Seminar 9 - Hepatobiliary Disease Flashcards

1
Q

List some of the common causes of acute liver failure

A

Common causes; accidental/deliberate paracetamol overdose, autoimmune hepatitis, other drugs and toxins, acute hep A and b infections ( E additionally in Asia)

Can also be idiopathic ( 15% of adult cases and 50% in peads

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2
Q

How does cholangiocarcinoma present

A

Very insidious
Indistinguishable with cholelithiasis symptoms
Very unlikely to preoperatively diagnose - usually found when operating on a sperate cause such as the gallstones

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3
Q

How do you manage hypoglycaemia

A

Iv glucose 10% at rate of 100ml/hr

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4
Q

Where is GGT found

A

Found in liver, pancreas, renal tubules and intestines

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5
Q

How does excess iron damage the liver

A

The excess iron causes free radical overproduction & overactivity
This creates reactive oxygen species which damage the liver and lead to cirrhosis

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6
Q

How does multi-organ failure occur in cases of acute liver failure

A

It occurs as the patients are in a hyperdynamic circulatory state in ALF (low systemic vascular resistance) which causes circulatory insufficiency and poor organ perfusion leading to failure
DIC may also play a role in the multi-organ failure

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7
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of the liver in Wilson’s disease

A

Variable hepatic changes (minor to massive damage)

Steatosis may be present with focal hepatocyte necrosis

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8
Q

What are RBCs broken down into

A

Haem and globin

Haem further broken down into bilirubin

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9
Q

Hepatopulmonary Syndrome is most common in which type of liver failure

A

More common in chronic

Can be seen in acute

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10
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma is most common in which age group

A

Approximately two-thirds of cholangiocarcinomas occur in patients between 50 and 70 years of age

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11
Q

What are cholangiocarcinomas

A

Cancers arising from the bile duct epithelium

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12
Q

Gallstones are most prevalent in which sex

A

More common in women

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13
Q

Where are the majority of cholangiocarcinomas found

A

most often detected in the fundus

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14
Q

Wilson’s disease requires lifelong treatment - true or false

A

True

It is chronic, progressive and requires life-long treatment

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15
Q

What is the biliary tree

A

The system of ducts that carries bile from the liver to either the gall bladder or the duodenum.

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16
Q

What is cholestasis

A

The reduction or stoppage of bile flow
Cholestasis is basically any condition in which substances normally excreted into bile are retained – usually causing damage

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17
Q

How do you treat a paracetamol overdose

A
Activated charcoal - if <4 hrs from acute OD
Otherwise NAC (N-acetylcysteine)
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18
Q

Which pattern of liver injury is caused by drugs like tamoxifen, irinotecan and methotrexate

A

A steatohepatitis-like pattern of injury

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19
Q

Around 10% of symptomatic gallstones will have cholecystitis - true or false

A

True

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20
Q

Chronic liver disease will always have what morphological features

A

All show varying degrees of fibrosis, injury, repair and regeneration

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21
Q

Which lab test results allow for a diagnosis of PBC

A

2 of the following features for diagnosis: raised ALP >6m, AMA +ve, characteristic histological findings

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22
Q

List the storage functions of the liver

A

Glycogen storage
Lipid-soluble vitamins A,D,E,K are stored in the liver, alongside vitamin B12
Iron and copper minerals are stored in the liver.

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23
Q

Which conditions can cause hepatic disease leading to jaundice

A

Many liver diseases such as cirrhosis or hepatitis

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24
Q

PSC is more common in which countries

A

PSC is more common in Northern Europe and North America compared with Southern Europe and Southeast Asia

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25
Q

What causes hyperoestrogenemia in liver failure

A

They will have impaired oestrogen metabolism leading to rising levels

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26
Q

What is the most common outcome for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Most sadly succumb to disease

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27
Q

What is the function of the gall bladder

A

It stores about 50 ml of bile which produced by the liver until the body needs it for digestion, at which point it release it

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28
Q

List common gallbladder diseases

A

Cholelithiasis - gallstones
Acute and chronic cholecystitis
Gallbladder cancer - cholangiocarcinoma

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29
Q

List hepatocellular causes of cholestasis

A

Causes within the liver
Includes: hepatitis, alcohol related liver disease, PBC, certain drugs, cholestasis of pregnancy and cancer that has spread to the liver

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30
Q

What is produced by the deconjugation of bilirubin in the colon

A

Urobilinogen

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31
Q

A mix of toxicity and immune mediated hepatocyte destruction is seen in which cause of acute liver failure

A

Hepatitis

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32
Q

Jaundice caused by unconjugated bilirubin is typically caused by what underlying issues

A

uptake and conjugation problems

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33
Q

What is prothrombin time a marker of

A

Liver function and blood coagulation

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34
Q

How do you treat cholecystitis

A

IV antibiotics and IV fluids
Nil by mouth
US to confirm diagnosis

May require an urgent cholecystectomy if a gallstone ileus

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35
Q

PSC is often associated with which other condition

A

Inflammatory bowel disease - typically UC
Around 2/3 of PSC patients will have it
Only 8% of UC patients have PSC though

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36
Q

List common causes of acute on chronic liver failure

A

Chronic hep b infection that’s either medically suppressed but there are now viral mutants not controlled by meds or a superimposed hep D infection on top of chronic hep B

Patients with chronic PSC or fibropolycystic disease with superimposed ascending cholangitis

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37
Q

How do you manage spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Piperacillin and tazobactam empirically then specific management.
If high risk given ciprofloxacin prophylactically

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38
Q

Which cancers can cause acute liver failure

A

Leukemia/lymphoma - 33%
Breast - 30%
Colon - 7%

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39
Q

To be classed as acute liver failure, what specification must be met

A

Symptoms must occur within 26 weeks of the liver injury

Typically occur within 8 weeks

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40
Q

What is a gallbladder empyema.

A

A type of cholecystitis where the exudate is virtually pure pus

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41
Q

Jaundice caused by conjugated bilirubin is typically caused by what underlying issues

A

Excretory issues

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42
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of the liver in haemochromatosis

A

Iron becomes evident first as golden-yellow hemosiderin granules in cytoplasm of periportal hepatocytes that stain with Prussian blue

You then get progressive deposition in the rest of lobule, bile duct epithelium, Kupffer cells

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43
Q

Hepatopulmonary syndrome can be treated by liver transplantation - true or false

A

True

If the liver is transplanted the lungs will return to normal within the following year

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44
Q

Some patients with chronic liver failure may be asymptomatic until their disease is advanced - true or false

A

True

This occurs in around 40% of patients

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45
Q

Describe the macroscopic signs of chronic cholecystitis

A

Features are variable and sometimes minimal
Serosa is usually smooth and glistening but maybe doubled by fibrosis
Fibrous adhesions represents prior acute inflammation
The wall is variably thickened and has an opaque grey white appearance
The mucosa itself is generally well preserved

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46
Q

The severity of liver damage in paracetamol overdose is dependent on what

A

The amount taken
The persons GSH reserves
Other medications - long term treatment with cytochrome P450 inducers

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47
Q

Describe the appearance of inflammation and necrosis as seen in alcoholic liver disease

A

Prominent neutrophils (can satellite around ballooned hepatocytes)
Common lymphocytic infiltrates
Spotty necrosis/apoptosis

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48
Q

Describe the clinical features of acalculus cholecystitis

A

Clinical symptoms cholecystitis tend to be more insidious since they are obscured by the underlying conditions precipitating the attack

It is harder to diagnose and therefore has a higher mortality

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49
Q

How does Wilson’s cause chronic liver damage

A

Excessive amounts of copper accumulate in liver This leads to fibrous/granular hardening in soft tissue of liver
Eventually results in cirrhosis

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50
Q

What causes haemochromatosis

A

Caused by excessive iron absorption, most of which is deposited in the liver & pancreas

Can be hereditary or secondary

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51
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to lipolysis

A

Fatty acids can undergo B-oxidation in the liver
They are used in TCA cycle or to make ketone bodies - energy
Occurs during stress and fasting

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52
Q

What causes cholestasis of pregnancy

A

hormonal effects on bile flow during pregnancy

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53
Q

Rapid onset acute liver failure is usually caused by what

A

A drug/ toxin ( i.e. paracetamol overdose)

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54
Q

Does conjugated bilirubin require albumin for transport

A

NO

It is water soluble

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55
Q

Which drugs can cause chronic liver failure

A
Amiodarone
Methotrexate
Isoniazid
Phenytoin
Nitrofurantoin
Methyldopa
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56
Q

What is happening to the incidence of biliary tumours

A

The reported incidence has increased in recent years

However, the increase is probably due to improvement in data collection and analysis.

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57
Q

Describe the structure of the gallbladder

A

A pear-shaped organ which is is about 7–10cm long and dark green in colour
Connects to the hepatobiliary system via the cystic duct
Has a muscular wall which contracts to release bile

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58
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of chronic cholecystitis

A

Does not have the striking manifestations of the acute form

It is usually characterized by recurrent attacks of steady epigastric or right upper quadrant pain

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59
Q

Nearly all Wilson’s disease patients with neurologic involvement develop eye lesions - true or false

A

True

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60
Q

What is the main regulator of iron absorption

A

Hepcidin

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61
Q

In the developed world, what are the most common causes of acute liver failure

A

Drug induced liver injury

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62
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin when it reaches the colon

A

It is deconjugated in the lumen of the colon by bacterial B-glucuronidases
This produces urobilinogen

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63
Q

What is the histopathologic definition of cholestasis

A

The appearance of bile within the elements of the liver, usually associated with secondary cell injury

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64
Q

What causes hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Caused by dilatation of intrapulmonary capillaries and pre-capillary vessels up to 500um in size
This is potentially caused by the diseased liver not clearing factors such as endothelin 1 that will stimulate endothelial cell production of vasodilators such as NO

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65
Q

Which canicular transport protein is responsible for the movement of phosphatidylcholine (main phospholipid)

A

Multi-drug resistance 3

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66
Q

How do you manage renal failure

A

Managed by renal team and may require haemodialysis/haemofiltration

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67
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma is most common in which sex

A

Slight male predominance

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68
Q

Which pattern of liver injury is caused by drugs like tetracycline, valproic acid and zidovudine

A

These drugs cause mitochondrial dysfunction which leads to microvesicular steatosis

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69
Q

Where is bilirubin produced

A

Majority is produced through the breakdown of RBC by reticuloendothelial macrophages in the spleen, liver and bone marrow.
The rest comes from turnover of proteins containing haem in the liver - P450 cytochromes

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70
Q

Smaller bile ducts are involved in PSC - true or false

A

False - ish
It typically affects the large and medium ducts
Smaller intra-hepatic ducts are not directly involved in inflammation but may have mild injury + prominent ductular reaction due to cholestasis.

You do get atypical cases of small-duct PSC!

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71
Q

Which conditions can cause reduced hepatic uptake of bilirubin

A

Drug interference

Seen in some Gilberts patients

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72
Q

Describe the natural history of Hep D

A

Occurs as a co-infection
Causes acute hepatitis which is self-limiting

Superinfection: 80% chronic HDV (minority: clearance

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73
Q

What does low albumin levels suggest

A

Liver disease such as:
Cirrhosis - decreased production

Inflammation - acute phase response temporarily decreases production

Protein-losing enteropathies or nephrotic syndrome - excessive loss of albumin

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74
Q

Cholestasis will cause a build up of all the substances usually excreted in the bile - true or false

A

False
Not all substances are retained to the same extent in various cholestatic disorders
In some conditions, serum bile salts may be markedly elevated while bilirubin is only modestly elevated and vice versa.

