June 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a core feature of Probable Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?

A

REM sleep behavior disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain DLB core clinical features.

A

Fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, REM sleep disorder, parkinsonism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List supportive clinical features of DLB.

A
  • Neuroleptic sensitivity
  • Postural instability
  • Falls
  • Syncope
  • Autonomic issues
  • Hypersomnia
  • Hyposmia
  • Delusions
  • Other hallucinations
  • Apathy
  • Anxiety
  • Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is sane automatism in forensic terms?

A

Loss of consciousness for a short duration caused by an external factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give examples of sane automatism.

A
  • Sleep terrors
  • Confusional states
  • Concussion
  • Reflexes after bee stings
  • Dissociative states
  • Hypoglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the legal consequence of sane automatism?

A

Complete acquittal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe insane automatism legally.

A

Due to an intrinsic cause; results in acquittal on grounds of insanity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give examples of insane automatism.

A
  • Sleepwalking
  • Brain tumors
  • Epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Order forensic terms: remand, conviction, sentence, trial.

A

Remand, trial, conviction, sentence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define ‘remand.’

A

Detaining an accused person in custody pre-trial, or a case sent back for further consideration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define ‘trial.’

A

Formal legal proceeding to examine facts, hear witnesses, decide guilt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define ‘conviction.’

A

Court’s formal declaration of guilt after trial or guilty plea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define ‘sentence.’

A

Court-imposed punishment after conviction (fine, prison, probation, etc.).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are released prisoners or patients from hospitals more likely to reoffend?

A

Neither is inherently more likely, but both can have risk factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is suicide risk higher in prisoners compared to the general population?

A

Yes, rates of suicide are higher in prisons than the general population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are risk factors for suicide in prison?

A
  • Psychiatric illness
  • Substance misuse
  • Repetitive self-harm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common method of suicide in prisons?

A

Hanging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the association between overcrowding and prison suicide?

A

Inconsistent evidence; may sometimes reduce risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which disorder is common in arsonists?

A

Substance use disorder, especially alcohol, and personality disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe arson characteristics.

A

Usually male, late teens/early 20s, unmarried, poorly educated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What age group is most likely to be victims of female homicide perpetrators with psychosis?

A

Children under 16 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What age group of women has the highest risk of committing homicide?

A

Women aged 30-39.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a key factor in being deemed unfit to plead?

A

Inability to understand trial proceedings or instruct counsel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Is amnesia for the event likely to cause unfitness to plead?

A

No. Amnesia of the event alone does not make someone unfit to plead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which condition most often causes ‘unfit to plead’?

A

Schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define Type 1 Error.

A

Rejecting a true null hypothesis, a false positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the consequence of mean imputation in intention to treat?

A

It increases the risk of Type 1 error.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How can effect modifiers and confounders be evaluated?

A

By stratification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can control known and unknown confounders?

A

Randomization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When to use Mann-Whitney U test?

A

When comparing two independent groups with non-parametric data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When are risk ratio and hazard ratio similar?

A

When the prevalence of the outcome is low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What assumption must be met before using a Cox regression?

A

Hazard ratio remains constant over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does hazard ratio assess?

A

Average risk, weighted for at-risk patients over a follow-up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define ‘indirect costs’ in economic evaluation.

A

Costs due to reduced productivity of the patient or caregiver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What effect do outliers have on study validity?

A

They can reduce study validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is per-protocol analysis?

A

Analysis that only includes participants that sufficiently complied with the trial’s protocol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is ‘intention-to-treat’ (ITT) analysis?

A

Analysis includes all randomized patients regardless of compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the main goal of ITT analysis in RCTs?

A

Assess treatment effects as randomized despite patient non-adherence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In research, what does ‘SEM’ mean?

A

Standard Error of the Mean, a measure of the dispersion of sample means.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do you calculate SEM?

A

SEM = SD divided by the square root of the sample size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If variance is 36, what is the Standard deviation?

A

The Standard deviation is 6 (square root of the variance).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define standard error of the mean.

A

Dispersion of sample means around the true population mean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do you calculate LR-?

A

LR- = (1-sensitivity) / specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you calculate NNT?

