march recall 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

What drug class is mephedrone?

A

It’s a synthetic stimulant, like amphetamines, MDMA, and cocaine. It’s also a cathinone.

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2
Q

What is used to treat clozapine-induced hypersalivation?

A

Pirenzepine is used. Hyoscine is another option, although there is less evidence.

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3
Q

What is an appropriate drug to add to clozapine for persistent positive symptoms?

A

Amisulpride or Aripiprazole can be added for positive symptoms.

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4
Q

Which drug is unlikely to cause physical or psychological dependence?

A

LSD is unlikely to cause physical or psychological dependence.

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5
Q

Which SSRI has the least discontinuation symptoms?

A

Fluoxetine has fewer discontinuation issues than others.

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6
Q

Which antidepressant is preferred in hyponatremia?

A

Mirtazapine is preferred due to its reduced risk of SIADH.

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7
Q

What is the Hoover test used for?

A

To distinguish between organic and functional (non-organic) leg weakness. It uses a crossed extensor reflex principle.

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8
Q

What is the description of ‘insane automatism’?

A

An act performed unconsciously due to internal causes, like epilepsy. This can be used for an insanity defense.

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9
Q

What does automatism preceded by an aura suggest?

A

It suggests an epileptic seizure, which is classified as insane automatism.

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10
Q

What is a typical feature of cerebellar ataxia?

A

Staccato speech, characterized by broken and abrupt speech.

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11
Q

Which is the best measure of pre-morbid intelligence?

A

The National Adult Reading Test (NART) is used to assess pre-morbid intelligence.

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12
Q

Which type of dementia is associated with progressive loss of words?

A

Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD) causes progressive language decline.

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13
Q

What is the typical feature of Progressive Supranuclear Palsy?

A

Cervical dystonia, postural instability, and vertical gaze palsy are features.

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14
Q

What is the best predictor of long-term cognitive impairment after head injury?

A

Post-traumatic amnesia (PTA) and length of loss of consciousness (LOC) are the best predictors.

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15
Q

If someone is knocked unconscious and then becomes amnesic, what is this?

A

This is post-traumatic amnesia (PTA), not dissociative amnesia.

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16
Q

What kind of memory is most affected by ECT?

A

Retrograde memory (explicit memory) recall of events before treatment is most affected.

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17
Q

What kind of memory is affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Episodic memory (personal events) is most affected.

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18
Q

What memory functions are preserved in Korsakoff?

A

Working memory, attention, and procedural memory are preserved.
Digit span is intact

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19
Q

What do the findings of macrocephaly and gaze avoidance suggest?

A

They are suggestive of Fragile X syndrome.

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20
Q

What is a common symptom of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Self-harming behavior such as biting lips and fingers, along with gout.

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21
Q

What syndrome is associated with self-hugging and a prominent jaw?

A

These are characteristic features of Smith-Magenis syndrome.

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22
Q

What is a key feature of Prader-Willi syndrome?

A

Extreme obesity with compulsive eating (hyperphagia).

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23
Q

What symptoms can indicate Phenylketonuria?

A

Eczema, lack of pigment in skin/hair, and developmental delay.

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24
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a child skipping school and using drugs?

A

Conduct disorder due to repetitive antisocial behaviors and rule violations.

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25
Q

What condition has the highest heritability?

A

ADHD has the highest heritability of around 70-80%.

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26
Q

What is the most common comorbidity in children with ADHD?

A

Oppositional defiant disorder is the most common co-morbid disorder.

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27
Q

What is a sign of weak central coherence?

A

Focus on parts, not the whole, seen in ASD, like focusing on toy car wheels, not the shape.

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28
Q

What is the next treatment for a child with OCD if an SSRI doesn’t work?

A

Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is the next step.

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29
Q

What does ‘habeas corpus’ mean?

A

The right to a hearing to check if detention is legal.

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30
Q

What is an ‘indictable offense’?

A

A more serious offense requiring a jury trial.

