March 2024 recall Flashcards

1
Q

What are Susser’s core criteria for causality?

A

Strength, specificity, consistency, predictive performance, & coherence. Time-order is most critical.

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2
Q

What do micro-proximity criteria for causality assess?

A

Strength of association, temporality, and dose-response relationship.

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3
Q

What do macro-proximity criteria for causality assess?

A

Plausibility, coherence, consistency, specificity, and analogy.

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4
Q

Which PTSD presentation typically has a worse prognosis?

A

Chronic PTSD.

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5
Q

What is the IES-R cut-off score for possible PTSD?

A

33 or above.

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6
Q

What IES-R score change is ‘statistically reliable’?

A

A reduction of 9 or more points.

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7
Q

What correlation exists between clozapine-induced sedation and motivation/pleasure?

A

A negative correlation exists.

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8
Q

How does clozapine directly affect motivation and pleasure?

A

Clozapine directly affects motivation & pleasure pathways in the brain.

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9
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of suicide attempts in EUPD/BPD?

A

Approximately 10%.

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10
Q

What type of data requires a log transformation for analysis?

A

Skewed data, to normalize distribution.

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11
Q

What statistical test is used when both variables are binary?

A

Chi-squared or logistic regression if one is dependent.

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12
Q

What statistical test is used when the dependent variable is binary?

A

Logistic regression.

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13
Q

What statistical test is used for continuous variables, controlling for a confounder?

A

Linear regression.

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14
Q

How is internal consistency measured in a scale?

A

Split-half method.

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15
Q

What approach focuses on patients’ subjective views in qualitative research?

A

Phenomenology.

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16
Q

What method reduces bias by comparing data from different sources?

A

Triangulation.

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17
Q

What process involves comparing data to form new theories?

A

Constant comparison analysis (Grounded theory).

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18
Q

What is ‘cycles of action’ analysis linked with?

A

Grounded theory.

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19
Q

What class of controlled drug is ketamine?

A

Class B.

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20
Q

What type of drug is cathinone?

A

Stimulant.

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21
Q

Which drug can cause false positives for cathinone on a urine drug screen?

A

Pseudoephedrine.

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22
Q

A person accusing their spouse of cheating while planning to cheat themselves exhibits what defense?

A

Projection.

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23
Q

A person with alcohol issues accusing others of drinking too much is an example of what defense?

A

Projective identification.

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24
Q

Expressing excessive love while feeling hate is what defense?

A

Reaction formation.

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25
Q

Analyzing a traumatic event in depth is an example of what defense?

A

Intellectualization.

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26
Q

What is a risk factor for ADHD?

A

Maternal smoking.

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27
Q

What is a risk factor for anorexia nervosa?

A

High family enmeshment.

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28
Q

What is linked to disinhibited behavior?

A

Conduct disorder.

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29
Q

What is a method of transforming qualitative into quantitative data?

A

Log transformation.

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30
Q

What is a method to select participants with equal proportions from a list?

A

Simple random sampling.

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31
Q

Which conditions have a high risk of arson?

A

Intellectual Disability (ID) and substance misuse.

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32
Q

What behavior suggests bipolar 1 in a person with ID?

A

Taking clothes off and not needing sleep for a prolonged time.

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33
Q

What medication is preferred for ADHD with tics and liver disease?

A

Guanfacine.

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34
Q

What is the management for a pregnant woman at 10 weeks on 80mg methadone?

A

Maintain the current dose.

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35
Q

A patient with grunting, throat clearing, grimacing tics over a year likely has?

A

Tourette’s disorder.

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36
Q

Which condition is a contraindication to lithium use?

A

Addison’s disease.

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37
Q

Which antidepressant requires a decreased ECT voltage?

A

Lofepramine.

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38
Q

For what condition is ECT a first-line treatment?

A

Treatment-resistant depression.

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39
Q

How does ECT compare to rTMS in treatment-resistant depression?