A

NNT = 1 / Absolute Benefit Increase (ABI).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How do you calculate NNH?

A

NNH = 1 / Absolute risk increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the effect of an increase in sample size on statistical non-significance?

A

It may help detect smaller effects, increasing statistical power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When to consider starting treatment despite no statistical significance?

A

If results are clinically significant or may have a clinical impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the primary use of qualitative research?

A

Exploration of experiences, perspectives, in-depth understanding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can be used to transform skewed data?

A
  • Log
  • Square root
  • Reciprocal transformations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Name an agreed reporting standard for meta-analyses and reviews.

A

QUORUM/PRISMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is causation shown in path analysis?

A

P-value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define dichotomous data.

A

Data with two possible values (e.g., yes/no, present/absent).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What differentiates dichotomous data?

A
  • Easier to represent
  • Easier to interpret
  • Different testing methods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which is categorical data?

A

Gender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the appropriate test to use for 2x2 data?

A

Chi Square.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What measure cannot be calculated if there are zero events in a group?

A

Risk Ratio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which study uses odds ratio?

A

Case control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which study uses relative risk?

A

Cohort study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If the SD is 16, what is the SEM if the sample size is 12?

A

4.624 (16/sqrt(12)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does a higher SEM suggest?

A

Lower accuracy of the sample mean to represent the true population mean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the point of confidence interval becoming non-significant?

A

Zero.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What’s the first-line medication for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When is clonidine indicated in ADHD?

A

If tics worsen with stimulants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What medication is useful for both depression and ADHD?

A

Tricyclics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

For ADHD with aggression, which medication is less beneficial?

A

Atomoxetine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is first-line treatment for acute mania in adolescents?

A

Aripiprazole or alternative antipsychotics like olanzapine or quetiapine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is a commonly used antipsychotic in the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

Quetiapine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If a patient is on lithium with good serum levels and has severe depression, what can be added?

A

Lamotrigine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A bipolar patient presents with mania, which antipsychotic is recommended in the first instance?

A

Haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, or risperidone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a diagnostic feature of Binswanger’s disease?

A

Subcortical dementia with vascular risk factors, small infarcts on MRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When should Parkinson’s Disease Dementia be diagnosed?

A

When parkinsonian symptoms precede dementia by > 12 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is characteristic of Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

Progressive cognitive decline, temporoparietal dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the features of Friedreich’s ataxia?

A
  • Clumsy gait
  • Repeated falls
  • Heart issues
  • Intact cognition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What brain issue is most linked to HIV?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Describe paradoxical injunction.

A

A strategic technique used to overcome resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of therapy uses ‘unspoken rules’?

A

Structural family therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which family therapy emphasizes past experiences?

A

Psychodynamic therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What can anorexia with binge eating cause?

A
  • Hypokalemia
  • U waves
  • PR prolongation on ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What ECG change can clozapine cause?

A

Saddle T inversion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What ECG change can citalopram and diphenhydramine cause?

A

QTc prolongation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What ECG change can Donepezil cause?

A

Sinus bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does low mood with obesity in the face, neck, abdomen, back suggest?

A

Cushing’s syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What does depression with red tongue, mouth ulcers, and decreased taste in someone on phenytoin suggest?

A

Folate deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does memory loss, tingling, numbness, and a smooth tongue suggest?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Low mood, emotional dysregulation, dry skin, nail changes suggest what?

A

Hypoparathyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is ‘diagnostic overshadowing’?

A

Attributing symptoms to a known condition, overlooking other problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is a key aim of normalization of care for people with ID?

A

Social roles and life circumstances that are not too different from others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What kind of data is ‘1-5 scale with mild to severe’?

A

Ordinal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the study type where cases and controls are recruited at the same time?

A

Case control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the study type where individuals are followed up from a baseline for future outcomes?

A

Cohort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the best study type to find the efficacy of ECT?

A

RCT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is represented by a funnel plot?

A

Publication bias in meta-analyses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the chart that represents decreasing survival with time?

A

Kaplan-Meier survival plot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What plot categorizes continuous data into a number of categories?

A

Histogram.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What chart can show comparison between categories?

A

Bar chart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What does a scatter plot show?

