Seminar 1 - Pneumonia Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of HSV1 encephalitis

A

Virus enters brain – via trigeminal nerve or reactivation in brain itself
Virus PAMPs recognised by TOL receptors of innate immune cells
Inflammatory response triggered leading to necrosis and apoptosis of viral cells and brain cells
Leads to swelling, oedema and raised ICP

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2
Q

Describe the structure of a foreign body granuloma

A

Foreign materials found in the center of the granuloma
Sometimes found within giant cells
There will be epithelioid cells & giant cells on the surface of the foreign body

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3
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of a cerebral abscess

A

Bacteria enter the brain
Recognized by TOL receptors on astrocytes and microglia
Initiate the inflammatory response compromising the BBB and bringing peripheral inflammatory cells to the site causing massive inflammation and abscess formation
Fibroblasts from the vessel walls in the granulation tissue then contribute to the capsule formation

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4
Q

Describe the difference between gram positive and gram negative

A

Gram positive organisms have a thick peptoglycan layer and single phospholipid bilayer in cell wall
Gram negatives have 2 phospholipid bilayers and a thin peptoglycan layer in their cell wall
Gram positive will stain purple (as thick layer can retain dye) whereas gram negative stains pink (dye is washed out)

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5
Q

How do viruses infect a cell

A

They bind to receptors on host cells and enters them where they use the cell to replicate their own DNA
Products can trigger cell death

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6
Q

Name the 4 main types of acute inflammation

A

Serous inflammation
Fibrinous inflammation
Purulent inflammation and abscesses
Ulcers

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7
Q

What is primary TB

A

When disease occurs in previously unexposed individual

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8
Q

What are club cells

A

Cells found in cuboidal epithelium in the respiratory system that have roles in immune modulation, surfactant production, and detoxification
They are secretory and non-ciliated

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9
Q

What are the signs of constrictive pericarditis

A

Muffled heart sounds,
Raised JVP
Oedema (incl. hepato and splenomegaly)

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10
Q

What is the purpose of granuloma formation

A

It is a cellular attempt to contain an offending agent that is difficult for the body to get rid of

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11
Q

Which type of inflammation is more likely to lead to scarring - acute or chronic

A

Chronic

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12
Q

How do you diagnose pericarditis

A

Blood tests (FBC, U&E cardiac enzymes)
Appropriate test for underlying cause
Echo (effusion) or CXR (cardiomegaly)

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13
Q

How does tissue necrosis cause inflammation

A

Dying cells release molecules which stimulate the inflammatory response
This includes uric acid from DNA breakdown and ATP from the mitochondria
Picked up by receptors on other cells - signal of cell damage
Inflammation will occur regardless of the cause of cell death (trauma, ischaemia etc.)

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14
Q

What structures are considered part of the upper respiratory tract

A

all of the structures above the vocal folds: nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses and the pharynx (split into naso- oro- and laryngo-)
Sometimes includes the larynx

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15
Q

What cell types are found in the alveoli

A

Type 1 alveolar cells cover 95% of the surface and are simple squamous epithelium, providing a permeable barrier for gases
Type 2 alveolar cells produce surfactant and are involved in alveolar repair since they can proliferate and give rise to type I alveolar cells
Also find resident alveolar macrophages which digest particles which have been missed by the mucous lining of the airway.

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16
Q

What is the definition of transmissibility

A

How easily pathogens are spread i.e. the proportion of persons exposed to a pathogen who are infected by it

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17
Q

What are the 2 main types of granuloma

A

Foreign body granulomas

Immune granuloma

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18
Q

What is the definition of a pathogen

A

A microorganism (or virus) that causes disease

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19
Q

How do you diagnose streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

No specific test

Diagnosis is made if organ failure and low blood pressure is found in a patient with a group A strep infection

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20
Q

What causes a cerebral abscess

A

Usually bacterial infection

Common organisms: strep and staph

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21
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cerebral abscesses

A
More common in developing countries 
Men Vs Women almost 3:1
Most at risk groups:
Men< 30
Children aged 4-7
Neonates 
PWIDs 
Immunocompromised
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22
Q

How do infections spread locally

A

By releasing toxins or enzymes they can move through tissues by causing damage

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23
Q

What are the microscopic features of an empyema

A

A a high neutrophil count and large numbers of other leukocytes.

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24
Q

What is meningitis

A

Inflammation/ infection of all 3 layers of the meninges surrounding the brain

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25
Q

How can we distinguish between strep throat (bacterial) and viral causes of URTI

A

The following symptoms suggest a virus is the cause of the illness instead of strep throat: cough, runny nose, hoarseness and conjunctivitis

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26
Q

What is the definition of infection

A

The invasion and multiplication of pathogens in the body causing damage to tissues/ triggering an immune response

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27
Q

What are the macroscopic features of meningitis

A

Dense exudate covering the surface of the brain - worse in some areas
Prominent engorged blood vessels protruding from surface

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28
Q

What cancers affect the larynx

A

Most commonly squamous cell carcinoma
Less commonly adenocarcinoma
Affects the supraglottis most commonly

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29
Q

How much fluid is normally found in the pleural space

A

Normally there is less than 15ml in the space to lubricate the surfaces

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30
Q

Describe the appearance of lobar pneumonia

A

Confluent consolidation involving entire lung lobe.

