Sepsis/SIRS Flashcards
Why do owners need to wear gloves when giving Chloramphenicol?
May cause idiosyncratic aplastic anemia
Which ampicillin is antipseudomonal penicillin?
Piperacillin-tazobactam
True or False: Most of the NE produced by adrenal glands are converted to epinephrine after being released to the blood stream.
True
About 80% NE are converted to epinephrine
Name a condition when “spillover” of NE can be observed.
Heart failure
where chronically elevated sympathetic tone cause NE “spillover” from the synaptic cleft into the bloodstream.
What are the two major pre-synaptic adrenoreceptors?
𝜶2A/D - inhibitory effect
𝜷2 - stimulatory effect
What are the 9 subtypes adrenoreceptors?
𝜶1A, 𝜶1B, 𝜶1D
𝜶2A/D, 𝜶2B, 𝜶2C
𝜷1, 𝜷2, 𝜷3
True or False: 𝜶1 receptors generally have stronger affinity to epinephrine than NE, while 𝜶2 receptors are the opposite.
False
True or False: 𝜷1 receptors have equal affinity to epinephrine and NE, while 𝜷2 receptors have much stronger affinity to epinephrine than NE.
True
𝜷2 receptors are pretty much exclusively to Epi
True or False: In most tissues, 𝜶1 receptor subtypes are junctional, and 𝜶2 receptor subtypes are extra-junctional.
True
Which 𝜶2 receptor subtypes locate at the pre-synaptic region and endothelium and cause vasodilation?
𝜶2A/D
Which G protein does 𝜶1, 𝜶2 and 𝜷 receptor subtypes usually couple with? are they stimulatory or inhibitory?
𝜶1: Gq/11 protein → activate phospholipase C → release non-mitochondrial intracellular Ca stores
𝜶2: Gi protein → inhibits adenylate cyclase → inhibit conversion of cAMP from ATP → inhibits protein kinase A → inhibit voltage-gated Ca channels
𝜷: Gs protein → activates adenylate cyclase → convert ATP to cAMP → activates protein kinase A → open voltage-gated Ca channels
True or False: 𝜶1A/D receptors are responsible for large arterial vasoconstriction, and 𝜶1B receptors are responsible for smaller arteries and arterioles as well as induces vascular smooth muscle growth and/or hypertrophy.
True
What is the main difference in the 𝜶 receptor subtypes distribution between artery and venous?
Artery: 𝜶1 receptors are junctional and 𝜶2 receptors are extra-junctional
Venous: 𝜶2 receptors are junctional and 𝜶1 receptors are extra-junctional → 𝜶2 receptors is the predominate one managing vasoconstriction
Which adrenoreceptors on the endothelium stimulate NO production and subsequent vasodilation?
𝜶2A/D
What is the density of 𝜶1 receptor subtypes on the myocardium compared to 𝜷?
𝜶1A receptor subtypes 10-15% of 𝜷 receptors
𝜶1A receptor subtypes is responsible for about 25% of inotropy
True or False: 𝜷1 receptors activation at the heart increase inotropy (contractility), chronotropy (HR), lusitropy (relaxation) and dromotropy (AV node conduction).
True
What is the effect of 𝜷 receptors at the vascular system?
Vasodilation
What is the effect of 𝜶 receptors and 𝜷 receptors on the coronary system?
𝜶 receptors - vasoconstriction
𝜷 receptors - vasodilation
What is the predominant 𝜷 receptor subtypes on the endothelium?
𝜷2 receptor
Stimulation of which adrenoreceptors will cause renin release? which one will cause inhibition of renin release?
𝜷1 → renin release
𝜶2 → inhibition of renin release
Both receptors locate at JXA
What is the role of 𝜷-agonist receptor kinase (𝜷-ARK).
When 𝜷 receptors are activated, 𝜷-ARK are activated to catalyze the 𝜷 receptors
Sustained stimulation of 𝜷 receptors → lots of 𝜷-ARK → 𝜷 receptors down regulation (both 1&2)
The remaining 𝜷 receptors will become uncoupled
Uncoupled 𝜷1: mediate myocardial apoptosis
Uncoupled 𝜷2: inhibit apoptosis
Rank the following effects on each receptor
Drug: Dobutamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Phenylephrine
𝜶1&2
𝜷1
𝜷2
𝜶1&2: Epi = NE = phenylephrine > Dobutamine (weak)
𝜷1: Epi > Dobutamine > NE (weak) > phenylephrine (none)
𝜷2: Epi > Dobutamine (weak)> Epi (none) = phenylephrine (none)
True or False: When 𝜶 agonist is used alone, it can decrease cardiac output.