However, demonstrable retention of several substances is needed to establish a diagnosis of cholestasis

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75
Q

How long does it take acute liver injury to present

A

Usually manifests within 8 weeks of liver injury with many patients progressing to coma within a week

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76
Q

List the microscopic features of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Usually characterized by the presence of glands embedded in desmoplastic stroma

In some cases cytologic atypia and stromal response are minimal -> in these instances identification of perineural and vascular invasion help establish the diagnosis

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77
Q

List the macroscopic features of cholecystitis

A

Gallbladder large and distended - tense
Bright red blotchy violaceous to green-black discolouration imparted by subserosal haemorrhages
The serosa is frequently covered by a fibrous exudate that may be fibrinopurulent in severe cases

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78
Q

Which sex is more affected by PBC

A

Women - 90% of patients are female

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79
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to protein catabolism

A

The liver breakdown excess amino acids from the diet and metabolises them to a form that can be used or excreted

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80
Q

How can coagulopathy in liver failure be fatal

A

will cause intracranial bleeds and DIC

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81
Q

List risk factors for cholesterol gallstones

A
Specific demographic populations (Native Americans)
Age ++
Female (oc pill, pregnancy, hormones)
Obesity/metabolic syn.
Rapid weight loss
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82
Q

How do you treat Wilson’s

A

Penacillamine

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83
Q

How can hepatorenal syndrome be fatal

A

Through fluid overload, secondary infection, organ damage and coma

If left untreated many patients will die in first weeks of the syndrome with 50% dying in 2 weeks and 80 % in 3 months

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84
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of the liver in haemochromatosis

A

Slightly enlarged, dense & chocolate brown colour (dark brown to nearly black liver parenchyma)
Colour is due to extensive iron deposition

Also get fibrous septa development
This creates a small, shrunken liver w/ micronodular pattern of cirrhosis

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85
Q

Which other malignant tumours can arise in the gallbladder

A

neuroendocrine tumours, squamous cell carcinoma and sarcomas

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86
Q

Which chronic conditions can be caused by haemochromatosis

A

Cirrhosis
Diabetes
Heart failure
Can lead to organ failure

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87
Q

Describe the pathogenies of pigment gallstones

A

Pigment gallstones are complex mixtures of calcium salts (insoluble ones from unconjugated bilirubin and inorganic ones)

Disorders that are associated with elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in bile increase the risk of developing pigment stones e.g. haemolytic anaemia, severe ileal dysfunction or bypass, bacterial contamination of biliary tree

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88
Q

Which type of chronic liver failure has the slowest rate of progression

A

PBC

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89
Q

How does hepatopulmonary syndrome present clinically

A

Presents as dyspnoea and cyanosis

The dyspnoea is worse in the upright position due to gravity exacerbating the ventilation perfusion mismatch

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90
Q

Liver failure patients are already at a higher risk of complications from transplant - true or false

A

True

Because they are so unwell in the first place

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91
Q

What are the most common causes of death in acute liver failure

A

Infection
HE
Multi-organ failure

in that order

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92
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of acute on chronic liver failure

A

There will be established cirrhosis and extensive vascular shunting due to existing chronic liver disease
This means there is a large amount of liver parenchyma with a borderline vascular supply making it vulnerable
If there is a superimposed insult the liver is more likely to decompensate severely causing the acute on chronic liver failure

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93
Q

What is the cause of PSC

A

The aetiology is not well understood

The frequent presence of circulating serum auto-antibodies, association with autoimmune diseases (UC) and the association with certain HLA haplotypes suggests that PSC is an immune-mediated disorder - though not a classic autoimmune

Likely has a trigger (unknown - environmental or immunological) in a genetically susceptible individual

Theory that effector T-cells which were activated e.g., during colitis, migrate to liver where they recognise a cross-reacting bile duct antigen
Infections or changes to intestinal microbiome recruit mucosal T cells to the liver and incite changes in cholangiocytes causing inflammatory injury

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94
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to lipogenesis

A

Fatty acids can be synthesised within the hepatocytes

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95
Q

List medications that are cytochrome P450 inducers

A

carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, rifampicin, rifabutin, efavirenz, nevirapine, and St John’s wort

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96
Q

List the histological appearance of mild chronic cholecystitis

A

Scattered lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages in mucosa and in subserosa

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97
Q

Antibody titres correlate with disease severity or progression in PBC - true or false

A

False
They do not
Also don’t predict response to therapy

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98
Q

Describe stage 1 of paracetamol toxicity

A

Occurs in first 24hrs

Can be symptomatic or present with N+V and abdominal pain

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99
Q

What is tested for in LFTs

A
Alanine transaminase (ALT)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 
Gamma-glutamyltransferase  (GGT) 
Bilirubin 
Albumin 
Prothrombin time (PT)
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100
Q

What is the function of bile

A

Bile is the digestive fluid produced by hepatocytes

It plays a critical role in the elimination of bilirubin, excess cholesterol and aids in fat absorption

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101
Q

Why might you see renal damage in paracetamol

A

AKI that often accompanies paracetamol toxicity

May see renal tubular necrosis as a result

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102
Q

List causes of chronic liver failure

A

Main causes; chronic hep b and c infection, NAFLD/NASH, alcoholic liver disease

Additional causes ; PBC, PSC, nodular regenerative hyperplasia, chronic schistosomiasis, fibropolycyctic liver disease, hemochromatosis, a 1 antitrypsin deficiency, Wilsons disease, Budd-Chiari syndrome, autoimmune hepatitis and drugs

Can also be idiopathic

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103
Q

PSC-autoimmune hepatitis overlap occurs more often in which patient group

A

More common in children than adults
Seen in 35% of childhood cases of PSC
So they also present younger

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104
Q

Only conjugated bilirubin causes jaundice - true or false

A

False

Can be caused by unconjugated or conjugated bilirubin.

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105
Q

List the histological appearance of advanced chronic cholecystitis

A

subepithelial and subserosal fibrosis accompanied by mononuclear cell infiltration

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106
Q

What is cholsterolosis

A

This is when there’s a buildup of cholesteryl esters and they stick to the wall of thegallbladderforming polyps
It is associated with cholesterol gallstones

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107
Q

How do you manage coagulopathy in liver failure

A

Only given blood products if bleeding is an issue ( FFP and platelets would be given)
May be given phytomenadione 10mgIV

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108
Q

List the microscopic features specific to chronic viral hepatitis caused by Hep C

A

Prominent lymphoid aggregates/ fully formed lymphoid follicles in portal tracts - portal tracts expand
Steatosis (common)
Bile duct injury

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109
Q

Define acute cholecystitis

A

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder that develops over hours
Usually because a gallstone obstructs the cystic duct

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110
Q

How do you treat alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

liver transplant

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111
Q

Which type of bilirubin is found in bile

A

Conjugated

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112
Q

What is the recommended dosing schedule for paracetamol

A

500-1,000mg QDS to a maximum of 4,000mg/day

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113
Q

Do abnormal LFTs always mean liver disease

A

No

Can be abnormal in around 17% of the population and normal LFTs doesnt always exclude liver disease.

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114
Q

How can you treat the pruritus in PBC

A

1st line: Antihistamines (mild-mod itch)
2nd line: Cholestyramine and colestipol (bile binding resins)
3rd line: rifampicin

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115
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the deconjugation of bilirubin in the colon

A

Bacterial B-glucuronidases

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116
Q

What is cholecystitis

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder
May be acute, chronic or acute superimposed on chronic
It’s almost always occurs in association with gallstones

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117
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of PSC

A

Patients may be asymptomatic at diagnosis - around 50%
Some will present with or develop symptoms of pruritus and jaundice.
Ascending cholangitis, chronic pancreatitis and chronic cholecystitis can also be the PC

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118
Q

How do you treat PSC

A

No effective medical therapy is available.
Cholestyramine (bile acid-binding resin) used to alleviate pruritus.
Endoscopic dilatation or stenting can relieve biliary obstruction

Liver transplantation is the only treatment option for patients with advanced liver disease

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119
Q

Describe the injury pattern seen in idiosyncratic reactions in drug induced liver disease

A

Causes a hepatocellular pattern of injury
This can lead to acute hepatitis dominated by inflammation & necrosis
Similar to viral & autoimmune hepatitis
Centrizonal necrosis

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120
Q

Cholelithiasis occurs in approximately what percentage of adults

A

15%

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121
Q

Acute liver failure caused by toxic injuries typically have which pathological features

A

Tend to not show scar formation or regeneration because they take place over hours to days - not enough time for formation

May see confluent necrosis in the perivenular region and preserved areas of normal liver

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122
Q

Define chronic liver failure

A

Progressive destruction of the liver parenchyma that occur over a period greater than 6 months
Results in fibrosis and cirrhosis

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123
Q

List the common signs and symptoms of PBC

A

Fatigue
Pruritus
Symptoms slowly increase over time

Also get hypercholesterolaemia (xanthelasmas), steatorrhea and vitamin D malabsorption related osteomalacia
May see hyper-bilirubinaemia – jaundice 
RUQ pain 
Other autoimmune diseases
Splenomegaly ± portal HTN (Adv. Disease)

OR could be asymptomatic

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124
Q

Describe the LFT pattern seen in hepatocellular injury

A

Raised ALT and AST - released from the injured hepatocytes

Acute: raised ALT and AST, normal/raised ALP and GGT, bilirubin is usually also raised.

Chronic: ALT/AST and ALP/GGT and bilirubin are all normal or raised.

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125
Q

What are the two types of cholestasis

A

obstructive causes and hepatocellular causes

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126
Q

What are the most common caused of death in chronic liver failure

A

HE
Oesophageal variceal bleed
Bacterial infections
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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127
Q

Where is albumin synthesised

A

In the liver

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128
Q

What are the main complications of liver transplant

A

Most common - Graft infection or Sepsis

Bleeding, clotting, failure or rejection of the liver, bile duct leakage and shrinkage, infection, mental confusion and seizures

The immunosuppression used in the transplantation process can cause osteoporosis, diabetes, high cholesterol and HTN

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129
Q

Describe the natural history of Hep C

A

Usual outcome: Persistent infection and chronic hepatitis

Chronic disease in 80-90% HCV-infected individuals; 20% progress to cirrhosis

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130
Q

What happens to bile acids once secreted

A

They can be reabsorbed from the intestines and brought back to the liver (enterohepatic circulation) to be taken up by the hepatocytes
This restores the pool of acids

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131
Q

How can age impact the rate of chronic liver failure progression

A

increasing age will increase rate of progression

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132
Q

Which conditions can cause impaired bile flow

A

Obstruction - gallstone, tumour

Cholangiopathies - PBC, PSC

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133
Q

What type of bilirubin is responsible for post-hepatic jaundice

A

Conjugated

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134
Q

Describe the appearance of the pancreas in haemochromatosis

A

Intensely pigmented - brown

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135
Q

List the macroscopic features of NAFLD

A

Cholestasis

Obliterated central veins

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136
Q

What causes PBC

A

It is an autoimmune disease so likely a mixture of genetics and environment

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137
Q

List some complications from ongoing injury in PSC

A

Ongoing injury and continued destruction of the bile ducts results in secondary parenchymal damage, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and end-stage liver disease

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138
Q

Those with UC are regularly screened for PSC - true or false

A

True

A raised ALP is often how the disease is detected in them.

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139
Q

List the macroscopic features of chronic viral hepatitis

A

Areas of necrosis
Collapse of liver lobules
Seen as ill-defined areas that are pale yellow

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140
Q

How can you treat the osteoporosis in PBC

A

Increase activity levels (esp. post-menopausal women).

Bisphosphonates, esp. alendronate.