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31
Q

When is complete resolution most likely to occur

A

When the injury is limited or short lived
When the damaged cells are able to regenerate due to limited tissue destruction
Also depends on that particular tissues capacity for regeneration
e.g. Liver can, heart and brain cannot

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32
Q

What are the symptoms of adherence mediastinopericarditis

A
Systolic indrawing of diaphragm 
Pulsus paradoxus (systolic drops by at least 10mmHg on inspiration)
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33
Q

What is chronic inflammation

A

A response of prolonged duration (weeks or months) in which inflammation, tissue injury, and attempts at repair coexist in varying combinations
In response to persistent stimuli or those that are hard to destroy

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34
Q

What are the two main subtypes of chronic pericarditos

A

Adherence mediastinopericarditis and constrictive pericarditis

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35
Q

What is the definition of a virus

A

A core of nucleic acid surrounded by a protein shell that can only reproduce in a living cell
Not classed as a microorganism

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36
Q

What causes fibrinous/serofibrinous pericarditis

A

Acute MI, trauma, cardiac surgery, uraemia and cancer.

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37
Q

What causes serous pericarditis

A

Mainly caused by non-infectious inflammatory disease (rheum fever, SLE, scleroderma)
Infections in nearby tissue (if they cause enough irritation)
Viral infections in other areas of the body (URTI, lung) can sometimes lead onto it
Tumours if they invade the pericardium or nearby lymph nodes

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38
Q

How do you diagnose an empyema

A

Signs of effusion on CXR
Yellow and turbid fluid on aspiration
Presents as exudate on analysis with high neutrophil count

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39
Q

How does a cerebral abscess cause death

A

Raises ICP which affects perfusion or causes herniation

This damages the respiratory and cardiac centers in the brainstem

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40
Q

Describe adherence mediastinopericarditis

A

Fibrotic adhesions attach the heart to surrounding structures in the mediastinum.
The heart works harder as each contraction is pulling against new resistance - can lead to cardiac hypertrophy and dilation

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41
Q

Describe the histology of the pleura

A

The pleura are a serous membrane formed of simple squamous cells also called the mesothelium
This layer faces into the pleural space
Underneath is a supporting layer of connective and elastic tissues

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42
Q

How long does it take a cerebral abscess to form

A

Takes about 2 weeks from point of infection

Symptoms may start to arise at any point during abscess formation

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43
Q

Define drug resistant TB

A

Classed as resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid with or without any other resistance.
Requires a regime of at least 6 anti-TB drugs to which the mycobacterium is likely to be sensitive.

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44
Q

Describe the structure and histology of the bronchioles

A

<1mm diameter
No cartilage or glands but some goblet cells
Epithelium decreases in height from columnar to cuboidal as it descends the respiratory tree to the smallest bronchiole

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45
Q

What are the symptoms of an empyema

A

Usually begins as a pneumonia or another infection (and their symptoms)
Then develops a recurring fever

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46
Q

What is the definition of a commensal

A

An organism that lives in or on, and benefits from, another organism
The host receives no benefit but is not harmed.
May be part of body’s normal flora

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47
Q

What are the common pathogens that enter via the skin

A

Epidermal injury – Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes
Needles – HIV, Hep C
Bites – malaria, rabies, Lyme’s disease
Superficial infections – dermatophytes (fungi)

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48
Q

Which cell types are involved in an immune granuloma

A

Activated Th1 cells produce cytokines like interferon gamma which activated macrophages
Some parasitic infections can trigger a Th2 response and eosinophils

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49
Q

How do leukocytes reach the site of injury

A

They enter the tissues through the gaps in endothelial cells
Mediated by adhesion molecules and chemokines
Margination - move to the outside of lumen due to stasis
They roll along the endothelium and then bind to integrins
Move across the wall and then follow the chemical signals to the site of damage where they become active
They are key to eliminating the inflammatory trigger

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50
Q

What is the definition of a bacteria

A

A unicellular microorganism that has an organised nucleus and usually a cell wall but lacks organelles
Some have the ability to cause disease

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51
Q

What are the risk factors for streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

Age 65+
These with chronic illness (diabetes, alcohol use)
Breaks in the skin (recent surgery etc.)

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52
Q

What is vertical transmission

A

From mother to foetus or newborn
Mother infected in pregnancy can pass it on to growing foetus which may cause defects
Babies can pick up infections when passing through the birth canal such as chlamydia
Some pathogens can be passed through breast milk (HIV, Hep B)

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53
Q

What are the terminal bronchioles

A

The final and smallest bronchioles not involved in gas exchange (end of conducting zone)
Beyond this are the respiratory bronchioles

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54
Q

Describe fibrinous inflammation

A

Occurs when there is greater vascular permeability (as fibrinogen is a large molecule) or when there is a pro-coagulant stimuli (e.g. cancer)
Commonly seen in inflammation of the linings of body cavities (e.g. pericardium)
Fibrin is formed and deposited in extracellular space and can form mesh-like structures
Then either dissolved by fibrinolysis and cleared by macrophages or it develops into scarring

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55
Q

What causes haemorrhagic pericarditis

A

The most common cause is metastases to the pericardial space.
Other causes include cardiac surgery, infection, underlying bleeding disorders or TB.