A

The association or relationship between two continuous variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What chart can represent 3 categories across 4 wards?

A

Frequency Curve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the validity of a tool when its result correlates with a future outcome?

A

Predictive validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does concurrent validity measure?

A

The agreement of a new instrument with a currently valid scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does content validity measure?

A

Whether the contents of an instrument align with its intended purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What’s a common medication for child depression?

A

Fluoxetine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

12-year-old with 12-month tics + ADHD?

A

Clonidine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Child on methylphenidate develops tics; consider what?

A

Atomoxetine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Tourette’s, no ADHD/OCD, first-line treatment?

A

CBIT (Comprehensive Behavioural Intervention for Tics).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Tourette’s + ADHD, second-line medication?

A

Alpha-2 agonists (e.g., clonidine or guanfacine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Tourette’s + OCD, first-line treatment?

A

CBT (Cognitive Behavioural Therapy).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Best first step for aggressive behaviour in intellectual disability (ID)?

A

Functional behaviour assessment/analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does functional assessment assess?

A

Behavior, situations, consequences, and reinforcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Male to female ratio for Tourette’s?

A

3:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

ICD-11/DSM-5, ADHD symptoms must be before what age?

A

12 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

First-line OCD med for child if sertraline not an option?

A

Fluvoxamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

16-year-old OCD + depression, first-line medication?

A

Fluoxetine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

UK-licensed SSRIs for child OCD?

A
  • Sertraline (from 6yo)
  • Fluvoxamine (from 8yo)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why not paroxetine for children with OCD?

A

Not recommended for this age group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

First-line treatment for paraphilia with compulsive sexual preoccupation, OCD?

A

SSRI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What to do after SSRI + CBT for OCD ineffective?

A

Switch SSRI or try Clomipramine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

NICE guideline for severe, refractory OCD?

A

Anterior Cingulotomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What if anterior cingulotomy not an option?

A

Consider DBS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Besides OCD, what else can DBS treat?

A
  • Tourette’s
  • Dystonia
  • Parkinson’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Vivid dreams, increased appetite, dysphoria suggest withdrawal from what?

A

Cocaine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the symptoms of amphetamine withdrawal?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Hypersomnia
  • Psychomotor changes
  • Increased appetite
  • Vivid dreams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the first-line medication for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is considered when ingulotomy is not an option?

A

Consider DBS.

DBS stands for Deep Brain Stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Besides OCD, what else can DBS treat?

A

Tourette’s, dystonia, Parkinson’s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What withdrawal symptoms suggest withdrawal from cocaine?

A

Vivid dreams, increased appetite, dysphoria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the symptoms of amphetamine withdrawal?

A

Fatigue, hypersomnia, psychomotor changes, increased appetite, vivid dreams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Psychosis is possible in withdrawal from which drugs?

A

Alcohol, benzodiazepines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Which substance has the least risk of dependence?

A

LSD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What do tactile hallucinations and jaw rigidity suggest?

A

Abuse of ketamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are common features of amphetamine-induced psychosis?

A

Paranoia, visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What substance causes long-term cognitive deficits, specifically sustained attention?

A

Cocaine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is Mephedrone chemically?

A

Synthetic cathinone drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the best predictor of gaming addiction in youth?

A

Novelty-seeking behaviour.

134
Q

What is important before starting detoxification?

A

Take detailed history.

135
Q

Which brain imaging finding is typical in chronic alcohol abuse?

A

Enlargement of the lateral ventricles.

136
Q

What is the common radiological finding in alcohol-related dementia?

A

Generalised cortical atrophy.

137
Q

What condition is linked to homemade red wine and damages the corpus callosum?

A

Marchiafava-Bignami syndrome.

138
Q

What is an antecedent in behavioral terms?

A

A stimulus that cues a learned behavior.

139
Q

What are the key characteristics of Cri du Chat Syndrome?

A

Noisy infant with hypertelorism, microcephaly, hypotonia, moderate ID.

140
Q

What is hypertelorism?

A

Increased distance between eyes.

141
Q

What common behavioral issue is seen in Fragile X syndrome?

A

Hyperactivity and cluttering speech.