A

ECT is considered superior to rTMS for treatment-resistant depression.

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40
Q

Non-fluent aphasia with intact comprehension is what type?

A

Broca’s aphasia.

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41
Q

Fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension is what type?

A

Wernicke’s aphasia.

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42
Q

Difficulty with word finding is known as?

A

Anomia or progressive aphasia.

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43
Q

What is the second-line treatment option for panic disorder after SSRIs?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), e.g., clomipramine, or venlafaxine if TCA is not tolerated.

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44
Q

What is the medication of choice for BDD?

A

Fluoxetine.

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45
Q

How is study completion & dropout rates calculated using CONSORT diagrams?

A

Using the study diagram to determine how many patients completed the study vs. those that dropped out.

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46
Q

What is the preferred treatment for depression in Alzheimer’s?

A

SSRI (e.g., sertraline or citalopram) or donepezil if SSRI is not tolerated.

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47
Q

What should be done if risperidone 1mg doesn’t improve behavioral symptoms in Alzheimer’s?

A

Gradually reduce and stop risperidone.

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48
Q

What study design is best to validate the MMSE against post-mortem diagnosis of Alzheimer’s?

A

Retrospective cohort.

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49
Q

What is the most common cause of young-onset dementia in the UK?

A

Alzheimer’s disease.

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50
Q

What is the first-line treatment for behavioral issues in Parkinson’s/LBD?

A

Quetiapine.

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51
Q

What is the first-line treatment for visual hallucinations in LBD?

A

Rivastigmine.

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52
Q

A depression scale lacking somatic symptom questions demonstrates poor what?

A

Content validity.

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53
Q

Which genetic disorder presents with feeding difficulties, cardiac anomalies, and epicanthic folds?

A

Down’s syndrome.

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54
Q

Which genetic disorder includes a high-pitched cry and hypertelorism?

A

Cri-du-chat syndrome.

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55
Q

Which condition is associated with jocular speech and gaze aversion?

A

Fragile X syndrome.

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56
Q

Genomic imprinting is associated with which condition?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome.

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57
Q

What is the first-line treatment option for mild depression in a 12-year-old?

A

Digital CBT.

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58
Q

What antidepressant should be used with caution in patients after a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

SSRIs (paroxetine as first line).

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59
Q

Involuntary flinging movements after a hemorrhagic stroke suggest what?

A

Hemiballismus.

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60
Q

What condition causes ‘bird flapping’ tremors (asterixis)?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy.

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61
Q

What is a dynamic risk factor for sexual re-offending?

A

Deviant sexual preferences.

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62
Q

What is the first-line treatment of bulimia nervosa?

A

Self-guided help.

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63
Q

What is the first-line medication for a 16-year-old with OCD?

A

Sertraline.

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64
Q

If a teenager with anorexia needs medication, what is it?

A

Fluoxetine.

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65
Q

What is the legal term when a person has a psychotic delusion when committing a crime?

A

Diminished responsibility.

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66
Q

What is a legal term when someone commits a crime while unconscious?

A

Automatism.

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67
Q

A person is considered morally and criminally responsible with?

A

Criminal responsibility.

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68
Q

What are the two key elements of criminal guilt?

A

Mens rea (guilty mind) and actus rea (guilty act).

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69
Q

A person insensitive to social norms exhibits what personality trait?

A

Schizoid personality.

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70
Q

A patient on sertraline, procyclidine, and lithium with hyperthermia & hyperreflexia likely has?

A

Serotonin syndrome.

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71
Q

Which regression is needed for a binary outcome?

A

Logistic regression.

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72
Q

What is the best regression to analyze the relationship between two continuous variables after adjusting for age?

A

Linear regression.

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73
Q

What medication is added next in the STAR*D trial?

A

Bupropion.

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74
Q

Which condition is equally common in men and women?

A

Hypochondriasis.