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56
Q

How is the innate immune system activated in sepsis

A

Infection causes release of pro-inflammatory cytokines and other inflammatory mediators
Activation of the complement system to signpost the infection site and upregulates the immune response

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57
Q

What are the main types of meningitis

A

Bacterial - most common
Viral
Chronic
Non-infectious

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58
Q

Describe the histology of the oropharynx

A

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

It is different from the rest of the URT as it has to transmit both air and swallowed food

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59
Q

Which individuals are at higher risk of HAP

A

Those with severe underlying disease, immunosuppression, prolonged antibiotic therapy, or invasive access devices, e.g. intravascular catheters.
Mechanical ventilation is particualrly high risk

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60
Q

What is the definition of virulence

A

The pathogenic ability of a microbe ( their ability to cause disease)
Used a measure of severity

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61
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of TB

A

M. tuberculosis uses host receptors to enter host macrophages via phagocytosis
The bacteria replicates within alveolar macrophages and prevents itself being killed
Its proliferation within macrophages and air spaces results in a bacteremia and multiple seeding sites Most still asymptomatic at this stage
Around 3 weeks post-infection, a TH1-mediated response is initiated and leads to granulomatous inflammation

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62
Q

What are the 3 main outcomes of inflammation

A

Complete resolution
Healing by connective tissue replacement/ scarring
Progression to chronic inflammation

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63
Q

What infections usually affect the larynx

A

Laryngitis is the main disease and can be an isolated infection but is more commonly a feature of generalized URTI
H.influenza can lead to laryngoepiglottitis
Croup - laryngotracheobronchitis

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64
Q

Define a transudate

A

Fluid is low in protein (pleural:serum ratio < 0.5)
Pleural LDH: serum LDH <0.6
Low specific gravity
No cells present

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65
Q

List the 5 R’s of inflammation

A

Recognition of the offending agent/stimulus by receptors on inflammatory cells
Recruitment of leukocytes and plasma proteins into the tissues
Removal of the stimulus by phagocytosis
Regulation of the response
Repair (regeneration and/or scarring)

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66
Q

What are zoonotic illnesses

A

Those which spread from animals to humans via bites or consumption of animal products

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67
Q

How would a CSF sample appear in viral meningitis

A

Not purulent
Lymphocytes present
Moderate protein elevation
Normal glucose content

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68
Q

What are the risk factors for cerebral abscesses

A

Immunocompromise
Bacterial endocarditis
Bronchiectasis

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69
Q

What are the microscopic features of meningitis

A

Subarachnoid space filled with neutrophilic exudate

Also has enlarged blood vessels

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70
Q

Describe caseous pericarditis

A

This subtype is commonly seen in TB patients.
There will be focal regions of caseation in the pericardium.
Presents very similarly to purulent/suppurative

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71
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of a pleural effusion

A

May be asymptomatic
Shortness or breath and pleuritic pain
Stony/dull percussion, reduced chest expansion, vocal resonance and air entry on affected side
Trachea may deviate away from affected side if severe

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72
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Children and young adults

Often get local epidemics (schools etc)

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73
Q

What organisms are common cause of lung abscesses

A

Staphylococci, streptococci, numerous gram-neg species, and anaerobes are implicated.
Mixed infections are common due to aspiration being a common cause

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74
Q

What are the main causative organisms in aspiration pneumonia

A

A mixed picture of anaerobic oral flora and aerobic bacteria
Oral: bacteroides, prevotella, fusobacterium, pepto-streptococcus.
Aerobes: Strep. Pneumonia, staph. Aureus, h. influenzae, pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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75
Q

What are the 4 main routes of infection into the CNS

A

Haematogenous - most common
Direct implantation - usually after trauma or surgery, may be due to malformations that allow access
Local extension - sinuses, teeth, skull or vertebrae are the most commo
Along peripheral nerves (for viruses like zoster)

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76
Q

Describe the pathological appearance of a secondary TB infection

A

Usually affects the lung apices
Florid cavitation occurs - tissue damage more extensive
Initial lesion in secondary infection tends to be small, well-circumscribed, firm, grey-white to yellow in colour and with variable degrees of caseation and fibrosis

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77
Q

Describe an ulcer

A

A local defect/excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing (shedding) of inflamed necrotic tissue
Occur only when tissue necrosis & resultant inflammation exist on/near a surface

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78
Q

What are the common symptoms and signs of pericarditis

A

Sharp, central pleuritic pain, may be better on leaning forward, worse on inspiration or lying flat
Fever
Pericardial rub
Saddle shaped ST elevation on ECG
May have congestive symptoms if there’s an effusion (SOB etc.)