142
Q

What mutation is seen in Rett Syndrome?

A

Mutation in MECP2 gene.

143
Q

What is the usual progression for Rett syndrome?

A

Regression of speech and motor skills, seizures, growth issues.

144
Q

What is the age of the child with epilepsy and language of 6 years in Landau Kleffner Syndrome?

145
Q

What is the gender distribution for Prader Willi syndrome?

146
Q

What other disorder shares the same gender distribution as Prader Willi syndrome?

A

Child OCD and Bipolar disorder.

147
Q

What is the first step for aggressive behavior in ID?

A

Functional behavior assessment/analysis.

148
Q

What is the initial medication for ID girl hitting stomach during menstruation?

A

Ibuprofen.

149
Q

What is the most appropriate option if an ID patient refuses a blood test?

A

Benzodiazepines or distraction.

150
Q

What is the principle of moving patients from institution to community?

A

Normalization.

151
Q

What does DBT comprise?

A

A hierarchy of goals.

152
Q

How should you ask a child about trauma?

A

Ask the child directly.

153
Q

What does behavioral activation assess in depression?

A

Degree of avoidance.

154
Q

Which therapy focuses on interpersonal relationships/social milieu?

A

Interpersonal Therapy (IPT).

155
Q

What is an element of motivational interviewing?

A

Cognitive dissonance amplification.

156
Q

What is a correct statement about transference?

A

Explained by the mechanism of sublimation.

157
Q

Which antipsychotic is best for eGFR < 5?

A

Olanzapine.

158
Q

Which antipsychotics should be avoided in renal impairment?

A

Sulpiride and Amisulpride.

159
Q

When should you use Memantine with caution?

A

eGFR 53, history of epilepsy.

160
Q

What is the first-line antipsychotic for psychosis in epilepsy?

A

Haloperidol.

161
Q

Which antidepressants should be avoided with Tamoxifen?

A

Paroxetine and Fluoxetine.

162
Q

What are CYP2D6 inhibitors?

A

Bupropion, Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Fluoxetine.

163
Q

What should be done if QTc is over 500 ms?

A

Reduce the dose and consider referral to cardiology.

164
Q

What favors psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES)?

A

Side-to-side head movements.

165
Q

What is a predictor of long-term cognitive impairment after TBI?

A

Duration of post-traumatic amnesia (PTA).

166
Q

What common psychiatric issue follows TBI?

167
Q

What differs Bulimia from Anorexia?

A

Poor impulse control.

168
Q

What is the first-line treatment for bulimia?

A

Guided self-help.

169
Q

What should be the next step for BDD if Sertraline 200mg has no effect?

A

Augment sertraline with buspirone.

170
Q

What disorder involves sudden aphonia after stress?

A

Motor dissociative disorder.

171
Q

How does Bipolar I differ between sexes?

A

Men have higher suicide rates.

172
Q

What is the worst prognostic factor in psychosis?

A

Insidious onset.

173
Q

What is an early symptom in young-onset schizophrenia?

A

Disorganized behavior, increased negative symptoms.

174
Q

What is the best predictor for response to ECT?

A

Psychotic depression.

175
Q

What is the first-line treatment for affective stupor?

A

Lorazepam.

176
Q

What is an absolute contraindication for rTMS?

A

Cochlear implant.

177
Q

What is the most common comorbidity in gender dysphoria?

A

Mood disorders.

178
Q

What is the duration of cyclothymia?

179
Q

What is true about treating first episode psychosis?

A

Lower antipsychotic doses are effective.

180
Q

What is the usual first-line medication for first episode psychosis?

A

Antipsychotic monotherapy.

181
Q

What is the best universal prevention against alcohol dependence?

A

Increase price.

182
Q

What is one of Nolan’s key QI questions?

A

What are we trying to accomplish?

183
Q

What is the minimum time to withdraw mood stabilizer?

A

4 weeks/1 month.

184
Q

What is the prevalence of postnatal depression in developed countries?

185
Q

What is Tay-Sachs?

A

Rare autosomal recessive disorder; deficiency of Beta-N-acetylhexosaminidase A.

186
Q

What kind of disorder is PKU?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder.