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31
Q

What is the ‘corpus delicti’?

A

The factual evidence that a crime has been committed.

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32
Q

Which graph type shows categories/discrete data?

A

Bar charts show categories and discrete data. Histograms are for continuous data.

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33
Q

Which type of bias is reduced by randomization?

A

Randomization primarily reduces selection bias.

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34
Q

Which type of bias is reduced by blinding?

A

Blinding helps to reduce measurement bias (also known as information bias).

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35
Q

What is allocation concealment designed to reduce?

A

Allocation concealment is designed to reduce selection bias.

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36
Q

A study has a pretest probability of 1 in 8 with 80% sensitivity and specificity. What is the post-test odds ratio?

A

Post-test odds ratio is 4 in 7.

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37
Q

What does a Galbraith plot assess?

A

It assesses the heterogeneity of study results in meta-analysis.

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38
Q

What is a key assumption of a fixed-effect model?

A

That differences between study outcomes are due to chance.

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39
Q

In a negative skew, how do mean, median, and mode compare?

A

In a negative skew: Mean < Median < Mode.

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40
Q

What is the economic term for lost medical earnings if a physician does poetry?

A

Opportunity cost, the cost of the next best alternative forgone.

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41
Q

What is ‘intangible cost’ in health economics?

A

Intangible cost refers to costs such as pain and discomfort that are hard to quantify in monetary value.

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42
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

Agreement of a new instrument with another already validated instrument.

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43
Q

What does predictive validity assess?

A

An instrument’s ability to predict future outcomes.

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44
Q

What does a CONSORT diagram need to report?

A

It needs to report the number of dropouts (attrition rate).

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45
Q

What type of test is the Kruskal-Wallis test?

A

It’s a non-parametric equivalent of a one-way ANOVA (compares >2 independent groups).

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46
Q

What is an ANCOVA used for?

A

ANCOVA is used to control for baseline differences when comparing groups.

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47
Q

What is Fisher’s test used for?

A

It’s used with small sample sizes, especially in contingency tables.

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48
Q

What is theoretical saturation in qualitative research?

A

The point at which no new themes emerge from data analysis.

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49
Q

What is an important prevention against selection bias in studies?

A

Randomization is the best preventative step.

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50
Q

What bias is avoided by blinding in RCTs?

A

Expectation bias is avoided.

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51
Q

What is a typical sign of Serotonin Syndrome?

A

Clonus and hyperreflexia, along with other symptoms like hyperthermia.

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52
Q

What defense mechanism is intellectualization?

A

A neurotic defense mechanism using logic to avoid emotions.

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53
Q

What does ‘jumping to conclusions’ represent?

A

It represents an arbitrary inference cognitive distortion.

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54
Q

Which therapies use hypothesis formulation?

A

Psychodynamic and systemic family therapy use hypothesizing.

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55
Q

What is the management of lithium during labor?

A

Suspend lithium 24-48 hours prior and check level 12 hours post last dose.

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56
Q

What is the correct dose of lithium to reduce to post-delivery in a stable pregnant patient?

A

The dose should be reduced to 400mg, and levels should be checked after a week.

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57
Q

What are the types of prevention for mental health?

A

Universal, selective, and indicated are types of prevention.

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58
Q

Which specific therapy is best for treatment-resistant social phobia?

A

A MAOI such as Moclobemide is used in treatment resistance.

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59
Q

What are the symptoms of heroin withdrawal in a baby?

A

Jitteriness, shaking, and rapid breathing (tachypnea). This is cocaine?

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60
Q

What is the first-line NICE treatment for bulimia?

A

Self-help.

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61
Q

What is the initial step for binge eating disorder according to NICE?

A

Guided self-help.

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62
Q

When should group CBT-ED be offered for binge eating disorder?

A

If self-help is ineffective after 4 weeks.

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63
Q

What should be offered if group CBT-ED is unavailable or declined?