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79
Q

What is the definition of incubation period

A

The time between exposure to a pathogen and the development of symptoms

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80
Q

How does fibrinous/serofibrinous pericarditis present

A

Classic pericarditis symptoms
If there is a significant volume of fluid the rub may be diminished
Microscopically the fluid is made up of serous fluid and fibrinous exudate

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81
Q

What are the 2 main complications of chronic inflammation

A

Abscess

Granuloma

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82
Q

What are the symptoms of peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscesses

A

Severe pain
Difficulty swallowing
Breathing difficulty - if it obstructs the airway

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83
Q

What is granulomatous inflammation

A

A form of chronic inflammation characterized by collections of activated macrophages, often with T lymphocytes (sometimes associated with necrosis)

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84
Q

Describe the epidemiology of TB

A

Leading cause of death worldwide from a single infectious agent (above HIV/AIDS)
Highest incidence in South-East Asia

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85
Q

What is the benefit of granulomatous inflammation in TB

A

In most, this response will halt the infection response to avoid significant tissue destruction
More likely to progress to caseous necrosis in the elderly and immunosuppressed (particularly HIV+)

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86
Q

What are the pathological features of TB

A

Granulomatous inflammation – accumulation & aggregation of activated macrophages (“epithelioid” cells), some may fuse to form giant cells
Caseating granulomas are characteristic - central necrosis is surrounded by lymphocytes and activated macrophages
The combination of granulomatous lesions in the lung parenchyma + lymph nodes = Ghon complex

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87
Q

Define hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Defined as pulmonary infections acquired >48hrs after hospital admission

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88
Q

Which pathogens are the most common cause of bacterial meningitis

A
Strep pneumonia,
Neisseria meningitides
E.coli
Group B strep 
Listeria monocytogenes
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89
Q

What is the role of macrophages in chronic inflammation

A

They are the dominant cell type
They secrete cytokines and growth factors to activate other cells such as lymphocytes - stimulate inflammatory response
hey also ingest harmful pathogens and cellular debris and also initiate repair

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90
Q

How does streptococcal toxic shock syndrome present

A

Begins with fever and chills, muscle aches, nausea and vomiting
24-48 hours later the blood pressure drops and symptoms develop: tachycardia, tachypnea and other signs of organ failure e.g. bleeding/ bruising, jaundice

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91
Q

What are some of the complications of treating a cerebral abscess

A
Mainly complications of the craniotomy
Blood clot needing further surgery 
Brain swelling
CSF leak 
Movement of the skull cap 
Infection 
Seizure
Stroke
Nerve damage 
Loss of mental function
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92
Q

What is complete resolution

A

When the site is returned to normal once the inflammatory reaction is complete

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93
Q

Why are women more susceptible to infections of the urinary tract

A

They have a much shorter urethra so pathogens don’t have to travel as far

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94
Q

How does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occur

A

Strep products can lead to formation of immune complexes that get deposited in the kidneys
Not a strep infection in the kidneys! It is the immune response and complexes which cause it
Produces a local inflammatory reaction in the kidney which leads to injury

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95
Q

What organisms commonly cause meningitis in the immunocomprimised

A

Listeria, TB, Klebsiella, cryptococcus neoformans, anerobics

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96
Q

How do neutrophils and macrophages aid the inflammatory response

A

They can ingest and destroy the pathogens

Macrophages also produce growth factors to aid repair

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97
Q

What is a cerebral abscess

A

A thin walled, discrete collection of suppurative material within the brain parenchyma often with inflammation surrounding it.

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98
Q

In young people pericarditis often occurs alongside which other condition

A

Myocarditis

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99
Q

Describe the histology of the nasal cavity

A

Vestibule (initial part) = keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
As you move deeper into cavity, the keratin is lost and eventually becomes respiratory epithelium
There is specialized olfactory epithelium found in the roof of the nose to allow smell

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100
Q

What are the 3 main types of nasopharyngeal cancer

A

Keratinising squamous cell carcinoma (worst prognosis)
Non-keratinising carcinoma (undifferentiated) and non-keratinising carcinoma (differentiated)
Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma

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101
Q

What are the systemic features of a secondary TB infection

A

Low grade fever
Night sweats
Weight loss
Pleuritic pain if it extends into pleura

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102
Q

How do you treat a pleural effusion

A

Slow and controlled drainage- through appropriate pleural space
Pleurodesis with talc if recurrent - sticks layers together to obliterate space, prevents fluid accumulating
Surgery if there is recurrent collections and thickening of the pleura

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103
Q

Describe constrictive pericarditis

A

A dense fibrotic scar surrounds the heart.
This restricts the heart’s movement and therefore function
Hypertrophy is not possible as the heart is encased
Cardiac output may be reduced but also cant increase in response to normal systemic needs

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104
Q

What organisms commonly cause meningitis in the elderly

A

Strep pneumo > listeria

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105
Q

Describe how vasodilation occurs in the inflammatory process

A

Mediators of inflammation such as histamine act on the smooth muscle to induce dilation

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106
Q

How do Miliary TB and TB meningitis occur

A

Haematogenous spread of a primary TB infection

Rare occurrence

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107
Q

What are the potential outcomes of an empyema

A

Can resolve but more commonly organisation occurs and it leaves a dense fibrous adhesion
This will affect lung expansion

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108
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation

A

It is a protective mechanism
It rids the body of the initial cause of cell injury (microbes, toxins etc.)
It also rids the host of the consequences of such injury like necrotic cells and tissues

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109
Q

What are the common pathogens that infect the upper respiratory tract

A

Rhinovirus
Adenoviruses
Influenza viruses

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110
Q

How do you determine whether fluid is a exudate or transudate

A

Aspiration and analysis of the sample

Further cytology and cellular counts can indicate underlying cause - e.g. Find malignant cells

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111
Q

What are the major complication of a strep throat infection

A

Peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscesses
Rheumatic fever
Glomerulonephritis
Toxic shock syndrome.