True
How does vasopressin increase blood pressure (3 mechanisms)?
1) Bind to V1 receptor → increase intracellular Ca level via phosphatidylinositol-bisphosphonate cascade
2) Bind to V1 receptor → inhibit IL-𝜷 induced production of NO and cGMP, as well as iNOS mRNA expression
3) Blocks K+-sensitive ATP channels (normally activated with endotoxemia) → decreasing the amount of K+ flux and subsequently opening the voltage-dependent Ca channels → increase intracellular Ca level
Comparing the dopamine and norepinephrine, what dopamine is not recommended as first-line vasopressor?
- Unreliable effects with different doses
- Patients on dopamine had higher rate of tachyarrhythmias and mortality rate.
- Dopamine also failed to normalize BP in 40% ppl with septic shock.
In the study published by River and colleagues on NEJM in 2001 about the Early goal-directed therapy, what was the time frame and what were the goals they set to achieve?
Within 6 hours
CVP ≥ 8-12 mmHg
MAP ≥ 65 mmHg
SCVO2 ≥ 70%
UOP ≥ 0.5 ml/kg/hr
- Interventions: IV crystalloid bolus (20-30 ml/kg over 30 minutes), vasopressor, dobutamine, RBC transfusion, mechanical ventilation PRN
In the clinical trails associated with EGDT, what were the conclusions for ProCESS, ARISE and ProMISe studies?
- Three nails in the coffin of EGDT
ProCESS
- NEJM 2014
- 1351 patients
- Three groups: EGDT, Protocol-based standard therapy by dedicated team, usual care group (no dedicated team)
- Primary outcome: 60-day mortality → NO difference
- Secondary outcome: 90-day & 1-year mortality → NO difference
ARISE
- NEJM 2014
- 1600 patients
- Two groups: EGDT vs Control
- Primary outcome: 90-day mortality → no difference
- Secondary outcome: higher vasopressor requirement in EGDT group
ProMISE
- NEJM 2015
- 1260 patients
- Two groups: EGDT vs Control
- Primary outcome:
- Secondary outcome: 90-day mortality → no difference
What is the definition of sepsis in 2016 Sepsis-3?
Life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by
dysregulated host response to infection.
NO MORE severe sepsis
According to the 2016 Sepsis-3, how is the organ dysfunction determined?
Acute change in total SOFA score ≥ 2 points
Write down the SOFA scoring system.
Cardiovascular - MAP & vasopressor
Respiratory - PaO2/FiO2
Neurological - MGCS
Renal - creatinine
Hepatic - bilirubin
Hematologic - platelet
0-4 for each category, the higher the worse
What are the components of qSOFA?
Altered mental status (GCS ≤ 15)
SAP ( ≤ 100mmHg)
Respiratory rate (≥ 22 brpm)
Score of ≥ 2 out of 3 suggests a greater risk or poorer outcome
In 2016 Sepsis-3, what is the definition septic shock?
A subset of sepsis in which underlying circulatory and cellular/metabolic abnormalities are profound enough to substantially increase mortality.
What are the 4 clinical criteria for septic shock in 2016 Sepsis-3?
1) Sepsis
2) Adequate volume resuscitation
3) Vasopressor dependent hypotension (need it to maintain MAP ≥ 65 mmHg)
4) Lactate > 2 mmol/L
a clinical construct of sepsis with persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP ≥65 mm Hg and having a serum lactate level >2 mmol/L (18 mg/dL) despite adequate volume resuscitation.
According to the 2018 The Surviving Sepsis Campaign Bundle, What are the 5 tasks that need to be accomplished with 1 hour?
1) Measure the Lactate. If lactate > 2 mmol/L, reassess
2) Obtain blood sample for blood culture
3) Administration broad-spectrum antibiotic
4) IV crystalloid 30 ml/kg as fluid resuscitation for hypotension or if lactate > 4 mmol/L
5) Start vasopressor is patient is still hypotensive after fluid resuscitation to maintain MAP ≥ 65 mmHg
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, if a patient is shocky and sepsis is possible, what is the timing to administer antibiotic?
Within an hour of recognization
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is their recommendation for using qSOFA as a single tool to screen for sepsis, septic shock?