A

Individual CBT-ED for adults, same treatment for children/young people.

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64
Q

Should medication be used as sole treatment for binge eating disorder?

A

No, medication should not be the sole treatment.

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65
Q

What is the most important criteria for hospitalization in anorexia nervosa?

A

Self-harm. (Not low heart rate or BMI)

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66
Q

Vivid dreams, increased sleep, and appetite likely indicate what?

A

Cocaine withdrawal.

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67
Q

Excessive sleeping, irritability, hyperphagia, and normal pupils suggest?

A

Amphetamine or cocaine withdrawal; screen may be negative by day 3.

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68
Q

Man with mutism, catalepsy, fever, and recent stimulant use most likely has?

A

Malignant catatonia.

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69
Q

Confused, unstable gait, double vision, in a homeless person?

A

Administer thiamine first. (Then glucose if needed)

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70
Q

Jittery, overaroused newborn, 2 hours after birth, likely due to?

A

Cocaine, heroin, or maternal smoking.

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71
Q

Man with seizures, sweating, muscular rigidity, tachycardia after drug use?

A

Likely amphetamine use/toxicity.

72
Q

Two drugs with equal efficacy and safety, which study compares costs?

A

Cost minimization study.

73
Q

Hospitalization costs vs. clinic costs are compared, which study type?

A

Cost minimization study.

74
Q

Study comparing different clinical outcomes in monetary terms?

A

Cost-benefit study.

75
Q

Loss of productivity due to hospitalization represents what cost?

A

Indirect cost.

76
Q

What is the purpose of sensitivity analysis in research?

A

To assess how changes in assumptions impact outcomes.

77
Q

Which of the following is NOT a subtype of sensitivity analyses?

A

Time trade-off measures.

78
Q

What does standard error of the mean measure?

A

How close the sample mean is to the population mean.

79
Q

What is the range of a correlation coefficient?

80
Q

What study design uses a sample from a cohort for cases and controls?

A

Nested case-control study.

81
Q

What is used to assess heterogeneity or publication bias in meta-analysis?

A

Galbraith plot or funnel plot.

82
Q

What is block randomization used for?

A

Ensuring an equal number of participants in each arm.

83
Q

Why is Intention-to-treat analysis (ITT) used?

A

Gives more accurate results despite non-adherence.

84
Q

What is the order of evidence hierarchy (highest to lowest)?

A

Meta-analysis, systematic review, RCT, non-RCT, cohort, case-control.

85
Q

What does an area under the curve (AUC) of 0.86 signify?

A

Good accuracy, with 100% sensitivity mentioned in the question.

86
Q

What does a Kaplan-Meier curve assess?

A

Time to event, e.g., time to hospitalization or death.

87
Q

What are connected bars used in continuous data called?

A

Histogram, used to show distribution.

88
Q

What is the role of imputation in research?

A

Used to represent missing data or reduce publication bias.

89
Q

What sampling technique is used for getting MDT views?

A

Purposive sampling.

90
Q

What is triangulation used for?

A

Combine multiple sources of data.

91
Q

What condition is most commonly comorbid with gender dysphoria?

A

Depression.

92
Q

Which genetic disorder has the weakest association with autism?

A

Patau syndrome.

93
Q

Which medication is preferred for ADHD with co-morbid tics?

A

Clonidine.

94
Q

What is a key feature of avoidant personality disorder, more so than social phobia?

A

Fear of criticism.

95
Q

What is a first-line treatment for malignant catatonia?

96
Q

First-line treatment for affective stupor?

A

Lorazepam.

97
Q

Most common symptom in adults with Fragile X?

A

Social anxiety. (Hyperactivity more common in children)

98
Q

Which drug reduces seizure duration in ECT?

A

Chlordiazepoxide.

99
Q

What is a contraindication for lithium use?

A

Myasthenia gravis. (Not hypothyroidism or epilepsy)

100
Q

Preferred antidepressant for someone with intracerebral bleed?