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141
Q

How does bilirubin get into the liver

A

The bilirubin enters the bloodstream bound to serum albumin and is transported to the liver.
It is taken up by the hepatocytes at their sinusoidal membranes.
Sinusoids are where blood passes through the hepatocytes

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142
Q

Paracetamol is available in which forms

A
Tablets/ capsules
Soluble
Liquid
Suppositories
IV 

It and is widely available OTC, either alone or in combination with other analgesics

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143
Q

What type of bilirubin is responsible for hepatic jaundice

A

May have mixed picture - both conjugated and unconjugated in blood

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144
Q

Does portal HTN develop in acute liver failure

A

Yes - it develops over days to weeks

Although it is much more common in chronic failure

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145
Q

Which 4 conditions contribute to the formation of cholesterol gallstones

A

1) supersaturation of bile with cholesterol
2) hypomotility of the gallbladder
3) accelerated cholesterol crystal nucleation
4) hypersecretion of mucus in the gallbladder, which traps the nucleated crystals leading to accretion of more cholesterol and the appearance of macroscopic stones

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146
Q

What is considered a staggered paracetamol overdose

A

A toxic dose taken over more than 1 hour

>150mg/kg within 24hrs may produce serious toxicity

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147
Q

What are the two main types of gallstones

A

Cholesterol stones - composed mainly of crystalline cholesterol monohydrate

Pigment stones - composed mainly of bilirubin calcium salts

Most cases are a mix of both.

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148
Q

PSC is common in smokers - true or false

A

False

It is a disease of non-smokers

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149
Q

How can ascites be fatal

A

Can develop spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Bacteria, usually E. coli, strep pneumonia or klebsiella, seep through the peritoneal membrane from the GI tract to cause inflammation and infection

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150
Q

Acalculus cholecystitis is more common in which patient populations

A

The incidence is higher in the intensive-care population, particularly in patients in burn and trauma units.

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151
Q

The pain in biliary colic is colicky - true or false

A

False

It’s a misnomer - the pain is usually constant

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152
Q

Which pattern of ALT and ALP suggests hepatocellular injury is the main cause

A

More than 10-fold increase in ALT and a less than 3-fold increase in ALP

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153
Q

What controls the movement of bile etc through the major duodenal papilla

A

Papilla is regulated by the sphincter of odi

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154
Q

List the microscopic features of alcoholic liver disease

A

Liver inflammation (alcoholic hepatitis) & Fibrosis: Prominent
Ballooned hepatocytes
Inflammation & necrosis
Perivenular/Pericellular fibrosis

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155
Q

AMA positivity is quite specific for PBC - true or false

A

True

98% specificity

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156
Q

List the microscopic features of NAFLD

A

Steatosis, Lobular inflammation, Ballooned hepatocytes
Steatosis appears as mixed small and large fat droplets
When established: steatosis/ballooned hepatocytes may be reduced or absent

Mallory hyaline, Neutrophilic infiltrates

Fibrosis develops around central vein as a fine “chicken wire pattern” of pericellular collagen deposition - individual and clustered hepatocytes are surrounded by thin scars
This can progress to periportal and bridging fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis

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157
Q

How do the bile constituents leave the liver

A

All of the bile constituents are moved across the canicular membrane of the hepatocytes by a variety of transporter proteins.

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158
Q

What are the characteristic features of PBC

A

Characterised by inflammatory destruction of small- and medium-sized intrahepatic bile ducts
Eventually the ducts will be lost and fibrosis develops as a consequence

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159
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of PBC

A

Starts with an unknown trigger - genetic or environmental
Could be something like infection or chemicals in genetically susceptible individuals

The trigger leads to the formation of auto-antigens against bile duct epithelial cells
T-lymphocytes will then start to attack auto-antigens” expressed on bile duct cells
This leads to injury which causes retention of bile salts (toxic substances build up) and secondary hepatocellular injury occurs

Anti-microbial antibodies (AMAs) also play a role

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160
Q

What type of enzyme is responsible for haem being broken down to bilirubin

A

Phagocytic enzymes

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161
Q

What are the effects of hyperoestrogenemia in liver failure

A

Palmar erythema - due to local vasodilatation)
Spider angioma - central arteriole that is dilated and pulsating with small vessels radiating from it
Hypogonadism - causing testicular atrophy, hair loss and gynaecomastia in men

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162
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to glucose metabolism

A

Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and can be converted back to glucose when required (e.g. exercise)
The liver can also generate glucose (gluconeogenesis) through the conversion of amino acids, lactate, pyruvate and glycerol

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163
Q

How does acute liver failure cause cholestasis

A

Due to alterations of bile formation and flow causing retention of bilirubin and other solutes that are normally eliminated in bile

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164
Q

All of the clinical signs and manifestations of ALF can also occur in CLF - true or false

A

True

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165
Q

List some of the pre-cursor lesions for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Flat in-situ lesions with varying degrees of dysplasia
Mass forming adenoma-like lesions termed intracystic papillary tubular neoplasm
Intestinal metaplasia.

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166
Q

Fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies are a common complication of cholestasis in children - true or false

A

True

May require administration of fat-soluble vitamins and monitoring

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167
Q

The distribution and incidence of acute cholecystitis follow that of which other disease

A

Cholelithiasis (gallstones)

because of the close relationship between the two.

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168
Q

What are the pathological characteristics of PSC

A

Inflammation and injury of the medium- and large-sized bile ducts, leading to fibrosis and multi-focal stricturing of the ducts

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169
Q

What is the characteristic sign of bile duct injury in drug-induced liver disease

A

Characterised by varying combinations of cholestasis & ductular reactions
This can lead to chronic cholestasis

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170
Q

List the pathological features of acute liver failure

A

Most commonly has massive hepatic necrosis and broad areas of parenchymal loss which will be surrounded by islands of either preserved or regenerating hepatocytes

Affected livers are usually small and shrunken and may be soft and congested

Rarely ALF may have widespread liver cell dysfunction without obvious cell death

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171
Q

What does an increase in PT suggest

A

Liver disease/dysfunction.

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172
Q

The risk of gallstones becoming symptomatic increases with time - true or false

A

False

the risk diminishes with time

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173
Q

Describe the appearance of the heart in haemochromatosis

A

Enlarged heart with hemosiderosis (striking brown coloration)

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174
Q

List the macroscopic features of alcoholic liver disease

A

Enlarged, soft, yellow, greasy - fatty liver
Fatty change: completely reversible if abstention from further intake of alcohol

Macrovesicular steatosis - predominant;

(Unusual) Microvesicular steatosis: alcoholic foamy degeneration
Seen in chronic heavy alcohol use
This is also associated with ER & mitochondrial damage

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175
Q

Describe the pathological features of cholate stasis as seen in PBCs

A

Causes swelling of periportal hepatocytes (clear cytoplasm’s w/ granular strands, aka. feathery degeneration)

May develop Mallory hyaline.

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176
Q

List morphological features of chronic liver disease

A

Cirrhosis
Fibrosis - pattern will vary with cause
Parenchymal nodules - variable size
Vascular thrombosis - extent varies

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177
Q

How does HE present

A

Will present with rigidity, hyperreflexia and asterixis

It has the potential to cause seizures and cerebral oedema (and the associated symptoms)

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178
Q

How can the ALT/AST ratio be used to analyse LFTs

A

Can indicate the cause
ALT > AST suggests chronic liver disease
AST > ALT suggests cirrhosis and acute alcoholic hepatitis

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179
Q

Describe the mechanisms of liver injury in haemochromatosis

A

Lipid peroxidation via iron-catalyzed free radical reactions
Stimulation of collagen formation by activation of hepatic stellate cells
Interaction of ROS and iron with DNA - leads to lethal cell injury (predisposes the person to HCC)

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180
Q

Which compounds make up bile

A

Bilirubin, bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids.

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181
Q

List the general histological appearance of chronic cholecystitis

A

Inflammation variable

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses - forms a pocket?

Other findings – porcelain gallbladder (very rare), hyalinizing cholecystitis, xanthogranulomatous cholecysitis and hydrops of the gallbladder

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182
Q

Toxic brain injury in Wilson’s disease occurs in which region

A

Involves the basal ganglia

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183
Q

Which age group is most affected by cholestasis

A

Cholestasis is observed in people of every age group

However, newborns and infants are more susceptible due to immature livers

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184
Q

What is considered an acute paracetamol overdose

A

A toxic dose taken within 1 hour

>75mg/kg is generally considered the threshold for serious toxicity

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185
Q

What are the most common causes of decompensation in chronic liver disease

A

GI bleeds, high alcohol intake, alcoholic hepatitis or drug induced liver injury

BUT no cause is found in 50% of decompensations

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186
Q

Which cause of acute liver failure is associated with scarring

A

Viral infection
Will also see regeneration
This is because the insult occurs over weeks to months so has time to occur

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187
Q

Which type of bilirubin can be excreted in the urine

A

Conjugated
This is because it is water soluble
Therefore can be picked up on urine tests

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188
Q

What causes idiosyncratic drug induced liver disease

A

Often antimicrobial drugs

Occur after 1-3 months of exposure

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189
Q

List the mechanisms of hepatocyte injury & inflammation in alcoholic liver disease

A

Acetaldehyde (product of alcohol dehydrogenase)
CYP2E1 induction
Impaired methionine metabolism

Damage caused by these causes inflammation
With chronicity you get
liver fibrosis & deranged vascular perfusion

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190
Q

List some of the manifestations of acute liver failure

A
Cholestasis
Hepatic encephalopathy
Coagulopathy   
Ascites 
Portal HTN 
Hepatorenal syndrome 
Hepatopulmonary syndrome 
Multiorgan failure 

Also infections, circulatory collapse and metabolic acidosis and renal failure

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191
Q

List the metabolic functions of the liver

A

Maintenance of blood glucose (carbohydrate metabolism)
Lipid metabolism – both lipogenesis and lipolysis
Protein synthesis
Protein catabolism
Ammonium metabolism
Vitamin D activation

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192
Q

Gallstones are most prevalent in which age group

A

Middle-aged to old people

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193
Q

How does liver size change in acute liver failure

A

They initially will have an enlarged liver due to hepatocyte swelling, inflammatory infiltrate and oedema but it will shrink dramatically as the parenchyma is destroyed

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194
Q

Which sex is more affected by cholecystitis

A

Women - 3 times more common

Up to the age of 50 years, and is about 1.5 times more common in women than in men thereafter

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195
Q

List pathological signs of paracetamol overdose

A

Cytolysis with centrilobular necrosis

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196
Q

Most patients with calculus cholecystitis will present with jaundice - true or false

A

False

Most patients are free of jaundice

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197
Q

List the pathological features of cholsterolosis

A

Strawberry gallbladder - looks like one

Foamy lipid laden macrophages in the lamina propria

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198
Q

Can you treat the liver disease in α1- antitrypsin deficiency

A

No treatment but supportive care of chronic liver disease complications
May become chronic

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199
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis

A

90% of cases caused by gallstone

The other 10% are acalculus

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200
Q

What causes hepatorenal syndrome

A

Portal hypertension is the triggering event
Confounded by increased production of vasodilators by endothelial cells in the splanchnic vasculature
This causes systemic vasodilatation and renal hypoperfusion leading to RAAS activation
In the setting of Portal Hx and persistent vasodilator release the main effect of RAAS is to further reduce GFR and renal perfusion = renal failure

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201
Q

At what serum bilirubin level does jaundice usually become evident

A

Above 2-2.5mg/dL (normal level is between 0.3 and 1.2 mg/dL)

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202
Q

If a gallstone migrates into the common bile duct, how might the patient present

A

Jaundice
Cholangitis
Acute Pancreatitis

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203
Q

List the microscopic features of cholecystitis

A

Early changes of acute cholecystitis include oedema congestion and mucosal erosion.
neutrophils are sparse unless there is superimposed infection

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204
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis

A

It is a chronic autoimmune disease in which the intrahepatic bile ducts i are slowly destroyed.