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75
Q

What is the classification of Ganser syndrome in ICD-11?

A

Dissociative.

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76
Q

A person with persistent concerns despite tests showing nothing is wrong likely has?

A

Bodily distress/somatization disorder.

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77
Q

A person feeling dysphoric about not having a physical abnormality has?

A

Body integrity dysphoria.

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78
Q

Vague generalized symptoms such as fatigue are classified as?

A

Somatization or bodily distress disorder.

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79
Q

What is a risk factor for dementia?

A

Elevated homocysteine.

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80
Q

Which antidepressant has an increased suicide risk?

A

Amitriptyline is associated with increased suicide risk.

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81
Q

Which antidepressant has the least sexual dysfunction?

A

Bupropion has the lowest risk of sexual side effects.

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82
Q

Which antidepressants need dose reduction with ECT?

A

Venlafaxine and Moclobemide doses should be reduced.

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83
Q

Which is the first-line treatment for OCD with Depression?

A

An SSRI such as fluoxetine is first-line.

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84
Q

What is the second-line for OCD with Depression?

A

Fluvoxamine is often used second-line.

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85
Q

Which antidepressant should be avoided when treating breast cancer with tamoxifen?

A

Not specified.

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86
Q

What is hyperhomocystinemia linked to?

A

Hyperhomocystinemia is associated with an increased risk of dementia.

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87
Q

What test assesses premorbid intelligence in cognitively impaired older adults?

A

The NART (National Adult Reading Test) assesses premorbid intellect.

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88
Q

What are core diagnostic features of Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?

A

Visual hallucinations and neuroleptic sensitivity.

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89
Q

What type of dementia does Donepezil treat?

A

Alzheimer’s dementia and mixed vascular/Alzheimer’s dementia.

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90
Q

What is the treatment of mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

A

There is no specific treatment for MCI itself.

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91
Q

What could be the initial management for an elderly person, with long-standing Alzheimer’s, presenting with new behavioral issues and non-verbal?

A

Consider paracetamol for non-verbal pain and initial blood/urine tests.

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92
Q

What medication is for alcohol withdrawal with liver problems?

A

Lorazepam is safer for alcohol withdrawal with liver disease.

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93
Q

What substance can cause a false positive for methadone?

A

Quetiapine can cause a false positive result on methadone screens.

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94
Q

Which plant-based substance creates relaxation, while which other one increases energy?

A

Cannabis creates relaxation, while cocaine increases energy.

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95
Q

How is heterogeneity in a systematic review measured?

A

The I² statistic quantifies heterogeneity (0-100%).

96
Q

An I² value of 66% signifies what type of heterogeneity?

A

An I² of 66% indicates substantial heterogeneity.

97
Q

What is the simplest statistic used to quantify heterogeneity?

A

The I² is the simple statistic used to quantify heterogeneity.

98
Q

What method gathers all evidence about a treatment?

A

A systematic review gathers all available evidence.

99
Q

What type of analysis was it if the study used fixed effect analysis?

A

A fixed effect analysis assumes variability is due to error.

100
Q

What demonstrates causality in research?

A

Internal validity demonstrates causality in research studies.

101
Q

What is a systematic error?

A

A systematic error is repeatable in studies.

102
Q

What method reduces social desirability bias in research?

A

Member checking or respondent validation can reduce bias.

103
Q

What method is used to adjust for age when assessing a continuous variable?

A

Matching or stratification can adjust for age in data.

104
Q

What test is used to analyze a relationship between two continuous variables while adjusting for a confounder?

A

A linear regression analysis.

105
Q

Which statistical test is used to investigate the relationship between binary variables?

A

Logistic regression.

106
Q

What method is used to convert qualitative data into quantitative data?

A

A log transformation.

107
Q

Which non-parametric method is used to assess correlation?

A

Kendall or Spearman coefficients.

108
Q

What test is used to analyze a relationship between two continuous variables while adjusting for a confounder?