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112
Q

How does meningitis cause death

A

Viral tends not to be fatal
Bacterial can cause raised ICP and herniation
Can also cause sepsis and subsequent septic shock

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113
Q

What happens when group A strep infects the URT

A

It causes acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis otherwise known as “strep throat”
Infections can range from minor, self-limiting illnesses to severely debilitating, deadly diseases

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114
Q

What happens when the endothelium becomes activated due to sepsis

A

Loosened endothelial junctions mean that proteins can pass through
Vessels become ‘leaky’ leading to widespread interstitial oedema

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115
Q

What are the clinical features of HSV1 encephalitis

A
Fever
Malaise
Headache
Nausea
Altered mental state- confusion, memory problems 
Seizures 
Focal neurological deficits
Personality changes 
Reduced consciousness, coma and stupor
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116
Q

Which part of the brain is most commonly affected by HSV1 encephalitis

A

Temporal lobe

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117
Q

What are the 4 main causes of inflammation

A

Infections
Tissue necrosis
Foreign bodies
Immune reactions

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118
Q

How does breaching the epithelial surface allow infection

A

Breaks in the physical epithelial barrier can allow pathogens to enter the body
Any form of injury (needles, bites, cuts) can allow pathogens in

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119
Q

What are the most common sites for ulcer formation

A

Mucosa of mouth, stomach, intestines or genitourinary tract

Skin & subcutaneous tissue of the lower extremities in those with vascular insufficiency (diabetes)

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120
Q

When does streptococcal toxic shock syndrome occur

A

Occur when the strep get into the bloodstream (across mucus membranes)

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121
Q

Name the recesses formed by the pleura

A

Costodiaphragmatic and costomediastinal recesses

These are clinically relevant as this is where fluid will collect

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122
Q

What is the definition of colonization

A

The presence of bacteria on a body surface which is not causing disease in the host

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123
Q

How do foreign bodies cause inflammation

A

Presence alone may cause inflammation - identified as non-self antigens
The trauma caused by them entering the body can be the cause or this can introduce microbes
Some substances produced by the body itself can lead to inflammation if the are deposited in large amounts in tissue (e.g. Urate crystals in gout)

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124
Q

What is the definition of a saprophyte

A

An organism that grows and feeds on dead or decaying organic material.
A lot of fungi come under this group too

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125
Q

Describe the pathological appearance of a lung abscess

A

May be single or multiple and vary in size
Will have a suppurative central destruction of lung tissue within the central area of cavitation
Central cavity may be filled with pus or air
If chronic they will be surrounded by a reactive fibrotic wall

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126
Q

How do infections cause inflammation

A

Different pathogens will elicit the immune response through different means such as toxins, host response etc
Reaction can be mild to severe

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127
Q

How does purulent/suppurative pericarditis present

A

Classic symptoms + symptoms of systemic infection
Macroscopic findings include: reddened and granular serous surfaces with exudate covering it and the exudate which ranges from cloudy serosal fluid to frank pus.

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128
Q

Define an exudate

A

Fluid is high in protein content (pleural:serum ratio > 0.5)
Contains cells from the blood
Pleural LDH: serum LDH >0.6 or more than 2/3 of normal upper limit for serum

129
Q

When does healing by connective tissue replacement/ scarring occur

A

After substantial tissue destruction
When the tissues involved in the injury are incapable of regeneration
When there is abundant fibrin exudation that cannot be adequately cleared
Common in the body cavities (pleura etc.)

130
Q

What is the most common cause of purulent inflammation

A

Infection with a pyogenic bacteria
This is a bacteria that causes liquefactive tissue necrosis
One example is staphylococci

131
Q

What is chronic pericarditis

A

This when there is organisation of the inflammation (scar formation)
This leads to fibrous thickening of the serosal membrane or even thin adhesions.