Previously called primary biliary cirrhosis

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205
Q

What can happen to other body tissues when levels of unconjugated bilirubin get too high

A

The amount that is unbound (instead of bound to albumin) also rises and can exert its toxic effect on the tissues
In brain it causes neuro issues such as kernicterus

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206
Q

Describe stage 4 of paracetamol toxicity

A

Occurs after 96 hours or more
The resolution phase
Clinical recovery and normalisation of LFTs in 3-4 weeks
Complete histological recovery will take several months

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207
Q

What is primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

It is a chronic progressive cholestatic liver disease, characterised by inflammation and fibrosis of the intrahepatic and/or extrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in diffuse, multi-focal stricture formation.

Preserved segments become dilated

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208
Q

How do you manage gallstones

A

Start with painkillers, low fat diet and weight loss and observe for 3-6 months

If Recurrent episodes of pain / colic then consider / refer for surgery
Cholecystectomy is the surgery of choice (usually laparoscopic)

If unfit for surgery – Ursodeoxycholic acid 10mg/kg/day

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209
Q

Describe the path of bile from the

A

It is released from hepatocytes in the liver and travels via canaliculi to intralobular ducts then the collecting ducts before entering the left and right hepatic ducts.
These converge to form the common hepatic duct.
This duct is joined by the cystic duct which connects to the gall bladder.
This meeting point is the beginning of the common bile duct.
The CBD passes posteriorly to the first part of the duodenum and head of the pancreas before joining the main pancreatic duct.
This forms the hepatopancreatic ampulla (commonly known as the ampulla of Vater).
Both ducts can empty into the second part of the duodenum via the major duodenal papilla.

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210
Q

How does wealth affect the prevalence of gallstones

A

Affects 10-20% of adults in high income countries, uncommon in low-income countries

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211
Q

In the developed world, what are the most common causes of chronic liver failure

A

Alcoholic liver disease
Chronic hep B and C infections
NAFLD/NASH
Haemochromatosis

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212
Q

PSC is more common in which sex

A

Men

male-to-female ratio of 2:1

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213
Q

What is involved in phase I drug metabolism

A

Phase I metabolism consists of reduction, oxidation, or hydrolysis reactions.

These reactions serve to convert lipophilic drugs into more polar molecules by adding or exposing a polar functional group

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214
Q

List the requirements for transplant in acute liver failure

A
PT >20 seconds or INR >2.0
pH < 7.3 or [ H+] > 50
Hypoglycemia
Conscious level impaired
Creatinine > 200 mmol/l
Any patient with encephalopathy, coagulopathy or renal impairment
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215
Q

What is a common side effect of oral ursodeoxycholic acid

A

Diarrhoea or pale stools

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216
Q

Is there a morphological difference between calculus and acalculus cholecystitis

A

Not specifically

The only real difference is the presence or absence of the calculus

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217
Q

How is the majority of paracetamol metabolised

A

Via phase II enzymes

It undergoes hepatic sulfation and glucuronidation before being excreted in the urine (the products are urine soluble)

218
Q

What is the other name for idiopathic liver failure

A

Cryptogenic liver failure

219
Q

Acute liver failure is more common than chronic liver failure – True or false

A

False

220
Q

List risk factors for acute acalculus cholecystitis

A
Sepsis 
Immune suppression 
Major trauma 
Diabetes 
Infection
221
Q

Describe the appearance of the skin in haemochromatosis

A

Characteristic slate-gray skin pigmentation

222
Q

How do you predict mortality in chronic liver disease

A

Child Pugh, MELD-Na and UKELD scores

CP > 12 has a mean survival of 6 months

223
Q

How do you treat viral hepatitis

A

direct acting antivirals, interferon- alpha

224
Q

when is bile sent to the gall bladder

A

When it is not required in the GI tract - between meals

225
Q

How do you predict mortality from acute liver failure

A

Using the Kings College score

226
Q

How long does it take for prolonged cholestasis (caused by drug-induced liver disease) to resolve

A

Requires several months

227
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to vitamin D activation

A

Involved in the metabolic activation of vitamin D

Converts it to calcifediol before being transported to kidneys for final steps of activation

228
Q

How can hepatopulmonary syndrome be fatal

A

Through severe hypoxemia and respiratory failure

229
Q

What can cause acute hepatocellular injury

A

Poisoning - e.g. paracetamol overdose
Infection - Hep A or B
Ischaemia of liver.

230
Q

List potential differentials for PBC

A

obstructive bile duct lesion, small-duct PSC, drug-induced cholestasis.

231
Q

What is the typical size of a black pigment stone

A

Rarely greater than 1.5 centimeters in diameter

They are almost invariably present in great number with an inverse relationship between size and number (greater the number the smaller the size)

232
Q

How should seizures in liver failure be managed

A

phenytoin

233
Q

How does liver failure cause hypogonadism in women and what and the results

A

Caused by the hypothalamic pituitary axis dysfunctioning either because of nutritional deficiency or primary hormonal changes

They will have altered menstruation and fertility

234
Q

Which medications have been shown to have some success in the treatment of cholestasis

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid - acts to increase bile formation

Phenobarbital - in chronic cases

235
Q

List some of the presenting signs of acute liver failure

A

Jaundice - may be minimal at early stages
N and V

Then progresses to hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy
May see hypoglycaemia and hepatic foetor (musty smelling breath)

236
Q

How do you treat hereditary haemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy, iron chelators

237
Q

Copper is deposited in which organs in Wilson’s disease

A

Liver
Brain
Cornea
Kidneys

238
Q

What is jaundice

A

Jaundice is a yellow discoloration of the skin, mucosa and or/sclera

239
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic liver disease in the US

A

NAFLD

240
Q

Which organs affected by multi-organ failure in cases of acute liver failure are most likely to prove fatal

A

heart, lungs and kidneys

241
Q

What defines acute liver failure

A

Defined by the presence of jaundice, coagulopathy and encephalopathy in pts with no prior liver disease

242
Q

Cholestasis in acute liver failure can have what effects

A

Presents as jaundice and icterus

Causes an increased risk of bacterial infection that can be life threatening

243
Q

List the mechanisms by which excess copper in Wilson’s disease causes toxic injury to the liver

A

Promoting formation of free radicals by Fenton reaction - reactive oxygen species cause liver damage and cirrhosis

Binding to sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins

Displacing other metals from hepatic metalloenzymes

244
Q

Which enzyme breaks down haem to biliverdin

A

Haem oxygenase

245
Q

PSC increase risk of cholangiocarcinoma - true or false

A

True

Biliary intraepithelial neoplasia can develop and eventually lead to cholangiocarcinoma

246
Q

How can HLA type trigger autoimmune hepatitis

A
HLA class II on hepatocyte surface allows exposure of liver cell membrane constituents to APCs 
They present antigens to TH0
TH1: IL-2 & IF-γ -> enhance expression of HLA class I & II
TH2: Interleukins 4, 5 and 10 -> stimulate autoantibody production by B lymphocyte
247
Q

How does liver failure cause severe pruritus and what and the results

A

Due to persistent cholestasis
It can result in the patients scratching their skin raw – seen clinically
It can also lead to life threatening bacterial infections

248
Q

What is the typical size of a black pigment stone

A

Rarely greater than 1.5 centimetres in diameter

They are almost invariably present in great number with an inverse relationship between size and number (greater the number the smaller the size)

249
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of acalculus cholecystitis

A

The exact mechanism of acalculous cholecystitis is unclear

It may be due to ischaemia - inflammation and oedema of the wall can compromise blood flow

Injury may be the result of retained concentrated bile (extremely noxious substance)
Can be caused by accumulation of microcrystals of cholesterol a.k.a. biliary sludge - viscous bile and mucus causing cystic duct obstruction in the absence of stones

In the presence of prolonged fasting, the gallbladder does not receive a cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulus to empty SO the concentrated bile remains stagnant in the lumen

250
Q

How are liver transaminases be affected by acute liver failure

A

Usually markedly elevated but may fall due to hepatocyte death ( not a sign of improvement)

251
Q

Radiology can be used to detect duct damage in PBC - true or false

A

False

Ducts are too small to be detected using radiology such as MRCP so must rely on lab results

252
Q

Bile stasis above strictures in PSC predisposes patients to which other condition

A

Primary bile duct stones

They develop in the dilated, backed up ducts

253
Q

What is happening to the prevalence of chronic liver failure

A

It is increasing

254
Q

What is the major clinical consequence of portal hypertension in acute liver failure

A

Ascites

255
Q

What is NAFLD

A

Nonalcohol fatty liver disease
Presence of hepatic steatosis in individuals who do not or seldom consume alcohol
Cause lipid to accumulate in hepatocytes

256
Q

Describe the appearance of Perivenular/Pericellular fibrosis as seen in alcoholic liver disease

A

Starts in acinar zone 3 as pericellular or perisinusoidal, fibrosis with a “chicken wire” appearance
Continued damage leads to portal/periportal fibrosis then bridging fibrosis & cirrhosis (”Laennec cirrhosis”)
Chances of full restoration of normal function diminish

257
Q

Malnourishment increases the mortality in liver failure - true or false

A

True

Malnourished patients should be given thiamine and folate supplements

258
Q

What is the main cause of liver related death

A

Chronic liver disease

259
Q

Acute calculus cholecystitis is particularly common in which patient group

A

diabetic patients who have symptomatic gallstones

260
Q

How can HE cause death

A

Can cause cerebral oedema which is potentially fatal through raising ICP

261
Q

Can PSC recur after liver transplant

A

YES

Recurs in 15-20%

262
Q

Gallstones are most prevalent in which ethnicity

A

75% of Native Americans have cholesterol stones.

Non-Western groups normally pigment stones arising due to bacterial infection.

263
Q

What is the typical size of a cholesterol stone

A

They range up to several centimeters in diameter rarely a very large stone may virtually fill the fundus.

264
Q

List the clinical features of gallstones

A

Most asymptomatic – may be decades before symptoms develop

Biliary colic is the main symptom:
Stone impacts in cystic duct causing a gradual build-up pain in RUQ
Radiates to back / shoulder 
May last 2-6 hours
Associated with indigestion / nausea
265
Q

Which pattern of liver injury is caused by cytotoxic agents like azathioprine or oxaliplatin

A

Endothelial injury to sinusoids and central veins

This causes sinusoidal obstruction syndrome

266
Q

PSC occurs in which age group

A

It can occur at any age (including childhood)

Typically presents during the third - fifth decade of life, with a mean age of 40 years at the time of diagnosis

267
Q

Describe the prolonged cholestasis caused by drug-induced liver disease

A

Chronic inflammation causes injury that is centered on the bile ducts
Develop vanishing bile duct syndrome
Loss of bile ducts and overt ductopenia
This can progress to cirrhosis and liver failure

268
Q

What is the difference between liver disease and liver failure

A

Disease is reversible and can affect the overall function of your liver

Failure is irreversible and considered the final stage of many liver diseases
Includes any condition that causes the loss of some/all functionality of your liver

269
Q

Describe the morphological features of cholestasis caused by obstruction

A

Obstruction of hepatic bile ducts leads to proximal duct dilation
The hallmark on liver biopsies is portal expansion due to oedema, prominent ductular reaction at the portal-parenchymal interface, and infiltrating neutrophils associated with ductules (PERICHOLANGITIS)
In ascending cholangitis, the neutrophils also involve the bile duct epithelium and lumens
Persistent obstruction leads to fibrosis, which can eventually proceed to biliary cirrhosis
Swelling of periportal hepatocytes (feathery degen.), bile pigment and Mallory hyaline is seen in periportal hepatocytes in advanced disease
Superimposed ascending cholangitis in advanced disease+ liver failure

270
Q

How do you diagnose PSC

A

Diagnosis involves laboratory tests and cholangiography

Gold standard is ERCP or MRCP

271
Q

Which sex is most affected by cholestasis

A

No clear difference but several conditions have a female dominance e.g. cholestasis of pregnancy and biliary atresia

272
Q

What is the most frequently used analgesic in the West

A

Paracetamol

273
Q

What is the full name of paracetamol

A

Acetaminophen

274
Q

How can acute liver failure result in DIC

A

The liver is also responsible for removing coagulation factors form the circulation
The loss of this function can result in DIC (excess coagulation)
This can also be fatal

275
Q

PSC patients are still at risk of developing IBD even after liver transplant - true or false

A

True

276
Q

Short-term ingestion of little alcohol has what effect on the liver

A

Causes mild, reversible, hepatic steatosis

277
Q

What is the other name for conjugated bilirubin molecules

A

bilirubin glucuronides

I.e. bilirubin with the glucuronic acid molecules

278
Q

How do you treat alcoholic liver disease

A

alcohol abstinence

279
Q

What forms the ampulla of Vatar

A

The common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct joining together

280
Q

Which initial tests would you do in a patient with suspected liver failure

A
FBC, coagulation screen, blood glucose, U and Es, LFTs
Paracetamol levels
Blood and urine cultures
Hepatic serology for hepatitis
CXR
USS of liver and pancreas
281
Q

How can activated charcoal treat a paracetamol overdose

A

Prevents paracetamol being fully absorbed in stomach

Only used if it’s been less than 4 hours from ingestion

282
Q

List the pathological features of PSC

A

Bile ducts have a diffusely thickened, fibrotic duct wall
They show epithelial injury and neutrophilic infiltrates superimposed on chronic inflammation.