Against
According to 2016 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is the recommended fluid resuscitation plan for hypotensive patient?
30 ml/kg crystalloid within 3 hours of recognization
True or False: According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, it is recommended to use procalcitonin plus clinical evaluation to decide when to start antibiotics.
False
Against the use of procalcitonin to decide the starting time, but can be used to decide when to d/c antibiotic when optimal duration is unknown
According to 2016 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is the recommendation for 𝜷-lactam administration in septic or septic shock patients?
Prolonged infusion
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is their recommendation for restrictive vs liberal fluid strategies in the first 24 hours of resuscitation?
No conclusion - insufficient evidence
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is their recommendation for recruitment maneuver?
It is recommended to use the traditional one, but the incremental PEEP/titration strategy is NOT recommended
- “traditional” recruitment maneuver consists of the application of sustained continuous positive airway pressure (e.g., 30–40 cm H2O for 30–40 s),
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is their recommendation for restrictive vs liberal transfusion strategies?
Restrictive transfusion strategy is recommended
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is their recommendation for pharmacologic venous thromboembolism prophylaxis?
Recommended
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is the threshold to start insulin therapy?
When BG ≥ 180 mg/dL
According to 2021 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines for sepsis & septic shock management, what is the indication for sodium bicarbonate administration?
Severe metabolic acidosis (pH ≤ 7.2) and AKI
What are the two structures that mammalian cells have but bacterial cell walls do not?
Cholesterol
Phospholipid
What are the two major classes of antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)?
Defensins
Cathelicidins
- AMPs comprise 3 main groups:
- digestive enzymes and peptides that disrupt the microbial cell membrane
- peptides that bind essential elements
- peptides that act as decoys for microbial attachment
List 5 PAMPs and 5 DAMPs.
PAMPs
- Gram (+): lipotechoic acids, flagellin, peptidoglycan, mannose-rich sugar
- Gram (-): LPS, porin in the outer membrane, peptidoglycan, mannose-rich sugar, flagellin
- Acid-fast bacteria (e.g. Mycobacterium spp): mycolic acid, arabinogalactan, peptidoglycan fragments
- Bacterial and viral genomes (RNA, DNA)
- Fungal chitin
- Parasite: glycophosphatidylinositol (GPI)
- polysaccharides
- lipoprotein
DAMPs
- High mobility group box 1 protein (HMGB-1)
- DNA, RNA
- Histone
- ATP/ADP
- S 100 protein
- Heat shock protein
- Interleukin-1𝜶
- Heparan sulfate
- Hyaluronic acid
- Fibrinogen, Fibronectin
- surfactant A
- Ferritin
- Uric acid crystals
- Amyloid peptide
What are three major families of pattern recognizing receptors (PRRs)?
TLRs
NLRs
RLRs
NLRs
cytosolic PRRs that detect intracellular PAMPS and DAMPS and use the final pathways of MAPK and IKB to produce cytokines.
The other pathway they can use is the one activating INFLAMMASOMES –> caspase, IL1𝛽 and IL-18
List 6 cells/places you can find TLRs.
Dendritic cells
Endothelial cells
Macrophages
Lymphocyte B cells
Natural killer cells
Epithelial cells
Fibroblasts
What are the two most important TLRs?
TLR 2 & 4
Because they can recognize diverse PAMPs
What is the one structures from both Gram (+) and Gram (-) that NOD1 and NOD2 can recognize?
Peptidoglycans
True or False: Inflammasomes activate Caspase-1, and lead to the synthesis of IL-1𝜷 and IL-18.
True
What are the two cells that TNF-𝜶 predominately produced by?
Activated macrophage
T-cells
Pro-TNF is expressed on the cell membrane, and the cleaved by TNF-converting enzyme (TACE/ADAM17) → yield soluble and membrane-bound forms
What are the two main transcription factors that are activated by PRRs and subsequently activate transcriptions of various inflammatory mediators?
AP-1
NF-ĸB
What are the functions of TNF receptor 1 and 2, respectively?
TNFR-1: mediate the proinflammatory and apoptotic pathways associated with inflammation
TNFR-2: promotion of tissue repair and angiogenesis
List 4 functions of TNF-𝜶 on the endothelium which leads to the clinical signs of sepsis.