This doesn’t always impact heart function but can effectively destroy the pericardial space or restrict heart movement

132
Q

What is the definition of a fungi

A

A large and varied group of eukaryotes that are either parasitic or saprophytic
Some can act as pathogens in humans.
They produce spores and feed on organic matter
Includes molds and yeast

133
Q

What is the common symptom of pleuritis

A

Pleuritic pain is common as that tissues are inflamed

134
Q

What are the usual defenses of the respiratory system

A

Large microorganisms are trapped in the mucocilliary system and sent to GI tract
Smaller ones are phagocytosed by macrophages in the alveoli

135
Q

What are the risk factors for nasopharyngeal cancer

A

Being of south Chinese or north African descent
A diet very high in salt-cured meats and fish
Exposure to EBV
Regular exposure to hardwood dust
Family history
Exposure to HPV virus
About 3 times as many men as women are affected

136
Q

What are the main causes of URTI

A

Almost always viruses (rhinovirus, coronavirus, adenovirus, influenza)
Bacteria is rare - around 15% of acute pharyngitis only (strep throat)

137
Q

Chlamydia psittaci causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Bird owners (typically parrots)

138
Q

How do viruses reach the meninges

A

Infected with the virus and then it enters the blood, travels across the BBB to infect the brain

139
Q

What are the risk factors for laryngeal carcinomas

A

Smoking - biggest
Regular drinking large amounts of alcohol
Family history of head/neck cancer
Unhealthy diet
Exposure to certain chemicals and substances, such as asbestos and coal dust

140
Q

How do you treat a peritonsillar or retropharyngeal abscesses

A

May need to be drained by an ENT specialist

Can improve on their own

141
Q

What causes a foreign body granuloma

A

Inert foreign bodies that are too large or complex to be broken down (e.g. fibers, talc, sutures)
They induce inflammation in the absence of T cell-mediated immune response

142
Q

How do you treat nasopharyngeal cancer

A

External beam radiotherapy, sometimes supplemented with chemotherapy
Surgery doesn’t have a major role unless for biopsy, radiation resistant tumours or local recurrence

143
Q

What is the main feature of purulent inflammation

A

Production of pus - an exudate consisting of high number of neutrophils, debris from dead cells and oedema fluid

144
Q

What are the features of an acutely inflamed ulcer

A

Polymorphonuclear infiltration

Vascular dilation in margins of defect

145
Q

Strep pneumonia causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Commonest cause of CAP so affects all ages

Especially in elderly, immunocompromised, alcoholics and those with HF or existing lung disease

146
Q

What are the symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

Migratory polyarthritis
Fever
Symptoms of heart failure (chest pain, SOB, tachycardia)
Chorea

147
Q

What organisms commonly cause meningitis in infants

A

E coli
Group B strep
Listeria

148
Q

How does healing by connective tissue replacement/ scarring occur

A

As it says on the tin
Connective tissue grows in the area of inflammation (organisation)
Granulation tissue fills the site of injury
It is progressively replaced by collagen which is called fibrosis - scar

149
Q

What is secondary TB

A

When disease occurs in previously exposed host

The infection can reactivate and cause TB if host immunity declines (risk is around 5-10%)

150
Q

How do infections spread through the lymphatic system

A

Can either access directly or carried in immune cells (macrophages or lymphocytes)
From lymph nodes, pathogens can access the bloodstream

151
Q

What is the definition of infectious period

A

The time in which a host can spread the disease and infect others

152
Q

Describe the histology of the bronchus

A
Lined by respiratory epithelium 
Has ring of smooth muscle under lamina 
propria 
Has adipose tissue &amp; submucosal glands in submucosa.
Irregular cartilage plates are found
153
Q

How do you treat an empyema

A

Drainage and treat the underlying cause

154
Q

What is an empyema

A

Purulent pleural exudate
They form when bacteria spreads into the pleural space
Forms localised areas of yellow/green pus that usually becomes walled off by fibrosis

155
Q

How do bacteria reach the meninges

A

Skull fracture, head surgery, cribiform plate fracture
Spread from a local infection ie sinusitis
Haematogenous spread from another infection site
Haematogenous spread from nasopharyngeal colonisation

156
Q

What are the macroscopic features of laryngeal carcinomas

A

In most cases they are obvious following inspection of the larynx with a laryngoscope
Surface is usually smooth, white or reddened with focal thickenings
May have keratosis or ulcerated regions

157
Q

How does sexual transmission lead to infection

A

Prolonged and unprotected mucosal contact
Microtrauma allows entry to bloodstream
Passed via bodily fluids
Can be systemic or affect reproductive tract

158
Q

Describe the appearance of bronchopneumonia

A

Patchy exudative consolidative with focal areas of acute suppurative inflammation
Can be confined to one lobe but tend to be bilateral and basal due to the tendency of secretions to gravitate to the lower lobes

159
Q

How long do symptoms of an URTI typically last

A

7-10 days (can persist up to 3 weeks)

160
Q

How do you treat constrictive pericarditis

A

Surgical resection of the constricting tissue (pericardiotomy)

161
Q

What are the macroscopic features of encephalitis

A

Temporal/frontal necrosis

Haemorrhage

162
Q

Staph aureus causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Often complicates viral illness.

Young, elderly, PWID, underlying disease (e.g. leukaemia, lymphoma, CF).

163
Q

Which patients are at risk of aspiration pneumonia

A

Reduced consciousness – alcoholism, drug overdose, general anaesthesia, seizure.
Oesophageal conditions – dysphagia, GORD
Neurologic disorders – MS, dementia
Mechanical conditions – NG tube, endotracheal intubation, GI endoscopy, other feeding tubes.
Protracted vomiting
General debilitation
Poor dental hygiene.