A

Lofepramine. (TCA, not SSRI)

101
Q

What is true about sex distribution in schizophrenia?

A

Equal sex distribution. (Not socioeconomic status)

102
Q

What brain imaging findings are seen in alcohol-related damage?

A

Enlarged lateral ventricles, white matter anisotropy.

103
Q

Lifetime risk of completed suicide in emotionally unstable PD?

104
Q

Most common disorder in those who commit arson?

A

Alcohol use disorder.

105
Q

Most common disorder associated with violence?

A

Substance use disorder or personality disorder. (Both increase risk)

106
Q

Most common predictor of violence?

A

Previous history of violence. (Not substance use alone)

107
Q

Treatment for Parkinson’s-like movements from antipsychotics?

A

Procyclidine.

108
Q

Preferred antipsychotic for postural hypotension?

A

Aripiprazole.

109
Q

Which antipsychotic is preferred in poorly controlled diabetes and epilepsy?

A

Aripiprazole.

110
Q

What is a feature of Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome?

A

Demyelination of the corpus.

111
Q

What is the most common predictor of violence?

A

Previous history of violence

Substance use alone is not a predictor

112
Q

What is the treatment for Parkinson’s-like movements from antipsychotics?

A

Procyclidine

113
Q

Which antipsychotic is preferred for postural hypotension?

A

Aripiprazole

114
Q

Which antipsychotic is preferred in poorly controlled diabetes and epilepsy?

A

Aripiprazole

115
Q

What is a feature of Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome?

A

Demyelination of the corpus callosum

116
Q

Which drug is least likely to induce tardive dyskinesia?

117
Q

What is the treatment for tardive dyskinesia?

A

Tetrabenazine

118
Q

What defines a dynamic risk factor?

A

It’s fluctuating and modifiable

Examples include loss of insight and active psychosis

119
Q

What is the treatment of choice for schizoaffective disorder?

A

Antipsychotics, mood stabilizers, and antidepressants

120
Q

What action is recommended if a pregnant woman is stable on lithium?

A

Consider stopping lithium gradually, consider antipsychotic

121
Q

What are key features of narcolepsy?

A

Sleep paralysis, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations

122
Q

What is a common symptom of epilepsy that presents in A&E?

A

Carbamazepine-induced hyponatremia

123
Q

What is a defense mechanism of a drug lord donating to charity?

A

Could be altruism, sublimation, or intellectualization

124
Q

What is the defense mechanism when parents help with accident prevention after a child’s death?

A

Could be altruism or sublimation

125
Q

What is negative reinforcement in OCD?

A

Obsessions reduce anxiety by compulsions

126
Q

What is the therapy technique to deal with a client who finds it funny to imitate behaviors?

A

Intensive Interaction Techniques

127
Q

What is the key role for CBT in psychosis?

A

Acceptance, normalization, decreasing stress, validation

128
Q

What is the correct approach for using motivational interviewing?

A

Roll with resistance

129
Q

What is the most common neuropsychiatric sequelae of head injury in children?

A

Depression

Not mania

130
Q

Schools supporting low-income families are considered what type of prevention?

A

Selective prevention

131
Q

What is a key feature of sleep terrors that differentiates them from nightmares?

A

Lack of recall of the episode

132
Q

What commonly improves with clonidine in ADHD?

A

Attention and impulsivity

Not aggression

133
Q

What is often seen in ASD?

A

Heritability of 90%, intellectual disability in up to 70%

134
Q

When is hospital admission preferred for children with schizophrenia?

A

For MDT assessment

Prevalence around 0.5-1%

135
Q

What is the first step to take when a child with PTSD comes into the clinic?

A

Talk to the child directly, apart from their parents

136
Q

What is a simple motor tic example?

A

Head shaking, eye blinking, grimacing

Throat clearing is vocal

137
Q

A woman kills her baby due to psychosis, saying ‘end the misery’, it’s?

