Who are the victims of female homicide with psychosis?

A

Victims are mostly age <16.

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114
Q

What percent of perpetrators of child homicide with mental illness have a psychotic disorder?

A

50% of perpetrators have a psychotic disorder.

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115
Q

Who is more likely to kill their children?

A

Fathers are significantly more likely to kill their children than mothers.

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116
Q

What do you call it when a parent kills a child and commits suicide?

A

Filicide-suicide.

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117
Q

What age group is associated with the highest risk of female homicide?

A

30-39.

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118
Q

What kind of cost is sick leave?

A

Sick leave is an indirect cost.

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119
Q

What is considered as an indirect cost?

A

Cost of sick absence.

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120
Q

What are indirect costs?

A

Costs due to loss of productivity.

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121
Q

What kind of cost is the cost of a drug?

A

Direct cost.

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122
Q

What kind of cost is a reader in PCR?

A

Direct cost.

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123
Q

What kind of costs are pain and stigma?

A

Pain and stigma are intangible costs.

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124
Q

What kind of costs are pain and stigma?

A

Intangible costs.

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125
Q

What are key features of Pick’s Disease?

A

No insight, decline in cognitive functions.

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126
Q

What dysphasia is associated with FTD?

A

Primary motor dysphasia.

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2
3
4
5
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127
Q

How do you calculate positive likelihood ratio?

A

Sensitivity / (1 - specificity).

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128
Q

How do you calculate negative likelihood ratio?

A

(1 - sensitivity) / specificity.

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129
Q

What is the positive likelihood ratio answer in this context?

A

Answer is 4.

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130
Q

What visual tool assists in planning activities for autistic children?

A

Now and then cards.

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131
Q

What is intensive interaction based on?

A

‘Body-language’ based approach.

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132
Q

What is the purpose of Now and Next cards?

A

To display planned activities in symbols.

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133
Q

What does Positive behavioral support do?

A

Develop understanding of challenging behavior.

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134
Q

What should be used when a mother visiting agitates a patient?

A

Social stories should be used.

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135
Q

What do social stories help understand?

A

Helps understand situations that are personal to them.

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136
Q

What do social stories often include?

A

The child is included in the narrative.

137
Q

How to imitate a child with body signs?

A

Intensive interaction techniques.

138
Q

Which gene is involved in early Alzheimer’s in Down Syndrome?

A

Amyloid is involved.

139
Q

What risk is increased in DS for developing Alzheimer’s?

A

Increased family history.

140
Q

What age do most develop Alzheimer’s pathology?

A

Almost all adults by the age of 40.

141
Q

How long before cognitive impairment does pathology develop?

A

Approximately 15-20 years before cognitive decline.

142
Q

What gene dosage is necessary in trisomy 21?

A

An increased dosage of APP (amyloid precursor protein).

143
Q

What else increases the risk of early decline?

A

APOE E4 allele.

144
Q

What should be used in the first trimester mixed state?

A

Quetiapine.

145
Q

What should be considered with long periods without relapse?

A

Switching to a safer drug/withdrawing treatment.

146
Q

Is any mood stabilizer clearly safe?

A

No mood stabilizer is clearly safe.

147
Q

What is recommended instead of a mood stabilizer?

A

Mood-stabilizing antipsychotics.

148
Q

What else can be considered in pregnancy?

A

ECT can be considered in pregnancy.

149
Q

Why is quetiapine considered safer?

A

Has a relatively low rate of crossing the placenta.

150
Q

What antipsychotics are safe in breastfeeding?

A

Olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone.

151
Q

What should be done first with TD on flupentixol/procyclidine?

A

Lower procyclidine.

152
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance is most worrying in anorexia?

A

Potassium is the most worrying electrolyte.

153
Q

What are endocrine changes in anorexia?

A

Low LH, FSH, oestradiol, T3, and low normal T4.

154
Q

What endocrine change is there with cortisol?

A

Mild increase in plasma cortisol.

155
Q

What endocrine change is there with growth hormone?

A

Raised growth hormone concentrations.

156
Q

What type of imbalance occurs with vomiting?

A

Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia.

157
Q

What type of imbalance occurs with laxative misuse?

A

Metabolic acidosis, hyponatremia, hypokalemia.

158
Q

What happens when there is poor renal blood flow?

A

Base deficit and acidosis develop rapidly.

159
Q

When does refeeding syndrome usually occur?