Obstruction of the medium- and large-sized bile ducts - oedema and inflammation lead to narrowing of the lumen
This leads to progressive circumferential fibrosis and strictures
The fibrosis has an onion skin appearance

Ultimately results obliteration of the smaller ducts (ductopenia) and bile stasis (cholestasis).
Retained bile salts may further contribute to bile duct damage.

283
Q

What is the other name for paracetamol

A

acetaminophen

Also sold generically and under brand names

284
Q

List specific features that suggest chronic liver failure rather than acute

A

Severe pruritus
Hyperoestrogenaemia
Hypogonadism in females

Leuconychia – white nails that have lunula undermarcated from low albumin
Terry’s nails – the distal 3rd is reddened by telangiectasia but they are white proximally
Clubbing
Dupuytren’s contractures
Xanthelasma
Hepatomegaly – may have a small liver in chronic disease

285
Q

How do you treat NAFLD

A

lifestyle alteration and management of factors of metabolic syndrome

286
Q

Describe the appearance of brown pigment stones

A

They contain similar substances to black stones with some added cholesterol and calcium salts of palmitate and stearate
They have a laminated, soft, greasy consistency and radiolucent

287
Q

How does chronic liver present

A

Generalised features - anorexia, weight loss and weakness

Advanced disease may present with HE, jaundice and easy bruising from coagulopathy

They may have portal HTN = ascites, splenomegaly
AND portohepatic shunting = causing varices, haemorrhoids and caput medusae

288
Q

PSC is relatively rare - true or false

A

True
estimated prevalence of 5.58 per 100,000 in the UK.
Though thought to be underestimated

289
Q

What mediates drug induced liver disease

A

Reactive metabolites generated in the liver by cytochrome P-450
This is active in central zone of lobule
Leads to necrosis of perivenular hepatocytes

290
Q

Describe the timing of symptom onset in chronic liver disease

A

The timing of onset of symptoms and disease will vary depending on the underlying cause but in general it has a much longer onset than ALF ( months/ years vs. days/weeks/months)

291
Q

What happens when bile is released from the liver

A

It enters the duodenum via the bilirubin

292
Q

The high concentration of plasma proteins seen in paracetamol overdose can have what effects

A

Patients may present with metabolic acidosis, elevated lactate and possibly coma

293
Q

List the requirements for transplant in chronic liver failure

A

QoL significantly impaired from itch
albumin < 28 g/l or prothrombin time > 6 seconds prolonged (INR > 1.5) or bilirubin > 50 mmol/l (>100 mmol/l if biliary cirrhosis)
Child Pugh > 7. MELD also considered
Ascites esp if doesn’t respond well to diuretic
SBP
Renal failure
Spontaneous hepatic encephalopathy
GI bleeds from portal Hx esp if assoc. with HE
HE

294
Q

PBC patients without the anti-microbial antibodies have an atypical presentation - true or false

A

False

5% of otherwise typical PBC patients don’t have AMAs.

295
Q

Which conditions can cause impaired conjugation of bilirubin

A

Physiologic jaundice of newborn - low enzyme levels,
Breastmilk jaundice - deconjugating enzymes in milk
Genetic deficiency in UGT1A1 (enzyme responsible for glucuronidation) e.g. Gilberts syndrome

296
Q

How does paracetamol overdose lead to liver damage

A

Phase II pathways become saturated, and hepatic GSH stores are depleted

More paracetamol goes through the phase I pathway and so the toxic metabolite NAPQI builds up, particularly in centrilobular hepatocytes in zone 3
NAQPI binds to hepatic proteins which leads to cell membrane damage and mitochondrial dysfunction
This results in hepatocellular injury and death

Depletion of GSH means cells are also more susceptible to oxidative damage

297
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of chronic liver failure

A

Its caused by a continuous process that involves fibrosis, distortion of the livers architecture and regeneration nodule formation
Initially the fibrosis will be reversible but will then transition to an irreversible form with regeneration nodule formation and the development of cirrhosis
The rate of progression depends on cause, environmental and host factors
There ay also be a role of genetic polymorphisms in the rate of progression of reversible to irreversible fibrosis

298
Q

List the clinical features of calculus cholecystitis

A

Usually have previous episodes of pain related to gallbladder
Attacks begin with progressive RUQ or epigastric pain lasting > 6 hours
Associated with fever, anorexia, tachycardia, sweating, nausea, etc.
Often appears suddenly and may require surgery (emergency)
Alternatively symptoms can be mild and resolve without intervention

299
Q

Describe the trends in acute liver failure aetiologies

A

Over the past 50 years ALF secondary to Hepatitis A and B have declined whereas ALF caused by acetaminophen has increased

300
Q

How can portal HTN be fatal in those with acute liver failure

A

They are at risk then of oesophageal varices which may be fatal
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis which can also be fatal

301
Q

Which pattern of ALT and ALP suggests cholestasis is the main cause

A

A less than 10-fold increase in ALT and a more than 3-fold increase in ALP suggests cholestasis.

302
Q

Those with PSC and IBD are screened for colon cancer - true or false

A

True - 4x increased risk

Colonoscopy and screening biopsies – annually

303
Q

How do you manage sepsis

A

Sepsis 6

304
Q

Describe the different gross appearances of cholangiocarcinoma

A

May produce a firm poorly circumscribed mass or may diffusely infiltrated the wall of gallbladder simulating the gross appearance of chronic cholecystitis

305
Q

What causes post-hepatic jaundice

A

Due to blockage of the bile ducts - gallstones, tumours etc

Get backflow of conjugated bilirubin into the blood

306
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic liver failure

A

Alcoholic liver disease

307
Q

What is gangrenous cholecystitis

A

A severe case of cholecystitis where the gallbladder becomes green black and necrotic
Mat have small to large perforations
Caused by the invasion of gas forming organisms like clostridia or coliforms

308
Q

What are liver function tests

A

LTFs are a type of blood test that assess the levels of a variety of markers.
They can indicate liver function (obviously!) and injury.

309
Q

List the potential serious complications of chronic liver failure

A

Coagulopathy, HE, hypoalbuminemia = oedema, sepsis, SBP, hypoglycaemia, portal hx and its complications ( spenomeagaly, ascites, HE), portopulmonary Hx, life threatening infections fro scratching

310
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis is one of the chronic liver effects of Wilson’s disease - true or false

A

True

311
Q

What is the first clinical sign of hepatorenal syndrome

A

Elevated urea and creatinine and reduced urination

312
Q

Define acute on chronic liver failure

A

This is where there is an already cirrhotic liver that then has an acute decompensation which results in one or more organs failing and reduces the patients mortality

Can either be due to unrelated injury on top of already cirrhotic liver or can be caused by a flare in the cause of the original cirrhosis

313
Q

Where does bilirubin conjugation occur

A

Conjugation occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum of the hepatocytes

314
Q

How does spontaneous bacterial peritonitis present

A

fever, generalised abdominal pain, tenderness and absent bowel sounds
May occur on a background of ascites

315
Q

How does acute liver failure result in coagulopathy

A

Occurs as the hepatocytes are responsible for synthesising clotting factors 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12 and fibrinogen so as the liver fails they are no longer produced causing coagulopathy

316
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome

A

A form of renal failure in individuals with no functional or morphological issues of the kidney but that have hepatic failure

317
Q

List rarer causes of acute on chronic liver failure

A

Patients with non alcoholic steatohepatitis develop severe hepatic dysfunction and decomposition due to rapid weight loss or malnutrition

Sepsis causing hypotension or acute cardiac failure causing hypoperfusion

Malignancy from a primary tumours (hepatocellular carcinoma or cholangiocarcinoma in particular) or liver mets from another site

Superimposed drug or toxic injury

318
Q

How do you treat PBC

A

ursodeoxycholic acid

319
Q

List potential complications of chronic cholecystitis

A

Gall bladder perforation or fistula

320
Q

How do Kupffer cells promote the progression ofliverinjury in NAFLD

A

They secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines and produce reactive oxygen species

321
Q

Medical treatment of cholestasis focusses on what

A

Treating the underlying cause
Much of the medical treatment for cholestasis is disease specific
Most require a referral to GI or hepatology (particularly if severe or prolonged)

322
Q

How is small duct PSC diagnosed

A

Often in those with IBD, ERCP/MRCP looks normal – liver biopsy required

323
Q

Which LFTs are a marker of liver synthetic function

A

Bilirubin
Albumin
Prothrombin time

324
Q

What is the main morphological feature of chronic liver failure

A

Cirrhosis
This is marked by dense bands of fibrosis surrounding parenchymal nodules throughout the liver
The surface of the liver capsule becomes lumpy with bulging regenerative nodules and depressed areas of scarring

325
Q

When is unconjugated bile seen

A

Seen as the immediate breakdown product but also in the gut as enzymes here de-conjugate them

326
Q

How do you treat Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

anticoagulation, thrombolysis or angioplasty with or without stenting, TIPS, or liver transplant

327
Q

Cholesterol stones arise exclusively in the gallbladder - true or false

A

True

328
Q

Describe the appearance of ballooned hepatocytes as seen in alcoholic liver disease

A

Appear injured and swollen with cleared-out cytoplasm & cytoskeletal damage - extensive
Can lead to formation of Mallory hyaline - tangled skeins of intermediate filaments

329
Q

Which conditions can cause excess bilirubin production

A

haemolytic anaemia, internal haemorrhage reabsorption or ineffective erythropoiesis like pernicious anaemia or thalassaemia

More blood getting broken down = more bilirubin

330
Q

Describe stage 3 of paracetamol toxicity

A
Occurs from 48-96hrs 
Presents with:
Worsening symptoms of hepatic failure 
Jaundice
Encephalopathy
Coagulopathy 
AKI
Multi organ failure
331
Q

Which canicular transport protein is responsible for the movement of bile salts

A

bile salt export pump - BSEP

332
Q

Describe the properties of conjugated bilirubin

A

It is water soluble and non-toxic

333
Q

How do you manage hepatic encephalopathy

A

head kept at 20 degrees and given mannitol, lactulose and rifaximin

334
Q

List rarer causes of death from chronic liver failure

A

Risk of all the manifestations of ALF - discussed on other cards
Also get hypoglycaemia which if severe and untreated can be fatal

335
Q

What can cause chronic hepatocellular injury

A
Alcoholic FLD
NAFLD
Chronic infection - hep B or C
PBC
Rarer causes include: Wilson’s disease, hemochromatosis and alpha-a1 antitrypsin deficiency.
336
Q

List the microscopic features specific to chronic viral hepatitis caused by Hep B

A

Swollen ER of hepatocytes

Filled with HBsAg - gives a ‘ground-glass’ appearance as you get accumulation of hep B surface antigen in ER

337
Q

Describe ALT (where found, when does it enter blood)

A

It is found mainly in hepatocytes (also kidney and muscle),

It enters blood following hepatic injury

338
Q

PBC is most common in which countries

A

Common in USA and Northern Europe.