A

A linear regression analysis is used for this purpose.

109
Q

Which statistical test is used to investigate the relationship between binary variables?

A

Logistic regression is used when the dependent variable is binary.

110
Q

What method is used to convert qualitative data into quantitative data?

A

A log transformation can convert qualitative data.

111
Q

Which non-parametric method is used to assess correlation?

A

Kendall or Spearman coefficients are non-parametric.

112
Q

When is Chi-square used?

A

Chi-square test is used for binary data analysis.

113
Q

What type of randomization is it when participants are put into groups of 6?

A

This is block randomization.

114
Q

What type of randomization is computer pairing data 1:1?

A

This is simple randomization.

115
Q

What test is used when assessing for causality?

A

Cox regression is used when assessing for causation.

116
Q

What test is used to assess association?

A

Pearson or Spearman are used to assess association.

117
Q

What type of study is it when cases are matched to the population?

A

This would be a case-control study.

118
Q

What is used to assess internal consistency in a research design?

A

Split-half method assesses internal consistency.

119
Q

What test is used when you have an ordinal independent variable with a dependent variable?

A

This is assessed with logistic regression.

120
Q

What kind of analysis do you do if a patient is adjusting the blood pressure of an individual based on their age?

A

This is done using linear regression.

121
Q

What type of study is it if a family is being assessed for schizophrenia?

A

This could be a cohort study.

122
Q

What sampling type is used if there are participants sharing subjective views?

A

Phenomenological sampling is used in qualitative research.

123
Q

What is a method to reduce bias in qualitative data analysis?

A

Triangulation is used to reduce bias in qualitative research.

124
Q

What kind of cost is hospital transport to ECT for the patient?

A

This is an indirect cost, not direct (hospital cost).

125
Q

What kind of error is one that is repeatable?

A

This is a systematic error.

126
Q

What does ‘unlikely due to chance’ mean in research?

A

Results are unlikely to be due to chance, but statistically significant.

127
Q

What term describes a variable that affects the outcome when analyzing for association and causality?

A

This is a confounder.

128
Q

In an adjusted and unadjusted risk analysis, what explains the difference?

A

The difference is explained by confounders.

129
Q

When analyzing standard deviation, what is the 95% confidence range?

A

95% CI = Mean ± 2 * standard error (SE).

130
Q

When calculating the standard error, what must you do after you have the standard deviation?

A

Divide the standard deviation by the square root of the sample size.

131
Q

What mood disorder is linked to head injuries in children?

A

Mood disorders can occur after head injury in children.

132
Q

What neurodevelopmental disorder is associated with avoiding gaze?

A

Fragile X syndrome is linked with avoiding eye contact.

133
Q

What genetic condition shows imprinting?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome demonstrates genomic imprinting.

134
Q

What is the ICD-11 diagnosis for an LD patient with new disinhibition, restlessness, and insomnia?

A

Bipolar 1 disorder, not psychosis, is the likely diagnosis.

135
Q

What medication is used in ADHD + Tourette with no sedation?

A

Guanfacine is used for ADHD + Tourette, with less sedation.

136
Q

What symptom is most closely associated with Wilson’s disease?

A

A wing-beating tremor is associated with Wilson’s disease.

137
Q

What neurotransmitter is affected by full agonists, which can cause paranoia?

A

Methamphetamine affecting dopamine pathways can cause paranoia.

138
Q

What conditions present with chorea and hemiballismus?

A

Huntington’s and other basal ganglia disorders cause this.

139
Q

Which genetic condition would have a parent and grandparent who died from the same disease?

A

Huntington’s.

140
Q

What is the term for being considered morally or criminally responsible?

A

Criminal responsibility is the appropriate legal term.

141
Q

What are the two components of criminal responsibility?

A
  • Guilty mind (mens rea)
  • Guilty act (actus reus)
142
Q

What type of memory loss is associated with ECT?