187
Q

What causes PKU?

A

Deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH).

188
Q

What are key features of untreated PKU?

A

Microcephaly, language delay, hypopigmentation, hyperactivity, severe LD, self-injury, musty odour.

189
Q

What symptoms are seen in a four-year-old Indian boy with PKU?

A

Epilepsy, severe mental retardation, behavioral problems, lack of pigment in skin and hair.

190
Q

What is a key clinical triad of Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and confusion.

191
Q

Which test is useful for identifying Korsakoff’s?

A

Address and recall test.

192
Q

What type of memory is most affected by ECT?

A

Retrograde (explicit) memory.

193
Q

What causes fluctuating memory loss typical for which type of dementia?

A

Lewy Body Dementia (LBD).

194
Q

What cardiac malformations are linked to paroxetine use in pregnancy?

A

ASD and VSD.

195
Q

What is the recommendation for lithium dosage before delivery?

A

Suspend 24-48 hours before, check level 12 hours after last dose.

196
Q

How often should lithium be monitored during pregnancy if continued?

A

Every 4 weeks until 34 weeks, then weekly until 2 weeks post-partum.

197
Q

What is ‘healthy entrant bias’?

A

Study participants are healthier than the general population, affecting findings.

198
Q

What is characterized by acts of threats, humiliation, and intimidation to harm?

A

Coercive control.

199
Q

What is the gender ratio for OCD?

200
Q

What is an example of an immature defense mechanism?

A

Identification.

201
Q

What is the first-line treatment for ODD?

A

Parenting skills training.

202
Q

What is a key difference between PTSD and malingered PTSD with nightmares?

A

Malingered PTSD: exact same dream nightly; PTSD: varying dreams.

203
Q

What is the term for pathological lying with a mix of truth and lies?

A

Pseudologia fantastica.

204
Q

What type of treatment should be offered to a young person with mild depression after a period of watchful waiting?

A

Group CBT.

205
Q

What should be the first-line antidepressant for a 13-year-old?

A

Fluoxetine.

206
Q

What is the incremental cost formula for QALY?

A

Difference in cost x 52 weeks for 1 year of placement.

207
Q

Which economic analysis uses QALYs?

A

Cost-utility analysis.

208
Q

What is the first phase of CAT?

A

Exploration of traps, dilemmas, and snags.

209
Q

What should be the first line antidepressant for a 13-year-old?

A

Fluoxetine

210
Q

What is the incremental cost formula for QALY?

A

Difference in cost x 52 weeks for 1 year of placement

211
Q

Which economic analysis uses QALYs?

A

Cost-utility analysis

212
Q

What is the first phase of CAT (Cognitive Analytic Therapy)?

A

Exploration of traps, dilemmas, and snags

213
Q

What is the ethical document guiding human research?

A

Helsinki Declaration or Belmont Report

214
Q

In qualitative research, what is bracketing?

A

Setting aside researcher preconceptions

215
Q

What is ‘member checking’ or respondent validation?

A

Comparing researcher’s account with research participants

216
Q

What statistical measure is used to assess heterogeneity in a meta-analysis?

A

I-squared (I²) statistic

217
Q

Which method of randomization ensures more or less equal sample sizes in a study?

A

Block randomization

218
Q

What is the purpose of stratification in a study?

A

To control for confounding factors

219
Q

What analysis technique reduces the impact of dropouts?

A

Intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis

220
Q

What is the method of qualitative data collection that explores subjective experiences?

A

Phenomenological research

221
Q

In family therapy, which approach uses the concept of circular questioning?

A

Systemic family therapy

222
Q

What medication worsens hallucinations in Parkinson’s?

223
Q

What medication is indicated to treat psychosis in LBD?

A

Rivastigmine

224
Q

What does paroxetine cause in late pregnancy?

A

Irritability in the neonate

225
Q

What medication is associated with pancreatitis?

A

Sodium valproate

226
Q

What medication can cause hypercalcemia?

227
Q

What drug reduces seizure duration in ECT?

A

Chlordiazepoxide

228
Q

Which antidepressant is usually used first line in adolescent depression?

A

Fluoxetine

229
Q

What is the choice of medication for alcohol withdrawal in a patient taking tramadol?