164
Q

What proportion of primary TB infection are progressive

A

Only 5%
Will resemble a bacterial pneumonia (lobar consolidation and pleural effusions)
Caseous necrosis occurs - usually around a granuloma and reginal lymph node
This area becomes known as a ghon focus

165
Q

What are some of the long term complications of a cerebral abscess

A

Seizures
Loss of mental acuity
Focal neurological deficits

166
Q

Describe how a fibrinous exudate can form a scar

A

Fibrin is deposited
If not removed it will stimulate the ingrowth of fibroblasts and blood vessels
This forms the scar

167
Q

What causes purulent/suppurative pericarditis

A

An active infection that invades the pericardium.

Can be direct invasion, lymphatic, haematogenous or seeded during surgery

168
Q

How does an empyema form

A

Via bacterial seeding into the pleural space

This most commonly occurs through direct spread from the lungs but can be lymphatic or haematogenous

169
Q

Describe the mechanisms of increased vascular permeability in inflammation

A

Gaps in between endothelial cells can open (cells retract)
This is caused by histamine

Endothelial injury - can lead to necrosis and detachment
This can be due to either physical damage or the action of microbes or inflammatory cells

170
Q

What are the physiological defenses of the nasopharynx

A

Nasal hairs, ciliated epithelia and IgA

171
Q

What is the most common complication of aspiration pneumonia

A

Lung abscess is often seen in surviving patients

172
Q

What conditions are more likely to lead to bronchopneumonia

A

COPD, cardiac failure (elderly), complication of viral infection, aspiration of gastric contents

173
Q

How does serous pericarditis present

A

Microscopic features: large number of lymphocytes and may have neoplastic cells if cancer is the cause.
Mild inflammatory infiltration of the epicardial fat
Presents with classic symptoms

174
Q

What are the 4 main signs of inflammation

A
Redness - caused by vasodilation
Heat  - caused by vasodilation
Pain - pressure or surrounding nerves
Oedema - caused by accumulation of exudate
Loss of function

Minor symptoms that occur with almost every

175
Q

What are the microscopic features of encephalitis

A

Cowdry A intranuclear viral inclusions

Perivascular inflammatory cells

176
Q

What are the risk factors for TB reactivation

A
New infection (<2y)
Organ transplantation
Immunosuppression,
Silicosis
Illicit drug use
Malnutrition
High-risk setting (homeless shelter, prison)
Low socio-economic status
Haemodialysis
177
Q

What are the clinical features of a lung abscess

A
Swinging fever 
Cough, haemoptysis
Purulent, foul-smelling sputum
Pleuritic chest pain
Malaise, weight loss
Check for finger/toe clubbing, anaemia, crepitations
Empyema develops in 20-30%
178
Q

How do you diagnose meningitis

A

Bloods (culture, FBC, U&E, creatinine, electrolytes, LFTs, clotting, procalcitonin, meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR, serology, glucose )
Throat swab for bacterial culture
CSF sample for microscopy and PCR

179
Q

How does fluid move through the pleura

A

It moves through this layer due to pressure gradients

It is drained primarily by the lymph system

180
Q

Describe the anatomy of the pleura

A
  • The pleura are the continuous membranes that surround each lung
    They are divided into visceral pleura (in direct contact with lung tissue) and parietal pleura (in contact with the body wall)
    The parietal pleura are further divided into 4 sections based on the area they are in contact with.
    These are: cervical, costal, diaphragmatic and mediastinal
181
Q

What are the main causes of chronic inflammation

A

It may occur on its own or follow acute inflammation
Persistent infection - some bacteria are more likely to cause chronic
Hypersensitivity or autoimmune diseases
Prolonged exposure to toxic agents

182
Q

H. influenza causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Common cause in adults, especially with COPD

In children it causes life-threatening LRTI and meningitis

183
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Elderly

184
Q

What are the risk factors for URTI

A

Smoking
Conditions such as asthma or allergic rhinitis,
Close contact with children
Poor hygiene
Immunocompromised state
Anatomical abnormalities - polyps, removed tonsils

185
Q

When does acute inflammation progress to chronic

A

When the acute inflammation cannot be resolved
May be due to persistence of stimuli or interference with normal process of healing (remaining infection, diabetes, poor perfusion etc.)

186
Q

What cell types are found in a granuloma

A

Strong activation of T lymphocytes leading to macrophage activation
Macrophages can develop abundant cytoplasm and begin to resemble epithelial cells and are called epithelioid cells
Some fuse and become multinucleated giant cells

187
Q

Describe the appearance of Miliary TB

A

Widespread seeding of TB

Foci are 2mm in diameter on average, yellow/white in colour, well-circumscribed and firm.