A

Explicit memory is impacted by ECT, particularly anterograde.

143
Q

What condition is an indication for Deep Brain Stimulation?

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD).

144
Q

What defense mechanism is an example of someone being resentful of taking care of a child?

A

Reaction formation.

145
Q

What defense mechanism is used when someone does not call back, so they must hate you?

A

Jumping to conclusions, also called arbitrary inference.

146
Q

What is the presentation of someone talking about psychology but not about themselves?

A

This is an example of intellectualization.

147
Q

What does a patient show if they have non-fluent aphasia but understand?

A

They have Broca’s/motor aphasia.

148
Q

What does a patient show if they have fluent aphasia but do not understand?

A

They have sensory/Wernicke’s aphasia.

149
Q

What does a patient present with if they have word-finding difficulties?

A

They have anomia or progressive aphasia.

150
Q

What is the next step with a patient who presents with a 4As score of 6?

A

They will require a comprehensive assessment for the underlying cause.

151
Q

What is the next step with a patient who presents to A&E with falls, and bloods are normal?

A

The next step is an MRI.

152
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a girl with a BMI of 24, who is preoccupied with weight and is binging/purging?

A

This is bulimia.

153
Q

What type of bias is shown when people think they are socially desirable?

A

Social desirability bias.

154
Q

When would you consider the use of lithium with depression, and what is the first-line augmentation?

A

When patients have treatment-resistant depression, and first-line augmentation is quetiapine.

155
Q

What is most helpful in preventing seclusion?

A

Increasing the staff-to-patient ratio.

156
Q

What is an indicator of sexual recidivism?

A

Deviant interest in child pornography is an indicator.

157
Q

What are the levels of the SUSSER’s model?

A
  • Proximity
  • Microscopic
  • Macroscopic
  • End-stage
158
Q

What does a unimodal negative skew show?

A

It shows the tail on the left.

159
Q

When to hospitalize an eating disorder patient?

A

HR 42, BP 80/56, unable to sit up, or psychosis is present.

160
Q

What are the common medical indications for hospital admission in ED?

A
  • Low BP
  • Fainting
  • Delusions
  • HR < 40
  • Inability to sit
  • Self-harm
161
Q

Where should an ED patient with low BP, fainting, and delusions be admitted?

A

Acute Medical Unit (AMU) or Medical Assessment Unit (MAU) first.

162
Q

Is bulimia more prevalent than anorexia?

A

Yes, bulimia is more prevalent than anorexia nervosa.

163
Q

What is a common presentation of synthetic cannabis use?

A

Constricted pupils and hypotension are common.

164
Q

A person presents with hypertension, tachycardia, sweating, and hyperthermia. What drug is most likely involved?

A

MDMA, amphetamine intoxication, or cocaine withdrawal would cause this.

165
Q

What are symptoms of cocaine intoxication?

A

Ischemic changes and chest pain are a sign.

166
Q

Which drug is most likely to cause physical dependence?

A

Alprazolam has the greatest risk of physical dependence.

167
Q

What gene is associated with Lewy Body Dementia (LBD)?

A

Alpha-synuclein (alpha-synucleinopathy) gene on chromosome 4.

168
Q

What is a non-degenerative cause of cognitive impairment?

A

Alcoholic dementia or Multiple Sclerosis can be a cause.

169
Q

What cognitive assessment is useful for non-English speakers with dementia?

A

The Rowland Universal Dementia Assessment Scale (RUDAS).

170
Q

Parkinsonism, MMSE 21/30, with visual hallucinations—what is the treatment?

A

Rivastigmine is an appropriate treatment.

171
Q

What causes low mood, eye signs, dementia, and a family history of dementia?

A

Friedrich’s ataxia can cause this.

172
Q

What type of dementia is associated with subcortical damage?

A

Vascular dementia, Parkinson’s, and MS are associated with subcortical damage.