Smaller incidence in Africa and Indian subcontinent

339
Q

What is the gross histologic feature of chronic viral hepatitis

A

Portal lymphocytic or lymphoplasmacytic, inflammation w/ fibrosis

340
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to ammonium metabolism

A

Protein catabolism can produce ammonium ions which are toxic
They can be used to make urea in the liver (or excreted in kidneys)

341
Q

How does CYP2E1 induction cause hepatocyte injury in alcoholic liver disease

A

It induces liver microsomes that contain CYP2E1
CYP2E1 metabolism of alcohol produces ROS
This leads to damage of cellular protein, membranes, mitochondria
which promotes apoptosis

342
Q

How are cholangiocarcinomas divided

A

Based on their location in the biliary tree
Can be intrahepatic or extrahepatic
And perihilar and distal

343
Q

Describe the development of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Likely develops from a precursor lesions

A lengthy stepwise process occurs, eventually leading to the full blown cancer

344
Q

Severe paracetamol overdoses can lead to a very high plasma protein concentration - true or false

A

True

Thought to be because NAPQI inhibits aerobic respiration through blocking e- transfer in oxidative phosphorylation

345
Q

What is autoimmune hepatitis

A

Chronic, progressive hepatitis associated with:

Genetic predisposition
Autoantibodies
Therapeutic response to immunosuppression

346
Q

Is curative surgery possible for for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Yes

If found incidentally while operating for separate cause

347
Q

Describe the pattern of LFTs that suggest cholestasis

A

(markedly) raised ALP and raised GGT.
AST and ALT may be mildly raised as well.

GGT can be used to confirm the raised ALP is a liver issue and not bone as it is not found there.

348
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of NAFLD

A

Lipids accumulate in the hepatocytes
Fat-laden cells are highly sensitive to lipid peroxidation products generated by oxidative stress
This causes damage to mitochondrial & plasma membranes which leads to apoptosis/necrosis
Exacerbated by pro-inflammatory state that accompanies insulin resistance
Once cell injury becomes established you get release of cytokines locally from Kupffer cells
This leads to activation of stellate cells, collagen deposition, cirrhosis and chronicity

349
Q

What factors can decrease your GSH reserved

A

Malnutrition - fasting or ED
Cachexia
Chronic alcohol overuse
Some chronic illnesses - HIV, CF

This will increase risk/severity of paracetamol overdose

350
Q

Describe the natural history of Hep E

A

Self-limiting infection

Becomes chronic in immunocompromised hosts only

351
Q

Describe the properties of unconjugated bilirubin

A

Lacks the glucuronic acid molecules

Is insoluble and toxic

352
Q

What hallmarks of cholestasis caused by obstruction would be seen on biopsy

A

Portal expansion due to oedema
Prominent ductular reaction at the portal-parenchymal interface
Infiltrating neutrophils associated with ductules - pericholangitis

353
Q

List the clinical features of cholestasis

A

Jaundice - caused by unconjugated bilirubin entering blood
Pain - RUQ pain, radiating to right shoulder, minutes to hours in duration, normally after a fatty meal
Pruritus
Skin xanthomas - focal accumulations of cholesterol
Pale stools and dark urine - caused by absence of bile in gut

354
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind hepatocellular cholestasis

A

You get impairment of bile formation and release

Substances like bilirubin accumulate in cells which backs up/ is exocytosed into the extracellular space and then the bloodstream
Hyperbilirubinaemia and cholestasis normally go hand in hand

355
Q

How long does it typically take calculus cholecystitis to resolve on its own

A

In the absence of medical attention attack usually subsides in around a week and frequently within a day

However as many as 25% of patients develop progressively more severe symptoms and require immediate surgery

356
Q

How are those with PSC screened for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Annual ultrasonography of GB

Have a lifetime risk of 20%

357
Q

Describe the normal path of bile in the body

A

Normally, bilirubin joins with bile in the liver, moves through the bile ducts into the digestive tract, and is eliminated from the body.

Most bilirubin is eliminated in stool, but a small amount is eliminated in urine.

358
Q

How can drug induced liver injury progress to a chronic form

A

The: pattern of liver injury (inflammation) may progress to chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis and even liver failure even upon discontinuation of the offending drug

Can be seen w/o any manifestation of clinical illness
Injury centered on bile ducts

359
Q

Patients with chronic liver disease may present with hepatocellular carcinoma - true or false

A

True

360
Q

What forms the common bile duct

A

The common hepatic duct and the cystic duct

361
Q

List some potential complications of PBC

A

It is a slowly progressive disease and progression to end-stage liver disease occurs in 20% to 25% of patients over 15 to 20 years

Also associated with hepatocellular carcinoma - overall incidence 6%
More common in men with advanced disease

362
Q

What is chronic liver disease

A

A continuous, progressive deterioration of liver functions for more than 6 months

Functions affected includes synthesis of clotting factors, other proteins, detoxification of harmful products of metabolism and excretion of bile

363
Q

Cholestasis often does not respond to medical therapy - true or false

A

True

364
Q

Which type of PSC is more common, small or large duct

A

Large-duct is more common - the classic type

Small duct accounts for only 3-16% of cases

365
Q

Which countries have a low prevalence of cholecystitis

A

Those in Africa and Asia

366
Q

What causes dose-dependent drug induced liver disease

A

Hepatotoxin: acetaminophen

Toxic agent: NAPQI produced by cytochrome P-450 system

367
Q

List the functions of the biliary tree

A

Allows bile to be delivered to the GI tract
Transports bile to the gallbladder for storage It has a key role in the elimination of bilirubin, excess cholesterol, xenobiotics and trace metals - via excretion of bile.

368
Q

How does viral hepatitis cause liver disease

A

Causes repeated inflammation
This leads to progressive destruction & regeneration of liver parenchyma
Results in fibrosis & cirrhosis

369
Q

What pattern of LFTs may be seen in pre-hepatic jaundice

A

An isolated rise in bilirubin.

Seen in Gilbert’s and haemolysis

370
Q

List the characteristic liver features in α1- antitrypsin deficiency

A

Presence of round-to-oval cytoplasmic globular inclusions in hepatocytes
Strongly PAS-positive and diastase-resistant
Appear first in periportal hepatocytes then progresses to appear in central hepatocytes

371
Q

Paracetamol overdose is a common cause of acute liver failure - true or false

A

True
It accounts for roughly half the cases of acute liver failure with around 30% mortality in the US
In the US, accidental OD is the most common cause, but intentional OD is most frequent in the UK

372
Q

Idiopathic acute liver failure is more common in which age groups

A

Children - 50% pf paediatric cases are idiopathic

Only 15% of adult cases

373
Q

How can the extent of fibrosis microscopically be determined

A

Staining for collagen

374
Q

What is the genetic basis for haemochromatosis

A

Loss-of-function mutations in the genes HAMP, HJV, TFR2 and HFE
These cause a chronic elevation of erythroferrone level which leads to an abnormal deficiency of hepcidin
This causes iron overload

375
Q

Outcomes for liver transplantation are good in PBC true or false

A

True

>70% survival at 7 years.

376
Q

You have an increased risk of developing PBC if a family member has the condition - true or false

A

True

377
Q

What causes jaundice (in general terms)

A

It is caused by high levels of bilirubin in the plasma, also called hyperbilirubinemia
Means that there is an imbalance between rate of hepatic uptake, conjugation and excretion of bilirubin.

378
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind obstructive cholestasis

A

Caused by an impairment of bile flow

e.g. biliary atresia

379
Q

Describe the natural history of Hep A

A

Self-limiting - usually recover within 3 months and get better within 6 months

No lasting damage
Does not become chronic

380
Q

List the 3 forms of alcoholic liver disease

A

Steatosis/fatty change
Alcoholic steato-hepatitis
Fibrosis leading to cirrhosis

381
Q

Why is PSC not considered a classic autoimmune disease

A

It occurs predominantly in males and does not respond to immunosuppressive treatment.

382
Q

Histologic lesions usually precede clinical disease in Wilson’s disease - true or false

A

True

383
Q

What is the most common cause of graft failure in liver transplantation

A

graft infection and sepsis

384
Q

Which proportion of drug induced liver disease will progress to chronic liver disease

A

17%

10% will result in death or liver transplantation

385
Q

How does α1- antitrypsin deficiency cause cirrhosis

A

Pathologic polymerization of the variant AAT causes intrahepatocyte accumulation of AAT molecules
This causes chronic hepatitis which can progress to cirrhosis

386
Q

What are the 3 classes of jaundice

A

Pre-hepatic
Hepatic
Post-hepatic

Divided based on

387
Q

How does bilirubin become conjugated

A

Facilitated by the enzyme glucuronyl transferase, it becomes conjugated with one or 2 molecules of glucuronic acid

388
Q

Describe AST (where found, when does it enter blood)

A

Found in liver, heart, muscle and RBCs

It enters blood following injury

389
Q

What is the median age of presentation for PBC

A

Around 50

Most are diagnosed in the early stages

390
Q

What is Wilson’s disease

A

An autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of ATP7B gene
The implicated ATPase is required for copper transport
Leads to excess copper in the body - impaired hepatic transport

391
Q

What type of bilirubin is responsible for pre-hepatic jaundice

A

Unconjugated

392
Q

Describe the appearance of a pure cholesterol stone

A

Yellow, round, finely granular hard external
On transection reveals crystalline palisade

Usually radiolucent if pure cholesterol – difficult to find!

393
Q

What is the primary complication of paracetamol overdose

A

Acute liver failure

394
Q

Why are patients with liver failure given an NG tube

A

Given for aspiration risk

Although risk of pneumonia if incorrectly placed

395
Q

What is the characteristic morphological sign of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Extensive inflammation and hepatocellular injury at interface

396
Q

How do you decide whether NAC treatment is required for a suspected paracetamol overdose

A

Decision to treat based on nomogram for plasma paracetamol concentration >4 hrs post-ingestion

Treat empirically in the case of staggered OD and if it is >8 hrs post-ingestion

397
Q

What happens if a PBC patient doesn’t respond to medical treatment

A

Up to 40% do not respond to medical treatment but have a good outcome with liver transplantation so this is the option for them

398
Q

List features of PSC which support an immunological basis

A

Circulating auto-antibodies + T-lymphocytes in peripheral stroma.
Association with HLA-B8 + other MHC antigens
Association with ulcerative colitis

399
Q

NAC treatment comes with a risk of anaphylaxis - true or false

A

True

However, risk is greatest at lower plasma paracetamol concentrations – NAPQI may be protective?

400
Q

List causes of acute cholestasis

A
Biliary obstruction 
Cholangitis 
Drug induced liver injury 
Sepsis 
TPN-associated cholestasis 
Cholestasis of pregnancy 
Alcoholic hepatitis
401
Q

Describe the appearance of black pigment stones

A

They are found in the sterile gallbladder bile
Contain a mixture of calcium compounds - oxidized polymers of calcium salts from unconjugated bilirubin, small amounts of calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate etc.

75% are radiopaque
They are spiculated (spiky), molded and quite friable

402
Q

List the main underlying pathophysiology’s involved in jaundice

A

Excess production of bilirubin
Reduced hepatic uptake
Impaired conjugation
Poor excretion due to transporter deficiencies, hepatic disease or impaired bile flow.