A

Usually within 4 days of starting feeding.

160
Q

What electrolyte disorder is seen in refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypophosphatemia.

161
Q

What causes refeeding syndrome effects?

A

Sudden shift from fat to carb metabolism.

162
Q

Which antidepressant is used for 8-year-olds?

A

Fluoxetine.

163
Q

Does lithium increase the risk of cognitive impairment following ECT?

A

Yes, lithium increases the risk.

164
Q

Is cognitive impairment more common in males following ECT?

A

No, not more common in males.

165
Q

Does unilateral ECT cause more cognitive impairment?

A

No, not more cognitive impairment.

166
Q

What does the Royal College of Psychiatrists note about ECT?

A

Cognitive effects limit the wider use of ECT.

167
Q

Which ECT is more effective but causes more impairment?

A

Bilateral ECT is more effective but causes more impairment.

168
Q

How does right unilateral electrode placement help?

A

May minimize episodic and autobiographical memory deficits.

169
Q

What effect does higher dose unilateral ECT have?

A

Greater efficacy, increased cognitive impairment.

170
Q

Does continuation ECT have adverse memory outcomes?

A

No adverse memory outcomes.

171
Q

What is the risk of ECT with lithium?

A

12-fold higher odds of delirium than ECT alone.

172
Q

What element is used in motivational interviewing?

A

Cognitive dissonance amplification.

173
Q

What are the key elements of motivational interviewing (DEARS)?

A
  • Developing discrepancy
  • Empathy
  • Avoid arguments
  • Rolling with resistance
  • Supporting self-efficacy
174
Q

What might short stature, freckles, and Lisch nodules indicate?

A

Neurofibromatosis.

175
Q

Which antipsychotic is suitable for eGFR <25?

A

Olanzapine.

176
Q

Which antipsychotics should be avoided in renal impairment?

A
  • Sulpiride
  • Amisulpride
177
Q

Which agents should be avoided due to anticholinergic effects?

A

Highly anticholinergic agents like clozapine and chlorpromazine.

178
Q

What are recommended choices in renal impairment?

A
  • Haloperidol
  • Olanzapine
179
Q

What is the mood stabilizer of choice in hepatic impairment?

A

Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice.

180
Q

What is the second choice for a mood stabilizer in hepatic impairment?

A

Gabapentin.

181
Q

What mood stabilizers are contraindicated in severe liver disease?

A
  • Sodium valproate
  • Lamotrigine
182
Q

What type of benzodiazepines to use in liver disease?

A

Short-acting benzos like lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam.

183
Q

What is the most common early onset dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s.

184
Q

What is the second most common degenerative disease before 64?

A

Vascular dementia.

185
Q

What dementia scale is used for non-English speakers?

A

RUDAS is used.

186
Q

Why calculate odds instead of RR in case control studies?

A

No new cases.

187
Q

What treats visual hallucinations in Parkinson’s?

A

Rivastigmine.

188
Q

What should be used for psychotic symptoms in Parkinson’s?

A

Quetiapine/Clozapine.

189
Q

What should be used for psychotic symptoms with cognitive impairment in Parkinson’s?

A

Rivastigmine.

190
Q

What defects are seen with maternal valproate?

A
  • Cleft palate
  • Cardiac
  • Developmental delay
191
Q

What is the strongest factor in repeat sexual offending?

A

Sexual deviancy and antisocial traits.

192
Q

What is the most strongly associated with recidivism?

A

Deviant sexual interests.

193
Q

What other factor is a strong predictor of recidivism?

A

Antisocial orientation/lifestyle instability.

194
Q

Is lack of empathy for the victim a strong predictor of reoffending?

A

No, lack of empathy for one’s victims is not strongly associated with recidivism.

195
Q

What is most likely in offenders who demonstrate lack of guilt with sexual deviance?

A

Most likely to sexually reoffend.

196
Q

What do offenders who sexually assault strangers show?

A

Show more general criminal behavior.

197
Q

Which is most likely to cause physical dependence, alprazolam or methamphetamine?

A

Alprazolam.

198
Q

What’s the most likely newborn effect of paroxetine?

A

Irritability.

199
Q

What are mild discontinuation symptoms?

A
  • Agitation
  • Irritability
200
Q

Which drugs have a high risk of discontinuation?

A
  • Paroxetine
  • Venlafaxine
201
Q

What are the specific cardiac malformations seen with paroxetine?

A

Particularly after high-dose, first-trimester exposure.