173
Q

What is the initial dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), if it occurs within 12 months.

174
Q

Frontal lobe dementia has what type of aphasia?

A

Non-fluent dysphasia is characteristic in frontal lobe dementia.

175
Q

Progranulin is linked to what neurodegenerative disease?

A

Progranulin gene on Chr 17 is linked to Parkinson’s.

176
Q

Which condition is characterized by headache, migraine, and TIAs?

A

CADASIL (Cerebral Autosomal Dominant Arteriopathy with Subcortical Infarcts and Leukoencephalopathy).

177
Q

What is not a degenerative cause of dementia from the options: DLB, MND, MS?

A

Multiple sclerosis is not a primary neurodegenerative disorder.

178
Q

What can one say about aspirin use and dementia?

A

It may delay vascular dementia but does not prevent it.

179
Q

What is typical of a formal thought disorder, inappropriate affect, and bizarre delusions?

A

Schizophrenia.

180
Q

What cognitive test is impaired in a patient with formal thought disorder and psychosis?

A

A selective attention test will be impaired.

181
Q

What are good prognostic factors for schizophrenia?

A

Higher socioeconomic status is a better prognostic factor.

182
Q

Which patients with Erotomania are most likely to end up in forensic services?

A

Males with Erotomania are more likely to end up in forensic services.

183
Q

What is the least effective use of clonidine?

A

Inattention and overarousal.

184
Q

What is a major finding of the CUTLASS study?

A

FGA and SGA had similar effectiveness/side effects, except for clozapine.

185
Q

What is the most common complication of rTMS?

A

Headache is the most common complication.

186
Q

What medications can cause a disulfiram-like reaction?

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Decongestants
  • Some cephalosporins
187
Q

What is the remission rate of ECT?

A

70-90% is the typical remission rate.

188
Q

What is a key aspect of motivational interviewing?

A

Rolling with resistance (acceptance) is key.

189
Q

What is the next step for SSRI and SNRI non-responders?

A

Consider phenelzine (MAOI) for social phobia.

190
Q

What treatment is best for treatment-resistant OCD?

A

Clomipramine is effective for treatment-resistant OCD.

191
Q

What medication is used for tics and ADHD after first-line hypertension?

A

Clonidine or Guanfacine should be used.

192
Q

What is the second-line treatment for clozapine-induced hypersalivation?

A

Piperazine is a second-line treatment option.

193
Q

What is the first-line treatment for Akathisia?

A

Pirenzepine.

194
Q

What non-medication method is used for anxiety-provoking stimuli?

A

Systematic desensitization using a hierarchy.

195
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for PTSD in a teenager?

A

EMDR, over 3 months after the event if TFCBT has failed.

196
Q

What is the best therapy for Borderline patients who are talking about their boyfriend’s reaction?

A

Mentalization-Based Therapy (MBT).

197
Q

What therapy uses the concept that a child criticized grows up self-critical?

A

Schema therapy addresses core beliefs developed in childhood.

198
Q

What is a good initial treatment for a child with aggression?

A

Intramuscular lorazepam or risperidone for children.

199
Q

What should you do if you have a child scared of an appointment in autism?

A

Use a social story.

200
Q

How would you manage a child in autism who already has a social story?

A

Use now and next cards for daily routine.

201
Q

What can help a child in autism who is imitating behavior?

A

Intensive interaction (body language).

202
Q

What should you do for a pregnant woman on 60mg duloxetine?

A

Continue at the same dose.

203
Q

How do you calculate the Standard Error of the Mean (SEM)?

A

SEM = Standard Deviation / Square root of the sample size.

204
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

Comparing a test to an established gold standard test.

205
Q

What does predictive validity measure?

A

How well a test predicts a future outcome or criterion.

206
Q

What is an example of convenience sampling?

A

Including all patients who attend a clinic in a specific week.