403
Q

Describe the features of early PBC

A

patchy bile duct involvement, few portal tracts involved

404
Q

What effects can coagulopathy in acute liver failure cause

A

Easy bruising
Can progress to life threatening intracranial bleeds
As the liver is also responsible for removing coagulation factors form the circulation loss of this function can result in DIC which can also be fatal

405
Q

What gives faeces their colour

A

Stercobilin

406
Q

Why are patients with liver failure given catheters

A

Urinary and central line catheters inserted to assess fluid status

Also increase risk of infection

407
Q

How do you treat autoimmune hepatitis

A

corticosteroids and other immunosuppressants

408
Q

List some of the rarer causes of acute liver failure

A

Rarer causes include ; Budd Chiari or ischemia, metabolic disorders, malignancies ( Leukemia/lymphoma (33%), breast (30%) and colon (7%)

409
Q

How do you manage ascites

A

Fluid and salt restriction, diuretic, spironolactone and potentially paracenteses

410
Q

Describe the appearance of a cholesterol stone with more calcium carbonate phosphate + bilirubin

A

It appears more black and lamellated (many layer like onion) compared to a pure stone

Around 10-20% will contain enough calcium to make them radioopaqie

411
Q

PSC patients with advanced fibrosis or cirrhosis are at risk for HCC - true or false

A

True

412
Q

What causes chronic cholecystitis

A

It results from repeated bouts of acute cholecystitis

Associated with cholelithiasis in more than 90% of cases

413
Q

List the histological signs of PBC

A

Hallmark - lymphocytic infiltration and epithelial injury of small interlobular ducts
Another key finding is florid duct lesion (portal lymphocytic +/- granulomatous bile duct damage)

Poorly formed epithelial granulomas commonly seen in the portal tracts and can be centered on bile ducts
With disease progression you will see ductopenia and loss of bile ducts entirely

Periportal changes/accumulation of bile in periportal regions aka “cholate stasis” is common

414
Q

Which viruses can cause viral hepatitis

A

Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E

Also non-hepatotropic viruses e.g. EBV, cytomegalovirus, HSV, adenovirus, yellow fever virus

415
Q

List causes/risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma

A

age >50 years
Cholangitis
Choledocholithiasis - gallstone in the common bile duct
Cholecystolithiasis - gallstone in gallbladder
In Asia, chronic bacterial and parasitic infections have been implicated
Various driver mutations involved

416
Q

How does PSC appear on MRCP or ERCP

A

Irregular biliary strictures and dilatations

“beading” in large intra-hepatic and extra-hepatic biliary tree

417
Q

Which canicular transport protein is responsible for the movement of conjugated bilirubin

A

MRP2 - multi-drug resistant protein 2

418
Q

What causes hepatic jaundice

A

Due to some form of liver impairment (drug toxicity or hepatitis)
Leads to a decreased ability to conjugate
May have mixed picture - both conjugated and unconjugated in blood

419
Q

How is acute liver failure managed

A

All patients should be managed in intensive care as ALF often characterised by rapidly deteriorating neurological status, haemodynamic instability and renal failure, and are at high risk of complications (eg sepsis)
All patients should be assessed for suitability for a liver transplant

420
Q

Will raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin be seen on urine tests

A

No
Unconjugated bilirubin is not water soluble so cannot be excreted in the urine
SO wouldn’t show up in sample

421
Q

How are bile salts formed

A

The conjugation of bile acids and either taurine or glycine

422
Q

What effect does hepatopulmonary syndrome have

A

You get dilation of the pulmonary vessels which cause right to left shunting causing a ventilation perfusion mismatch and impairing oxygenation of blood causing hypoxemia

423
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to protein synthesis

A

Amino acids are used to synthesise protein in the liver such as albumin, CRP, clotting factors, thrombopoietin and angiotensin

424
Q

Which morphological features of chronic liver failure suggest regression

A

Thin incomplete scars associated with variable ductular reaction and architectural changes

425
Q

How does acetaldehyde cause hepatocyte injury in alcoholic liver disease

A

It is a product of alcohol dehydrogenase
Induces lipid peroxidation & acetaldehyde-protein adduct formation
This disrupts cytoskeleton & membrane function

426
Q

How do you treat PSC

A

liver transplant

427
Q

How does α1- antitrypsin deficiency affect the liver

A

Hepatocellular accumulation of the misfolded protein causes liver disease
You get hepatocyte death, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis
Increased risk of HCC

428
Q

What causes hereditary haemochromatosis

A

HHC results from a mutation involving the hemochromatosis gene (HFE) that leads to increased iron absorption from the gut

429
Q

List risk factors for cholsterolosis

A

cholesterol gallstones

obesity

430
Q

What is the first sign of coagulopathy in acute liver failure

A

Easy bruising

431
Q

Which type of liver failure is more common - acute or chronic

A

Chronic

432
Q

How is haem converted to bilirubin

A

The haem is first broken down to biliverdin by haem oxygenase before biliverdin reductase converts it to bilirubin.

433
Q

Describe urobilinogen

A

It is produced by the deconjugation of bilirubin in the colon
It colourless
Later oxidised to stercobilin or urobilin

434
Q

Necrosis caused by direct toxicity injury is seen in which cause of acute liver failure

A

Paracetamol overdose

Other drug toxicity

435
Q

Can you test to determine which type of bilirubin raised

A

Yes

This can point towards the underlying pathophysiology

436
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma

A

Gallstones - seen in 95% of cases

However, only 1-2% of patients with gallstones will develop cancer

437
Q

Which zone of the liver lobule is most sensitive to the toxic effects of : NAPQI produced by cytochrome P-450 system

A

Pericentral zone 3 hepatocytes

Seen in drug induced liver disease

438
Q

The morphology of cholestasis is always the same, regardless of cause - true or false

A

False

The morphology will vary depending on the exact cause

439
Q

Which canicular transport protein is responsible for the movement of cholesterol

A

sterolines 1 and 2

440
Q

How does oestrogen lead to cholestasis

A

oestrogen impairs bile acid secretion so it accumulates in cell along with bilirubin which backs up/ is exocytosed into the extracellular space and then the bloodstream

441
Q

What is bilirubin

A

A toxic by-product of haem breakdown

Yellow bile pigment

442
Q

How long does it take HE to develop in someone with acute liver failure

A

In progresses over days, weeks or months in ALF

443
Q

What is the function of bile salts

A

They are effective detergents so combine with cholesterol and phospholipids to form micelles
This makes the cholesterol and phospholipids soluble but also protects the biliary epithelium from the toxic effect of the bile acids

444
Q

Which autoimmune-related blood tests would be positive in PBC patients

A

Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs) – 95% positive

Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) – 20-50% +ve

Many patients have raised IgM (unknown reasons)

445
Q

List the pathological features which are hallmarks of cholestasis

A

Green-brown plugs of bile pigment in hepatocytes and dilated canaliculi

Rupture of canaliculi can lead to extravasation of bile, which is phagocytosed by Kupffer cells (found lining the sinusoids)

Accumulation of bile salts in hepatocytes results in a swollen, foamy appearance of cytoplasm “feathery degeneration” - sign of advanced disease

446
Q

Describe the pathogenies of cholesterol gallstones

A

Cholesterol is soluble in bile because it forms micelles with bile salts (acts as detergent)

When cholesterol concentrations exceed the solubilizing capacity of bile (supersaturation), cholesterol can no longer remain dispersed and nucleates into solid cholesterol monohydrate crystals.

447
Q

Which other hepatobiliary condition is seen in 5-10% of PSC cases

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

448
Q

How is urobilinogen processed

A

The majority are then oxidised to stercobilin which is then excreted in faeces.
Some is reabsorbed by the lumen and returned to the liver where they are recycled back into the bile.
Small amount reaches the kidneys and is oxidised into urobilin which can then be excreted in the urine.

449
Q

What causes portopulmonary hypertension

A

Mechanisms isn’t fully understood but thought to be due to concomitant portal Hx, excessive pulmonary vasoconstriction and vascular remodelling

450
Q

what is the medical name for gallstones

A

Cholethiasis

451
Q

How can sex impact the rate of chronic liver failure progression

A

Females generally have a lower rate of progression

452
Q

Atypical small duct PSC can progress to classic large duct PSC - true or false

A

True

~20% of cases will transform

453
Q

Can you survive without a gallbladder

A

Yes

454
Q

What are the most common causes of death in PSC

A

Liver failure and cholangiocarcinoma

455
Q

What causes the gallbladder to contract

A

Cholecystokinin

This is a peptide hormone that is synthesized by the small intestine

456
Q

Where is ALP found

A

Found in high concentrations in the liver, bile duct and bone tissues and placenta
Naturally raised in growing children - from bone

457
Q

Describe the clinical course of PSC

A

PSC follows a protracted course

Will develop cirrhosis in 10-15years

458
Q

What is the mortality rate in acute liver failure

A

Over 50%

459
Q

What is portopulmonary hypertension

A

This is rising pulmonary pressure due to liver disease

460
Q

Describe the features of progressed PBC

A

Loss of small intrahepatic bile ducts (“ductopenia”); bile accumulates in periportal or peri-septal regions

461
Q

How can renal failure be resolved in hepatorenal syndrome

A

It is resolved by restoration of liver function, such as liver transplantation

462
Q

PSC is an independent risk factor for which other cancer

A

Colon cancer - but only in those with IBD as well

463
Q

How does portopulmonary hypertension present

A

dyspnea on exertion and finger clubbing

464
Q

Describe the phase I metabolism of paracetamol

A

Only 5% is metabolised this way
The active through cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP2E) to form NAPQI which is toxic
This combines with glutathione (GSH) in hepatocytes to form a non-toxic product which can be excreted through urine

465
Q

How does haemochromatosis affect the joints

A

Causes acute synovitis due to hemosiderin deposition in joint linings

466
Q

List the characteristic of decompensation in chronic liver disease

A

Jaundice, ascites, HE, coagulopathy, hepatorenal syndrome or variceal haemorrhage

467
Q

How does PBC lead to cirrhosis

A

Fibrosis develops as a consequence of the original insult and the secondary effects of toxic bile acids retained in the liver

Ultimately results in cirrhosis.

468
Q

The large intra-hepatic ducts and extra-hepatic biliary tree and not involved in PBC - true or false

A

True

469
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of acute liver failure

A

It depends on the underlying cause
In most cases the ALF is due to massive hepatocyte necrosis +/- apoptosis causing liver failure
Hepatonecrosis occurs because they have cellular swelling and cell membrane disruption due to depletion of ATP
The necrosis can be due to direct toxic injury but is more likely to be caused by a mix of toxicity and immune mediated hepatocyte destruction

470
Q

Describe the natural history of Hep B

A

Anti-HBs antibody begins to rise following resolution of acute disease, generally after disappearance of HBsAg

If not, progression to chronic liver disease & HCC (Persistence of HBeAg)

471
Q

List risk factors for pigment gallstones

A

Asians
Chronic haemolytic anaemias
Biliary infection
GI disease (Crohn’s, ileal surgery)

472
Q

Does unconjugated bilirubin require albumin for transport

A

Yes

It is insoluble without it

473
Q

Cholestasis is a primary cause of death - true or false

A

False

not a primary cause of death but serious morbidity

474
Q

Even if the bile ducts are destroyed in PBS they can eventually regenerate - true or false

A

False

Once destroyed, regeneration of bile ducts is either not possible or inefficient

475
Q

Which type of chronic liver failure has the fastest rate of progression

A

Hep C with an HIV co-infection

476
Q

What is involved in phase II drug metabolism

A

Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate or a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, that requires further transformation to increase its polarity

477
Q

List the potential causes of death from acute liver failure

A

Raised ICP causing brainstem herniation due to the cerebral oedema in HE
Coagulopathy causing intracranial bleeds and DIC
Portal Hx causing varices which can bleed fatally or ascites which lead to SBP which can be fatal
Hepatorenal syndrome causing fluid overload, secondary infection, coma and organ failure
Hepatopulmonary Syndrome causing severe hypoxemia and respiratory failure
Multi-organ failure due to hypoperfusion from the hyperdynamic circulatory state
Cholestasis potentially leading to life threatening infection
Hypoglycaemia causing severe neurological damage and death
Metabolic acidosis in paracetamol overdose causing cardiac arrhythmia

478
Q

How does autoimmune hepatitis lead to liver failure

A

Characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation
This leads to fibrosis and necrosis
Causes cirrhosis + increasing risk for HCC development
End up with liver failure

479
Q

How should LFTs be monitored in PBC patients

A

Monitor liver function every 4 weeks for 3 months then every 3 months.