A

Diminished responsibility, not insanity

138
Q

What is associated with increased risk of suicide in prisons?

A

More common in males, lifers, physical health issues

139
Q

Do patients with learning disabilities have the right to withdraw consent?

A

Yes, at any time

140
Q

What does the Bournewood case relate to?

A

Liberty

Capacity

141
Q

What is the Tarasoff principle about?

A

Duty to warn potential victims of violence

142
Q

What should you avoid giving with Tamoxifen?

A

Fluoxetine

143
Q

Which drug has GABA and NMDA antagonist effects?

144
Q

Which drug should you avoid when on lithium?

A

Sodium valproate

Teratogenic during pregnancy

145
Q

A patient is on risperidone and citalopram with a prolonged QTc, what should you do?

A

Reduce risperidone, repeat ECG

146
Q

If a patient has no response to citalopram after 2 months, what to do next?

A

Increase the dose or switch to another SSRI

147
Q

Patient with epilepsy and hyponatremia on carbamazepine, also depressed, what to prescribe?

A

Mirtazapine

Avoid SSRIs/TCAs due to interactions

148
Q

What is the first step to take if a 30-year-old female is having mutism and immobility?

A

Give lorazepam

Then consider ECT if severe/no improvement

149
Q

What antipsychotic is best in elderly with eGFR >25?

A

Haloperidol, amisulpride, sulpiride can be considered

150
Q

What medication can be used for alcohol maintenance?

A

Naltrexone or Acamprosate

151
Q

What is a common side effect of lithium?

A

Fine tremor, polyuria, polydipsia

Toxicity >1.2mg/L: myoclonic twitches

152
Q

What do you avoid prescribing for mania in moderate LD?

A

Lamotrigine

153
Q

Which antipsychotic has the highest risk of weight gain?

A

Olanzapine

154
Q

Which antipsychotic causes the most significant QTc prolongation?

A

Ziprasidone

155
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for dementia?

A

Significant cognitive decline impacting daily function

156
Q

What is a key thing about audit and quality improvement?

A

Should lead to implementation of change

157
Q

If a patient is on a high dose of methadone and now pregnant, what should you do?

A

Continue with the same dose

158
Q

What is the most common symptom in postpartum with intrusive thoughts?

A

OCD

If symptoms causing distress

159
Q

What is the clinical definition of paralytic ileus?

A

Abdominal distention, vomiting, constipation

160
Q

What is often seen as a precursor to violence?

A

Past violence and previous suicide attempt

161
Q

What do you see in an upper motor neuron lesion?

A

Scissoring gait

162
Q

What is the main reason for lower life expectancy in Schizophrenia?

A

Cardiovascular disease

163
Q

Which is more likely to cause an EPS symptom?

A

Bradykinesia/Paramydial clasp knife rigidity

Intentional tremor is associated with cerebellar lesions

164
Q

If you are using a new antipsychotic, what is the best way to check for side effects?

A

Case series

165
Q

What is the most appropriate for testing selective attention?

A

Stroop or Trail making test

Not ROCF

166
Q

What happens to T/wave/ST segment when on clozapine?

A

Saddle-shaped ST segment

167
Q

What is the primary role of family therapy?

A

To improve communication between family members

168
Q

What is the main feature of motor dissociative disorder?

A

Aphonia, immobility, paralysis

169
Q

What does the F stat measure?

A

The ratio of two variances

170
Q

Which of the following increases in severity and prevalence between 10-12?

A

Tourette’s

171
Q

What are the stages of Prochaska’s model?

A

Pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

172
Q

Which medication is more effective in refractory OCD?

A

Clomipramine and antipsychotic

173
Q

What is the NNT for ARR of 9?

A

11.1%

NNT = 1/ARR. ARR = 1/9 = 0.11 = 11.1%

174
Q

How does a funnel plot look in the presence of publication bias?

A

Asymmetrical

175
Q

How many more years do patients with Schizophrenia die earlier?