207
Q

What is the key principle of Intent-to-Treat (ITT) analysis?

A

Once randomized, always analyzed, despite patient non-adherence.

208
Q

What is the function of ITT in trials?

A

It gives more accurate results and reduces type 2 error.

209
Q

How do you calculate NNT?

A

NNT = 1 / (CER – EER).

210
Q

What is the formula for absolute risk reduction?

A

ARR = CER - EER.

211
Q

What is the formula for RRR?

A

RRR = ARR / CER.

212
Q

What does adding more samples do to underpowered studies?

A

It increases the power.

213
Q

What does the sample size do to the SEM?

A

A larger sample size reduces the SEM.

214
Q

What is Kruskal-Wallis used for?

A

Three or more variables, non-normal data, between subjects.

215
Q

What is the formula for ARR?

A

ARR = CER - EER

ARR stands for Absolute Risk Reduction, CER for Control Event Rate, and EER for Experimental Event Rate.

216
Q

What is the formula for RRR?

A

RRR = ARR / CER

RRR stands for Relative Risk Reduction.

217
Q

What does adding more samples do to underpowered studies?

A

It increases the power

Power refers to the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis.

218
Q

What does the sample size do to the SEM?

A

A larger sample size reduces the SEM

SEM stands for Standard Error of the Mean.

219
Q

What is Kruskal-Wallis used for?

A

Three or more variables, non-normal data, between subjects

It is a non-parametric method for comparing multiple independent samples.

220
Q

What statistical analysis is used for associations, risks, proportions, rates?

A

Chi-squared test

This test assesses the association between categorical variables.

221
Q

When do you use a paired t-test?

A

Continuous data, compare two means within the same subject

It is used when the samples are dependent.

222
Q

What is the hazard ratio used for?

A

Used in survival analysis, constant over time

It compares the hazard rates between two groups.

223
Q

What is an odds ratio used for in a study with an intervention group and control group over time?

A

To understand the difference over time

It measures the odds of an event occurring in the intervention group relative to the control group.

224
Q

What statistical method is used for non-normal data in within-subject design?

A

Friedman test

It is a non-parametric alternative to the repeated measures ANOVA.

225
Q

What causes cataplexy?

A

Emotional arousal is the most common trigger

Cataplexy is often associated with narcolepsy.

226
Q

What does an increase in prevalence do to PPV?

A

PPV will increase with increased prevalence

PPV stands for Positive Predictive Value.

227
Q

What are complex tics?

A

Grimacing, echopraxia, shrugging are examples of complex tics

Tics can be classified into simple and complex types.

228
Q

Which methods are used to remove confounders in epidemiological studies?

A

MMRR (Randomization, restriction, minimization, matching) SAM (Stratification, adjustment, multivariate stats)

These methods help to control for variables that may distort study results.

229
Q

What is the most common age of homicide victims killed by women?

A

Under 16 years old

This statistic highlights a significant demographic in homicide cases.

230
Q

What is the main predictive factor for violence?

A

Previous history of violence

Historical behavior is often a strong indicator of future actions.

231
Q

What is the most predictive risk factor for suicide?

A

Being male

Gender differences in suicide rates are well-documented.

232
Q

What is the purpose of family therapy in a 12-year-old with anorexia?

A

Family therapy is essential for addressing family dynamics

Involving family can be crucial in the treatment of eating disorders.

233
Q

What should you do for an intellectually disabled person with harming behaviors?

A

Implement a behavior support plan

Tailored support plans can help manage and reduce harmful behaviors.

234
Q

Flupentixol had no facial expression and hypersalivation—what is it and what is the treatment?

A

Parkinsonism, treated with Procyclidine

Procyclidine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat drug-induced parkinsonism.

235
Q

What is the LR+ if you know the sensitivity = 80%, specificity = 60%?

A

2

LR+ (Positive Likelihood Ratio) is calculated as sensitivity / (1 - specificity).