202
Q

Which SSRI may increase the risk of pulmonary hypertension?

A

SSRIs may increase the risk of pulmonary hypertension.

203
Q

Which SSRI should be considered in pregnant women with depression?

A

Sertraline (least placental exposure).

204
Q

What can be used when Aripiprazole didn’t work in a diabetic retinopathy patient?

A

Amisulpride.

205
Q

What can be caused by Citalopram and diphenhydramine?

A

QTc prolongation.

206
Q

When do uncomplicated alcohol withdrawal symptoms begin?

A

Starts in 4-12 hours after the last drink.

207
Q

When do mild alcohol symptoms usually begin?

A

Within 3-12 hours of the last drink.

208
Q

When do symptoms peak?

A

At 24-48 hours.

209
Q

How long may symptoms last?

A

Up to 14 days.

210
Q

When do seizures usually start?

A

Within 12-18 hours of the last drink.

211
Q

When does delirium tremens usually start?

A

3-4 days after the last drink.

212
Q

What is the mortality rate if untreated?

A

10-20% if untreated.

213
Q

What is the cut-off age of ADHD in ICD-11/DSM-5?

214
Q

What is the first line for dementia with hallucinations?

A

Risperidone.

215
Q

What is the first option in dementia with challenging behavior?

A

Behavioral management.

216
Q

When is Risperidone used in this setting?

A

After memantine.

217
Q

What improvement is Rivastigmine associated with?

A

Moderate improvement in dementia with Parkinson’s Disease.

218
Q

What is an unwanted effect of Rivastigmine?

A

Nausea, tremor.

219
Q

When is Memantine used?

A

When there are side effects with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

220
Q

What is the issue when a patient hears a sound but doesn’t understand it?

A

Subcortical sensory dysphasia.

221
Q

What type of speech is jargon dysphasia?

A

Fluent with no syntax or grammar.

222
Q

What’s the dysphasia when you can’t repeat but understand everything?

A

Conduction aphasia.

223
Q

What is a strength of the meta-analysis on Agomelatine?

A

Includes unpublished studies.

224
Q

What is said about Agomelatine’s effectiveness?

A

Likely an effective antidepressant.

225
Q

What literature sources can be used for agomelatine meta-analysis?

A
  • Psychinfo
  • Google Scholar
  • Medline
226
Q

Which database is used for observational healthcare studies?

227
Q

What does PsychINFO deal with?

A

Psychology.

228
Q

What does CINAHL cover?

A

Nursing and allied mental health.

229
Q

What does CENTRAL have?

A

Articles from a wide range of sources, controlled trials.

230
Q

Where is occupational therapist practice data?

231
Q

Where are guidelines on adolescent depression?

232
Q

Where would you find information on treatment of cardiac failure?

A

Cochrane reviews.

233
Q

Where would you find the psychoanalytical viewpoint in the 1870s?

234
Q

Where can a recent drug trial be located?

235
Q

Where can you find information on novel language development research?

236
Q

What in a forest plot represents the largest effect size?

A

Biggest square.

237
Q

How many studies favor clozapine over conventional?

238
Q

How many studies show statistically significant benefit of conventional antipsychotics over clozapine?

239
Q

What is the first step with acute confusion, normal CT/Bloods, no fever?

A

Urine drug screen.

240
Q

What is the likely diagnosis with fever, confusion, memory impairment?

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis.

241
Q

What are CSF findings in HSE?

A
  • Raised white cells
  • Increased protein
  • Normal glucose
242
Q

What type of graph is being described?

A

Scatter plot.

243
Q

What does an R of 0.7 indicate on a scatter plot?

A

Strong positive correlation.

244
Q

What test is used on a scatter plot?

A

Pearson’s.

245
Q

What association does one forest plot indicate between age and disorders?

A

Older-aged patients have more disorders.

246
Q

What findings in HSE indicate?

A

Raised white cells, increased protein, normal glucose

247
Q

What type of graph is being described?

A

Scatter plot

248
Q

What does an R of 0.7 indicate on a scatter plot?

A

Strong positive correlation

249
Q

What test is used on a scatter plot?

A

Pearson’s

250
Q

What association does one forest plot indicate between age and disorders?

A

Older-aged patients have more mental health disorders

251
Q

Which relatives are more likely to have a creative profession?

252
Q

What substance acts as a full agonist, causing paranoia?