480
Q

Slow onset acute liver failure is usually caused by what

A

Viral hepatitis

Presentation over several weeks

481
Q

List obstructive causes of cholestasis

A

Causes out-with the liver

Includes: gallstones, bile duct stricture, cancer of a bile duct, cancer of the pancreas, pancreatitis

482
Q

How do you treat PBC

A

Treatment with oral ursodeoxycholic acid slows disease progression
Obeticholic acid is recommended in patients with an inadequate response to ursodeoxycholic or those who cannot tolerate it

Liver transplant is necessary in those whom medical treatment fails
Used for those who develop end-stage liver disease

483
Q

Describe how urine and faeces would appear in each type of jaundice

A

Normal urine + normal stools = pre-hepatic cause

Dark urine + normal stools = hepatic cause

Dark urine + pale stools = post-hepatic cause (obstructive)

484
Q

Where is bile secreted form

A

Hepatocytes

485
Q

How does impaired methionine metabolism

cause hepatocyte injury in alcoholic liver disease

A

It decreases glutathione which sensitizes liver to oxidative injury

486
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of calculus cholecystitis

A

Results from chemical irritation/inflammation of gallbladder by stones
This leads to distention of the gallbladder
As the gallbladder becomes distended, blood flow and lymphatic drainage are compromised, leading to mucosal ischemia and necrosis.
Prostaglandins released from the wall of the distended gallbladder contribute to mucosal and mural inflammation, distension and increased intraluminal pressure which compromises blood flow to the mucosa
Bacterial infection can be superimposed

487
Q

How does Wilson’s disease present in the eyes

A

Copper is deposited in the cornea

Causes Kayser-Fleischer rings - green to brown deposits of copper in Descemet membrane in limbus of cornea

488
Q

What LFT pattern is typically seen in PBC

A

Typical cholestatic picture: normal/raised ALT, high ALP, GGT + bilirubin

Raised ALP is a diagnostic feature

489
Q

What determines the prominence of the hepatocellular dropout and ductal reactions in acute liver failure

A

The nature and duration of the causative insult

490
Q

How is the clinical progress of paracetamol toxicity divided

A
Into 4 stages 
Stage 1 - 0-24hrs 
Stage 2 - 24-48 hrs 
Stage 3 - 48-96 hrs 
Stage 4 - >96 hours
491
Q

Chronic liver failure is one of the most frequent causes of death in the developed world - true or false

A

True

492
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in liver failure

A

Drugs metabolised in the liver

493
Q

How do you treat fat malabsorption in cholestasis

A

Dietary substitutions

In older patients, a diet that is rich in carbs and proteins can be substituted for a diet containing long-chain triglycerides.

In infants, that may not be possible, and substitution of a formula containing medium-chain triglycerides may improve fat absorption and nutrition.

494
Q

List the microscopic features of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Extensive inflammation and hepatocellular injury at interface
Numerous plasma cells in clusters and lymphocytes in cytoplasm of hepatocytes at interface –> Emperipolesis
Confluent necrosis, Panacinar necrosis, Bridging necrosis
Rosettes: a circular arrangement of hepatocytes around a dilated canaliculus

495
Q

List causes of chronic cholestasis

A
PSC 
Secondary sclerosing cholangitis 
PBC
Drug induced liver injury 
TPN-associated cholestasis 
Congestive hepatopathy Biliary atresia 
Infiltrative disorders - sarcoid
496
Q

What is acute liver disease

A

Any condition that causes inflammation or damage to the liver in an acute course (<6 months)

497
Q

What is the role of bile in the GI tract

A

It facilitates the emulsification of fat in intestinal lumen which is necessary for it to be absorbed.

498
Q

How is unconjugated bilirubin transported in the blood

A

It is bound to serum albumin

This is required as bilirubin is insoluble at physiological pH

499
Q

The biliary strictures in PSC have what effects on the patients

A

They contribute to jaundice, pruritus, episodes of bacterial cholangitis, and progression to biliary cirrhosis

500
Q

What is another name for the ampulla of Vatar

A

the hepatopancreatic ampulla

501
Q

Explain how the liver contributes to iron storage

A

The majority is stored in hepatocytes but all cells can store
Also most iron is stored in ferritin which is also produced by the liver

502
Q

Specific HLA alleles are strongly associated with autoimmune hepatitis- true or false

A

True

503
Q

Which toxic substances build up in PBC to cause secondary injury

A

bile salts, copper

Usually excreted

504
Q

In calculus cholecystitis where is the obstructing stone usually found

A

Usually present in the neck of the gallbladder or the cystic duct

505
Q

List the microscopic features of chronic viral hepatitis

A

Inflammatory cells often cross limiting plate - leads to injury of periportal hepatocytes
Fibrosis develops w/ increasing liver damage
Fibrous septa develop -> portoportal bridging

506
Q

How does NAC treat a paracetamol overdose

A

NAC is a precursor to GSH, so increases the amount of GSH available to metabolise NAPQI
Reduces the production of the toxic metabolite

NAC also enhances sulfate conjugation of unmetabolized paracetamol, functions as an anti-inflammatory and antioxidant, and has positive inotropic effects.

It also increases local nitric oxide concentrations and promotes microcirculatory blood flow, enhancing local oxygen delivery to peripheral tissues - reduces mortality?

507
Q

What is paracetamol used for

A

Used to treat mild-moderate acute/ chronic pain as well as an anti-pyrexial agent

508
Q

What is α1- antitrypsin deficiency

A

An autosomal recessive disorder of protein folding marked by very low levels of circulating α1- antitrypsin

This causes inhibition of proteases which are normally released from neutrophils at sites of inflammation

509
Q

List the microscopic liver features seen in Wilson’s disease

A

Chronic hepatitis - moderate to severe portal inflammation & hepatocyte necrosis, admixed with fatty change & features of steatohepatitis

Ballooned hepatocytes
Prominent Mallory hyaline
Perisinusoidal fibrosis - leads to cirrhosis

510
Q

Describe how Wilson’s diease affects the liver

A

Free copper taken up by hepatocytes
There is a failure to incorporate in ceruloplasmin and impaired copper excretion into bile
This causes toxic injury to the liver

511
Q

What are the two types of drug induced liver disease

A

Idiosyncratic (most common)

Dose-dependent

512
Q

What causes prehepatic jaundice

A

Increased haemolysis

Issue occurs before the bilirubin reaches the liver so will be unconjugated - live cannot keep up with demand

513
Q

1st degree relatives of those with PSC have increased risk of developing the disease - true or false

A

True

514
Q

Define acute liver failure

A

It is an acute liver illness that occurs within 26 weeks of the initial liver insult in the absence of any pre-existing liver disease
It results in encephalopathy and coagulopathy

515
Q

Excessive alcohol intake has what effect on the liver

A

Causes steatosis, dysfunction of mitochondria, microtubules and cellular membranes & oxidative stress

This can lead to inflammation and hepatocyte death

516
Q

Describe stage 2 of paracetamol toxicity

A

Occurs from 24-48hrs
You get resolution of nausea and vomiting
RUQ pain and tenderness
Deranged LFTs and PT

517
Q

What forms the common hepatic duct

A

The left and right hepatic ducts

518
Q

What is the most common cause of biliary tract disease

A

Gallstones

More than 90% of biliary tract disease is attributable to them

519
Q

What are ALT, AST, ALP and GGT used for when analysing LFTs

A

They are used to distinguish between hepatocellular damage and cholestasis.

520
Q

Which conditions can cause bilirubin transporter deficiencies

A

Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndromes - autosomal recessive conditions

521
Q

What is considered a therapeutic excess of paracetamol

A

Doses consistently <75mg/kg in 24hrs are unlikely to be toxic, but this risk increases if taken consistently and repeatedly over >2 days

522
Q

Which enzyme converts biliverdin to bilirubin

A

biliverdin reductase

523
Q

How can chronic liver disease progress once it has developed

A

It will either remain compensated with adequate liver function which may or may not have symptoms
OR
they can decompensate

524
Q

What is the common underlying pathophysiology in all cases of cholangiocarcinoma

A

Chronic inflammation

525
Q

What are the characteristic features of hemochromatosis

A

Deposition of hemosiderin in liver, pancreas, myocardium, pituitary gland, adrenal gland etc.
Cirrhosis
Pancreatic fibrosis

526
Q

How does α1- antitrypsin deficiency cause hepatocyte death

A

Mutant polypeptide misfolds and aggregates
This causes ER stress
and triggers the unfolded protein response, a signaling cascade that may lead to apoptosis
This can result in hepatocyte death

527
Q

What is the mechanism of death in acetaminophen overdose related to Liver

A

Acute hepatic failure

In severe overdoses the injury affects all parts of the lobules, resulting in acute hepatic failure.

ALF causessevereinjury and massivenecrosisof hepatocytes resulting insevere liver dysfunctionthat can lead to multi-organ failure and death

528
Q

In developing countries, what are the most common causes of acute liver failure

A

Hepatitis A, B and E are the leading causes worldwide and are also more common in the developing countries

529
Q

Acute calculus cholecystitis can occur in the absence of bacterial infection - true or false

A

True
The initial events can occur in the absence of bacterial infection but later in the course bacterial infection may be superimposed and exacerbate the inflammatory process

530
Q

Which antibody is commonly seen in PSC patients

A

Atypical pANCA (MPO-ANCA) targeting a nuclear envelope protein is seen in 65%

531
Q

Describe the epidemiology of chronic liver failure (using US numbers)

A

In the US 4.5 million adults ( 1.8% of the adult population) have CLF with 41,473 deaths annually on average from the disease

532
Q

How can cholangiocarcinoma spread

A

direct extension into other organs
Fistula formation,
Peritoneal and biliary spread
Metastasis to the liver and portahepatic lymph nodes occur

533
Q

List factors which support an immune-mediated process behind PBC

A

Raised immunoglobulins, esp. IgM
Abundant autoantibodies – antimicrobial antibody (AMA) against E2 component of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDC-E2).
Granulomas in the liver and regional lymph nodes.
Association with other autoimmune diseases e.g., Sjogren syndrome, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, scleroderma.

534
Q

What is hepatic encephalopathy

A

A group of changes to consciousness ranging from subtle changes in behaviour to severe confusion and stupor to coma and death

535
Q

Define liver failure

A

When 80-90% of the patients liver function is lost and it is no longer able to perform the tasks required of it
It usually results in encephalopathy and coagulopathy

536
Q

What is the main treatment for both acute and chronic liver failure

A

Liver transplant

Once the liver can no longer carry out its normal function and maintain homeostasis this is the best chance of survival
Without mortality is 80%

Should also try to treat the underlying cause

537
Q

How is NAC administered in a paracetamol overdose

A

Given as IV infusion as a standard regime based on patient weight
Originally 3-bag but now moving towards 2 bags over shorter period

538
Q

α1- antitrypsin deficiency can cause which disease

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - most common manifestation in adults
Chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis - more likely to occur in children

539
Q

Does end stage liver disease always include cirrhosis

A

No

540
Q

What type of cancer are most common in cholangiocarcinoma

A

More than 95% are adenocarcinomas

Most are of the infiltrating nodular or diffusely infiltrating type
Purely nodular or papillary are less frequent subtypes.