A

Acamprosate

230
Q

What syndrome is associated with self-hugging, self-injury, and sleep disturbance with moderate LD?

A

Smith-Magenis syndrome

231
Q

What syndrome presents with self-harm, spasticity, choreiform movements, and microcephaly?

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

232
Q

What is the term for increased sensibility to stimuli?

A

Hyperesthesia

233
Q

What is the term for pain due to a normally non-painful stimulus?

234
Q

What is the term for decreased sensibility to stimuli?

A

Hypoesthesia

235
Q

What is the first step in DBT treatment after pre-preparation?

A

Reducing life-threatening behaviors

236
Q

What do you do for a patient on flupentixol and procyclidine for 20 years?

A

Consider reducing flupentixol, then consider tetrabenazine. Stop procyclidine if not needed

237
Q

What is a feature of drug-induced Parkinsonism vs. Parkinson’s disease?

A

Drug-induced parkinsonism is usually symmetrical

238
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for vascular dementia?

A

Hypertension

239
Q

What is a difference in development between autism and schizophrenia?

A

In autism, development is never normal. In schizophrenia, it is normal or near-normal

240
Q

What stimulant use by the mother can cause a newborn to be jittery?

241
Q

What is catamenial epilepsy?

A

Worsening of seizures related to the menstrual cycle

242
Q

The most common cause of mild learning disability is?

A

Unknown cause

243
Q

What is the risk of social anxiety in childhood?

A

Increased risk of substance misuse in adulthood

244
Q

How to differentiate MCI and Dementia?

A

Informant assessment of ADLs (activities of daily living)

245
Q

What is the most likely electrolyte abnormality in a refeeding anorexic patient?

A

Hypophosphatemia

246
Q

A patient with a non-dominant parietal stroke, what are the symptoms?

A

Contralateral hemi-spatial neglect, dressing apraxia, construction apraxia, and anosognosia

247
Q

Which is the least psychologically addictive substance?

248
Q

What are the most common causes of drug-induced pancreatitis?

A

Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers

249
Q

What symptoms do you see in a patient using PCP?

A

Violent behavior, dysarthria, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia

250
Q

What are the key symptoms of opioid toxicity and withdrawal?

A

Respiratory depression, use of accessory muscles, tachycardia, hypotension. Use naloxone

251
Q

What technique is used when a therapist confronts a client about missing details in a conversation?

A

Confrontation

252
Q

What technique is used when a therapist seeks clarification on a client’s statements?

A

Clarification

253
Q

What is the diagnosis for an 8-year-old with 6-month eye blinking, grimacing, obscene words/gestures, resolved after 3 months?

A

Transient tic disorder

254
Q

How long should tics persist to be considered a transient tic disorder?

A

Symptoms must be present for less than 12 months

255
Q

What is most likely to prevent an adult shoplifter from reoffending?

A

Appearance in court is the most effective deterrent

256
Q

Which disorder is least likely associated with shoplifting?

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder is the least common comorbid condition

257
Q

What are some common comorbidities with shoplifting?

A
  • Depression
  • Substance misuse
  • Personality disorders
258
Q

What is kleptomania?

A

Kleptomania is an impulse control disorder marked by compulsive stealing

259
Q

What is the suicide risk within 1 year after a self-harm attempt?

A

0.7% (0.5% in females, 1.1% in males)

260
Q

What is the increased risk of suicide following a self-harm attempt?

A

Suicide risk increases 66x compared to the general population

261
Q

In an eating disorder, what is the most immediately life-threatening sign?

A

Severe dehydration is the most critical

262
Q

What is the risk associated with a heart rate of 50 bpm in eating disorders?

A

Heart rate 50 bpm in eating disorders is considered amber risk

263
Q

How much does Alzheimer’s risk increase from age 65 to 85?

A

The risk increases approximately 16 times

264
Q

How much is the risk of dementia higher at age 85 than at 65?

A

Dementia risk is 4x higher at age 85 compared to age 65

265
Q

How long is amphetamine detectable in urine?

A

Amphetamine is detectable up to 48 hours

266
Q

What is a common symptom of ketamine abuse?