A

Synthetic cannabinoid

253
Q

What receptors are associated with anandamide?

254
Q

What is the endogenous agonist at the cannabinoid receptor?

A

Anandamide

255
Q

How is cannabis usage?

A

From infrequent to heavy daily usage

256
Q

How many psychoactive cannabinoids are there?

A

At least 60

257
Q

What is the most important cannabinoid?

258
Q

What are the two types of cannabinoid receptors?

A
  • Central (CB1) * Peripheral (CB2)
259
Q

What does anandamide do?

A

Lowers pressure, decreases activity, relieves pain

260
Q

How are patients grouped by ages 35-50, 50-60?

A

Ordinal data is used for age groups

261
Q

What type of data is risk assessment (done or not)?

A

Dichotomous data is used for risk assessment

262
Q

What type of data are unordered categories, like birthplace?

A

Nominal data has unordered categories

263
Q

What data has ordered categories, like heart failure classes?

A

Ordinal data has ordered categories

264
Q

What type of data is limited to whole numbers, like asthma attacks?

A

Discrete data has limited whole number values

265
Q

What data can take any value within a range, like weight?

A

Continuous data can take any value within a range

266
Q

What data has two values, such as gender?

A

Binomial data has two possible values

267
Q

What type of measurement has meaningful differences between values (e.g., temperature)?

A

Interval measurement has meaningful differences

268
Q

What measurement has meaningful ratios and a non-arbitrary zero (e.g., weight)?

A

Ratio measurement has meaningful ratios

269
Q

What test compares categorical data (ECT, stroke presence)?

A

Chi-square is used for categorical data comparison

270
Q

When using a t-test, if data is less than 5, what test can be used?

A

Fisher’s test may be used

271
Q

What distribution has values equally dispersed around the mean?

A

Parametric distributions have values dispersed equally around the mean

272
Q

What distribution has skewed data?

A

Non-parametric data is skewed

273
Q

What is the square root of the variance?

A

Standard deviation is the square root of variance

274
Q

What measures how close the sample mean is to the population mean?

A

Standard error of the mean measures sample mean proximity

275
Q

What is needed to ensure equal sizes for study groups?

A

Block randomization ensures equal study group sizes

276
Q

What is a researcher doing when dividing groups by age?

A

Stratification divides groups based on age

277
Q

What is placing the next patient in the smaller group?

A

Minimization places the next patient in the smaller group

278
Q

What correlation coefficient indicates a strong correlation?

A

An r-value of -1 indicates a strong correlation

279
Q

What statistical approach includes all patients, even dropouts, in an RCT analysis?

A

ITT (Intention-to-Treat) includes all patients

280
Q

What medication should be given to a patient who is hypotensive and bradycardic?

A

Naloxone should be administered

281
Q

What is dangerous driving most commonly linked to?

A

Dementia is most common with dangerous driving

282
Q

What diagnosis is linked to dangerous driving as stated by the DVLA?

A

Vascular dementia is linked to dangerous driving

283
Q

What offense is common in people with intellectual disabilities?

A

Sexual offenses are common in intellectual disability

284
Q

What crime is least associated with Obsessive Compulsive Disorder?

A

Shoplifting is rarely associated with OCD

285
Q

What crime is most common in those with drug dependence, per NTORS?

A

Shoplifting is the most common crime with drug dependence

286
Q

What syndrome features a very noisy child, severe LD, and hypertelorism?

A

Cri du chat syndrome features these symptoms

287
Q

What gene is associated with Rett syndrome?

A

MECP2 gene is linked with Rett syndrome

288
Q

What test doesn’t require a normal distribution?

A

Mann-Whitney U test doesn’t need normal distribution

289
Q

What DBT pre-treatment stage addresses self-harm?

A

Pre-treatment stage addresses therapeutic commitment

290
Q

What drug lowers ECT dose?

A

Clozapine may lower ECT dose

291
Q

What is the suicide risk one year post self-harm?

A

Suicide risk is 1/100 one year after self-harm

292
Q

What comorbidity is most common in children with OCD?

A

Depression is the most common comorbidity in OCD

293
Q

What is the most common comorbidity with GAD?

A

Major depressive disorder is often comorbid with GAD

294
Q

What comorbidity is common in children?

A

Depression is a common comorbid condition in children

295
Q

What’s the most common comorbidity of OCD in adults?

A

Major depression is the most common comorbidity with OCD in adults

296
Q

What is diagnostic overshadowing in LD?