1) Increase production of iNOS and COX-2 → vasodilation
2) Increase expression of endothelial adhesion molecules (e.g. E-selectin, intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1), vascular cell adhesion molecule 1 (VCAM-1)) → facilitate leukocyte transmigration
3) Induce expression of procoagulant proteins (e.g. TF)
4) Down-regulate anticoagulant proteins(e.g. thrombomodulin)
Name 4 pro-inflammatory interleukins that NF-ĸB activates.
IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, IL-12
Anti-inflammatory response in sepsis
CARS
- solube cytokine receptors
- IL-10 and TGF𝛽
*HSP
Which interleukins can induce the production of IL-1 receptor antagonist protein (IRAP-1) and soluble TNFR?
IL-10 (anti-inflammatory)
List 8 characteristics of acute phase response.
Fever
Neutrophilia
Activation of coagulation cascade
Activation of complement cascade
Serum iron and zinc binding
Enhance gluconeogenesis
Increase muscle catabolism
Altered lipid metabolism
Name 4 negative acute phase proteins.
Albumin
Protein C
Protein S
Antithrombin
Adiponectin
Insulin-like growth factor-1
Transferrin
Apolipoprotein A
Retinol-binding protein
Cortisol-binding protein
Transthyretin
True or False: serum CRP concentrations provide a sensitive but nonspecific means of measuring inflammation.
True
What are the key steps in the disregulation of the coagulation cascade in sepsis?
- Tissue factor expression
- activation of contact pathway (via kallikrein system)
- impaired production of ADAMS13 (increased large vWf multimers)
- impaired fibrinoysis (increased PAI synthesis)
- dysfunction of endogenous anticoagulant (i.e. downregulation/degradation of protein C)
How do macrophages recognize apoptosis cell?
cell surface appearance of phosphatidylserine (PS)
List 4 positive acute phase proteins in dogs and cats.
C-Reactive protein
Pro-calcitonin
GSCF (granulocyte stimulating colony factor)
Haptoglobin
Serum amyloid A
𝜶1 acid glycoprotein
Dog: CRP
Cat: SAA
Where is procalcitonin normally produced? What about during sepsis?
Normal: thyroid gland C cells
Sepsis: mononuclear leukocytes
True or False: High-mobility group box 1 (HMGB1) is proinflammatory, can induce TF and inhibit protein C.
True
Produced from necrotic cells as DAMP but also actively secreted by cells stimulated by TNF𝛼
binds to TLR-2 and TLR-4 to amplify inglammatory response and recently investigated as biomarker in sepsis
During sepsis, how will the blood flow to the liver change?
Normal: portal vein 75% hepatic artery 25%
Sepsis: portal vein flow increase, hepatic artery flow decrease
List 3 mechanisms of liver dysfunction during sepsis.
1) Hypoxic injury (decrease flow from hepatic artery)
2) Glutamine deficiency → unhealthy GI tract → GI bacterial translocation to liver
3) GI tract-derived catecholamines arrive liver via portal vein → Kupffer celladrenoceptor activation → enhances production of TNF-α, IL-6, and NO
True or False: Sepsis-induced AKI is due to renal hypoperfusion.
False
It can also due to increased vasodilation (loss of gradient) or direct nephrotoxicity from the pro-inflammatory cytokines
What is the function of epithelial growth factor angiopoietin-1 (Ang-1) and angiopoietin-2 (Ang-2)?
Ang-1: enhances endothelial cell survival & promotes barrier integrity
Ang-2: promotes endothelial activation and dysfunction
Where is angiopoietin normally stored?
Weibel-Palade Bodies!
What are the three most important fever-producing cytokines?
IL-1
IL-6
TNF-𝜶
True or False: Exogenous pyrogen is the main pyrogens that cause fever.
False
Exogenous pyrogens do not cause fever. They induce endogenous pyrogens and endogenous pyrogens affect the thermoregulatory center.
For every 1 F increase in body temperature above normal range, how much percentage of calories and water intake increases?
7%
True or False: NSAID is used to treat true fever by blocking the endogenous pyrogens.
False
NSAIDs inhibit the chemical mediators of fever production and allow normal thermoregulation.
They DO NOT block endogenous pyrogens
What are the two prostaglandins that are responsible for fever?
PGE2
PGF2𝜶
What is the definition of nosocomial infection?
Infection develops at least 48 hours after hospital admission without proven prior incubation.
List 3 risk factors of developing nosocomial infection.