A

Urinary frequency, urgency, and hematuria can occur

267
Q

What are common symptoms of cocaine intoxication?

A
  • Ischemic changes
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
268
Q

What effect does long-term cocaine use have on attention?

A

Long-term cocaine use can impair sustained attention

269
Q

What is the purpose of a urine drug screen (UDS) in treatment?

A

UDS monitors treatment compliance and detects relapses

270
Q

What is a common cause of neonatal jitteriness related to substance use?

A

Heroin use is a common cause of substance-related jitteriness in babies

271
Q

What psychiatric disorder is most associated with DiGeorge syndrome?

A

Schizophrenia is the most commonly associated condition

272
Q

What can lead to cleft palate and developmental delay in babies?

A

Antenatal sodium valproate exposure is a strong risk factor

273
Q

What are the signs of fetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  • Microcephaly
  • Growth deficits
  • Developmental delay
274
Q

What are the genetic inheritance mechanisms for Down’s syndrome?

A
  • Trisomy 21
  • Mosaicism
  • Robertsonian translocation
275
Q

What inheritance type does Lesch-Nyhan follow?

A

Lesch-Nyhan follows an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern

276
Q

What correlation is used for two binary variables?

A

Phi coefficient is used for two binary variables

277
Q

What statistical test compares weight before and after in the same people?

A

A paired t-test is used for within-subject comparisons

278
Q

What tests are used for comparing cholesterol levels in three groups?

A
  • ANOVA if no adjustment
  • ANCOVA with adjustment
279
Q

What does the likelihood ratio for a negative test (LR-) indicate?

A

Probability of a negative test in those with vs. without the disease

280
Q

What is the formula for calculating the likelihood ratio for a negative test?

A

(1 - Sensitivity) / Specificity

281
Q

What is the likelihood ratio of a negative test if sensitivity is 60% and specificity is 80%?

282
Q

What does a high beta value in path analysis indicate?

A

A high beta suggests a strong association between the variables

283
Q

What type of bias does Intention-To-Treat control?

A

ITT analysis controls for attrition bias

284
Q

What is the most conservative approach in ITT when handling missing data?

A

Worst-case scenario is the most conservative approach

285
Q

What is statistical power used to determine?

A

Power is used to determine sample size

286
Q

Which analysis measures results in monetary terms?

A

Cost-benefit analysis measures results in monetary terms

287
Q

What does a forest plot arrowhead indicate?

A

An arrowhead on a forest plot indicates point estimate imprecision

288
Q

What does a ROC curve show?

A

A ROC curve shows the balance between sensitivity and specificity

289
Q

Which test has the best specificity in SCQ, SRS, CCQ?

A

SCQ has more specificity than SRS and CCQ

290
Q

What does a high correlation coefficient indicate?

A

A high correlation indicates a strong linear association

291
Q

What statistical method is used to fill in missing values using observed data?

A

Multiple Imputation fills missing data by using observed data

292
Q

What is the likely cause of 6th nerve palsy and fluctuating consciousness in an elderly patient?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a possibility

293
Q

What part of the brain is implicated in snout reflex/frontal release signs?

A

The frontal lobe is implicated in frontal release signs

294
Q

What is the term for pain with light touch?

A

Allodynia is pain with non-painful stimuli

295
Q

What is the strongest link of clozapine?

A

Sedation & motivation are associated with clozapine use

296
Q

A patient on clozapine still has hallucinations, what is the next step?

A

Assess medication adherence first

297
Q

What type of drug lowers seizure duration during ECT?

A

Benzodiazepines and anticonvulsants lower seizure duration

298
Q

Which medication is contraindicated for community initiation due to risk?

A

Clozapine has caution in initiation due to risks

299
Q

What is the risk of citalopram in a person with a history of seizures?

A

Citalopram can lower the seizure threshold in patients

300
Q

What is a common side effect of mirtazapine that could cause patients to leave a study?

A

Mirtazapine can cause adverse effects leading to study withdrawal

301
Q

Which medication can cause Torsades de Pointes?

A

Some medications can cause Torsades de Pointes; check BNF/local policy

302
Q

Which dementia has REM sleep behavior disorder as a core feature?