A

Attributing mental health issues to existing LD is diagnostic overshadowing

297
Q

What intoxicant is linked with laughing, giggling, relaxed mood?

A

Cannabis often causes these symptoms

298
Q

What drug causes increased energy and decreased sleep?

A

Cocaine is a short-acting full agonist

299
Q

What to do for relapsed depression after olanzapine stopped?

A

Restart olanzapine

300
Q

What is a patient on Selegiline with dementia most likely to have?

A

Likely Parkinson’s dementia from selegiline use

301
Q

Patient with memory loss, high BP, infarcts on MRI indicates?

A

Binswanger’s disease is indicated

302
Q

What important thing is missing after re-audit?

A

Implementation of change is missing

303
Q

Man with speech/gait issues, nystagmus, family history of MI death likely has?

A

Friedreich’s ataxia is likely

304
Q

What is the most common number in a data set?

A

The mode is the most frequent number

305
Q

Infanticide is most common in which mental health condition?

A

Psychosis is most common

306
Q

What to use to avoid bias in a case-control study?

A

Case-control studies can explore multiple risk factors

307
Q

What study uses money incentives to encourage medication compliance?

A

A randomized controlled trial (RCT)

308
Q

What randomization method is used for GP surgeries?

A

Cluster randomization

309
Q

What is a research study of prevalence at a specific point?

A

A cross-sectional study

310
Q

Anorexia diagnosis in children; what’s first-line treatment?

A

Family therapy is first-line treatment

311
Q

What cognitive distortion is represented by ‘I knew he had bad intentions’?

A

Mind reading is the cognitive distortion

312
Q

What cognitive distortion is represented by ‘He only said it because he corrected the slide’?

A

Discounting the positives/Selective abstraction is the distortion

313
Q

What cognitive distortion is represented by ‘I had a nice meal so I will be obese’?

A

Overgeneralizing is the distortion

314
Q

What cognitive distortion is represented by ‘An A doesn’t mean I’m intelligent’?

A

Minimization is the cognitive distortion

315
Q

When differentiating MCI and dementia, what is useful to assess?

A

Collateral info on daily functioning is useful

316
Q

What is most likely to occur after a traumatic brain injury?

A

Depression is most common after a traumatic brain injury

317
Q

What is a risk factor for Autism?

A

A low APGAR score is a risk factor for autism

318
Q

What does a negative test not having a disease indicate?

A

Negative Predictive Value

319
Q

What is a suitable treatment for mild depression in children?

A

Digital CBT

320
Q

What is necessary for testamentary capacity?

A

Knowing property value is needed for testamentary capacity

321
Q

Parkinson’s patient has low mood, what’s the first step?

A

Blood tests to rule out organic cause

322
Q

What is a risk factor for body dysmorphic disorder?

A

Risk of self-harm and suicide

323
Q

What is a major risk factor for ADHD in children?

A

Maternal smoking

324
Q

Which is the strongest risk factor for autism?

A

Genetic loading

325
Q

What tools assess study quality in systematic reviews?

A

CASP tools assess the quality of studies

326
Q

What does interpersonal therapy focus on in depression?

A

Interpersonal therapy focuses on grief and loss

327
Q

Which is most common in autism, comorbid social anxiety?

A

More severe ASD is associated with more anxiety

328
Q

What indicates factitious disorder?

A

Good knowledge of disease symptomatology

329
Q

What’s the most common drug linked to motivational syndrome?

A

Cannabis is often linked to this syndrome

330
Q

What is the first step when Clozapine is not working?

A

Check clozapine compliance first

331
Q

What antipsychotic for first-episode psychosis with heart problems?

A

Aripiprazole is a good option

332
Q

What’s the best universal prevention for alcohol dependence?

A

Education and increased prices for alcohol

333
Q

What benefit-cost ratio indicates higher benefit?

A

Men had higher benefit in the study

334
Q

What is a poor prognostic factor for FEP?

A

Long duration of untreated psychosis

335
Q

What does the recovery model focus on?

A

Assessing a patient’s strengths

336
Q

What is the correct response to a new drug lowering mortality, not remission?

A

Prevalence increases

337
Q

What is the best test when comparing ECT and TMS?

A

ECT is more effective than rTMS

338
Q

What is the remission rate of ECT in resistant depression?

A

Remission rate is 60-80%

339
Q

A test is negative, but the patient has the disease, what is this called?

A

This is a false negative test