1) Prolonged hospitalization
2) Mechanical ventilation
3) Indwelling devices
True or False: Zoonoses diseases are more likely to be transmitted via indirect contact than direct contact.
True
How is G-CSF induced in the bone marrow?
Tissue macrophage release IL-23 → specific lymphocyte release IL-17 → G-CSF stimulated from the bone marrow stromal cells
What is the distribution of neutrophils in the circulating pool and marginated pool in dogs and cats, respectively?
Circulating pool: marginated pool
Dog: 1:1
Cat: 1:3
What is the definition of neutropenia in dogs and cats, respectively?
Dog: < 2900/uL
Cat: < 2000/uL
What type of cell does Ehrlichia canis infect?
Monocytes
List 5 drugs that can cause neutropenia.
1) Estrogen
2) Chemo drug (e.g. vincristine)
3) Methimazole
4) Phenobarbital
5) Azathioprine
What is PIRO stand for?
Predisposition
Insult/infection
Response
Organ dysfunction
The introduction of PIRO concept shifted the sepsis paradigm from ____ to ____
systemic inflammatory response
ORGAN FAILURE
List 5 anti-inflammatory cytokines.
IL-4
IL-10
IL-13
Transforming growth factor β
Glucocorticoid
What are the common site of Gram (-) bacterial infection? What about Gram (+)?
Gram (-): GI, urogenital
Gram (+): skin, injured soft tissue, IV site
What is the definition of cryptic shock?
Discrepancy between macrocirculation (systemic heomdynamics) and microcirculation
True or False: Normally, ScvO2 is slightly lower than SvO2, but during shock state, ScvO2 can be much higher than SvO2.
True
Due to redistribution of the blood flow and subsequent increased oxygen extraction ratio from the splanchnic circulation.
Does ScvO2 include myocardial perfusion?
No
What are Mycoplasma spp.?
Fastidious bacteria without cell wall
Non-hemotrophic vs Hemotrophic
True or False: Mycoplasmas are pathogenic bacteria and normally do not exist in dogs and cats.
False
They are normal flora in the upper respiratory tract of dogs and cats, and in the urogenital mucosa in dogs.
Why 𝜷-lactam is not effective in treating Mycoplasma?
No cell wall!
What is Actinomyces spp.? What about Nocardia spp.?Which one is normal flora in animals?
Actinomyces spp.: Gram (+), anaerobic/microaerobic bacteria
Nocardia spp.: Gram (+), aerobic bacteria
Actinomyces spp. is normal flora in animals
What is the characteristic cytological findings of Actinomyces and Nocardia infection?
suppurative to pyogranulomatous inflammation
What is the main structural component of gram (+) bacteria?
Peptidoglycan
Which group of Streptococcus causes the most Streptococcal infection in dogs and cats?
Group G (e.g. Streptococcus canis)
- It is also a normal microflora in dogs and cats
True or False: 𝜷 hemolytic streptococcal canis can cause hemolysis in dogs.
False
The definition of hemolytic or non-hemolytic is based on in vitro blood culture
What is the most common bacteria causing Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome and necrotizing fascitis/soft tissue infection in dogs and cats?
Group G 𝜷-hemolytic streptococcal canis
Describe the pathophysiology of STSS.
The infection typically begins with the bacteria entering the body through a wound, skin infection, or other portals of entry.
Streptococcus canis produces exotoxins, including superantigens, which play a crucial role in the development of TSS. These toxins can trigger an exaggerated immune response.
Superantigens bypass the usual immune processing and directly bind to MHC class II molecules on antigen-presenting cells and T-cell receptors, leading to massive, non-specific activation of T-cells.
The activation of a large number of T-cells results in the release of a massive amount of cytokines, including TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-
This “cytokine storm” leads to systemic inflammation, capillary leak, vasodilation, and ultimately, severe hypotension and shock.
Types of necrotizing soft tissue infactions (NSTIs)
- Type I: polymicrobial (most common in humans with >4 bacteria isolated)
- Type II: gram + monomicrobial (most common in dogs - Streptococcus canis)
- Type III: gram - monomicrobial (maritime organisms)
- Type IV: fungal infection (i.e. Candida)
What is an important consideration in the antimicrobial therapy of NSTIs?
stationary phase
when Strepto in high concentration stops replicating –> beta lactams not effective, so clynda much better choice
STSS
Do not use fluoroquinolones!!
Key intervention in STIs?
Surgical debridement ideally within 6h from diagnosis