A

Lewy body dementia includes REM sleep behavior disorder

303
Q

What increases the risk of developing depression in epilepsy?

A

Complex partial seizures increase the risk of depression

304
Q

Which mental health condition was statistically significant in COVID and mental health outcome studies?

A

Schizophrenia was the only significant mental health outcome

305
Q

What predicts first episode psychosis (FEP)?

A

Frequency of cannabis use is the most significant predictor of FEP

306
Q

Which religious group has the lowest rates of suicide?

A

Roman Catholics aged 55-74 had lower suicide rates in a specific study

307
Q

What is the most common condition seen in mental health rehabilitation services?

A

Psychotic disorder is the most common diagnosis

308
Q

Which is the best antidepressant for narcolepsy to help with cataplexy?

A

Antidepressants are used to treat cataplexy in narcolepsy

309
Q

What is the first-line medication for a child with aggression not responding to non-pharmacological measures?

A

Risperidone can be considered for aggression if first-line measures fail

310
Q

Which factor distinguishes prolonged grief from depression?

A

Excessive guilt is more common in depression than grief

311
Q

What is blinding used to prevent?

A

Blinding is used to minimize measurement bias

312
Q

Which randomization strategy aims for balanced groups?

A

Block randomization is used to balance groups in studies

313
Q

What is minimization used for in randomization?

A

Minimization aims to balance confounders between groups

314
Q

When does selection bias occur?

A

Selection bias occurs when the sample is not representative

315
Q

When does information bias occur?

A

Information bias happens with flawed data collection

316
Q

What are types of sampling methods in qualitative studies?

A
  • Purposive
  • Snowball
  • Case studies
317
Q

What is the primary purpose of a clinical audit?

A

Clinical audit is used to check a service’s performance

318
Q

What step is omitted in an audit if change is not implemented after the initial audit?

A

Implementing a change

319
Q

What occurs when the sample is not representative?

A

Selection bias occurs when the sample is not representative.

Selection bias can lead to inaccurate conclusions in research.

320
Q

When does _______ occur?

A

Information bias happens with flawed data collection.

Information bias can result from poor survey design or data entry errors.

321
Q

What are types of _______ methods in qualitative studies?

A

Purposive, snowball, and case studies are used in qualitative studies.

These methods help researchers gather in-depth insights from specific populations.

322
Q

What is the primary purpose of a _______ audit?

A

Clinical audit is used to check a service’s performance.

Clinical audits help in maintaining and improving quality in healthcare services.

323
Q

What step is omitted in an audit if change is not _______ after the initial audit?

A

Implementing a change after the initial cycle is important.

Without implementation, the audit process becomes ineffective.

324
Q

Which type of validity uses a _______ validated measure?

A

Concurrent validity correlates to a previously validated measure.

This type of validity helps establish the reliability of new instruments.

325
Q

Which type of validity measures a prediction of _______ difference?

A

Predictive validity looks at future group differences in a study.

It assesses the effectiveness of tests in predicting outcomes.

326
Q

Which type of validity is measured when testing a score against itself over _______?

A

Test-retest validity assesses the stability of the test over time.

This type of validity is crucial for ensuring consistency in measurements.

327
Q

Which sampling allocates participants based on _______?

A

Stratification sampling allocates based on group characteristics.

This method ensures representation from various subgroups within the population.

328
Q

What is most important in _______ risk assessment?

A

Dynamic risk factors are most important in short-term assessment.

These factors can change rapidly and influence immediate risk levels.

329
Q

What increases the risk of _______ in prison?

A

Being on remand increases suicide risk in prison.

Remand prisoners often experience higher levels of distress and uncertainty.

330
Q

What is the first-line treatment for an opioid overdose with _______ depression?

A

Naloxone is the first-line treatment.

Naloxone quickly reverses the effects of opioid overdoses.

331
Q

What is a goal of _______ psychotherapy?

A

Hypothesizing is a goal of systemic therapy.

This approach encourages understanding the dynamics within relationships.

332
Q

What is considered to be a primary _______ mechanism?

A

Repression is considered to be a primary defense mechanism.

Repression involves unconsciously blocking out painful or distressing thoughts.