188
Q

What is encephalitis

A

Infection of the brain that’s within the brain parenchyma itself

May have an associated meningitis

189
Q

Define the term exudation

A

Used to describe the movement of fluid and cells from the vascular system to the body cavity or tissue

190
Q

How does a transudate form

A
  • It is basically plasma that is forced into the tissues due to an imbalance in the hydrostatic or osmotic pressure in the vessels
    If hydro is too high (e.g. heart failure and excess fluid) or is osmo is too low e.g. (decreased protein as seen in liver or kidney diseases)
191
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of a cerebral abscess

A

Purulent exudate full of neutrophils

192
Q

How do you treat rheumatic fever

A

Antibiotics (to treat group A strep)

Painkillers and steroids if pain is severe

193
Q

What are the symptoms of strep throat

A

A sore throat that can start very quickly
Pain while swallowing
Fever
Inflamed tonsils (sometimes with white patches or streaks of pus, petechiae on the soft or hard palate)
Enlarged lymph nodes in front of the neck
Children can sometimes experience nausea and vomiting, headaches and stomach pain
May also develop a rash known asscarlet fever

194
Q

How can inhalation allow infection

A

A huge number of microorganisms are inhaled each day
If they can bypass the usual defenses they can infect the respiratory tract
Pathogens are spread via respiratory droplets (larger and travel shorter distances) or as airborne particles (suspended in air)
Most respiratory infections are droplets

195
Q

Is pus an exudate or transudate

A

Exudate

Because it it contains many cell types - neutrophils and debris

196
Q

What type of inflammation can lead to abscess formation

A

Purulent -
Abscesses are localised collections of pus, produced by seeding by pyogenic bacteria into a tissue
Can indicate chronic inflammation

197
Q

How do you treat streptococcal toxic shock syndrome occur

A

Treated as a medical emergency - urgent hospital treatment

IV antibiotics

198
Q

Describe acute inflammation

A

Quick and self-limiting reaction
Usually in response to pathogens that the body can eliminate quickly such as bacteria
Will have exudation of fluid and proteins (oedema) and leukocytes will move into the area (mainly neutrophils)
Damage is usually repaired once the reaction is complete

199
Q

What causes encephalitis

A

Mainly viral - most commonly HSV1
Also CMV, rabies
Can be fungal in immunocompromised patients - e.g. acanthomeba

200
Q

Which conditions predispose you to CAP

A

Extremes of age
Chronic disease (e.g. COPD)
Immune deficiencies
Hyposplenism.

201
Q

How do you treat post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Diuretics to increase urine flow
Limit salt/water to treat oedema
Manage hypertension

202
Q

What are the 3 main components of acute inflammation

A

Vasodilation
Increased permeability of vessels
Emigration of leukocytes

203
Q

How can physical contact allow infection

A

○ Through skin shedding (sharing towels)

204
Q

Describe the pathogenies of constrictive pericarditis

A

May develop after acute pericarditis

However, can occur without a history of acute pericarditis

205
Q

What conditions are more likely to lead to lobar pneumonia

A

Usually community-acquired and in otherwise healthy young adults.

206
Q

What infections most commonly affect the nose

A

Main organisms are adenoviruses, echoviruses and rhinoviruses Inflammatory conditions such as the common cold (infective rhinitis) are the most common disease

207
Q

What are the common symptoms of URTI

A

Cough, sore throat, runny nose, nasal congestion, headache, low grade fever, facial pressure, sneezing, malaise, myalgia

208
Q

What are the clinical features of meningitis

A

Signs of background infection plus signs of meningeal irritation
Headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, aches, fever, vomiting confusion and irritability
Classic non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal infection

209
Q

What organisms commonly cause meningitis in adults

A

Strep pneumo > Neisseria meningitides

210
Q

Describe how rheumatic fever develops

A

Usually develops 1-5 weeks after strep throat

Thought to be caused by an immune response which leads to a generalized, multisystem inflammatory response

211
Q

What are the common causative organisms for HAP

A

Most commonly gram negative rods (enterobacteriaceae & pseudomonas sp.) or gram positive cocci (mainly staph. Aureus).

Also: pseudomonas, Klebsiella, Bacteroides, and clostridia

212
Q

Accumulation of serous fluid in the body cavities is given what name

A

Effusion

e.g. pleural effusion

213
Q

What are some of the potential complications of rheumatic fever

A

Risk of reactivation

Murmurs and arrhythmias

214
Q

What is respiratory epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells
It covers the majority of respiratory tract, except the initial part of the nasal cavity and the true vocal cords

215
Q

Describe the structure of an abscess

A

They have a central liquified region made of necrotic leukocytes and tissue cells
Usually a zone of preserved neutrophils around this necrotic focus
On the outside there may be vascular dilation and parenchymal and fibroblastic proliferation
May become walled off and ultimately replaced by connective tissue.

216
Q

How do you treat pericarditis

A

NSAIDs (gastric protection)
Add colchicine 500mcg OD or BD for 3 months to prevent recurrence
Treat underlying cause

217
Q

Give an example of a condition that leads to fibrinous inflammation

A

Following pericarditis
Fibrinous exudate develops within pericardial sac
This can be converted to scar tissue which leads to fibrous thickening of the pericardium
If extensive it can destroy the pericardial space

218
Q

What are the most common causes of pleuritis

A

Majority of cases arise due to inflammation of the associated lung tissue such as TB, pneumonia, abscesses or infarctions
Other causes include immunological disorders (such as RA or SLE), systemic infection , metastatic cancer affecting the pleura and radiotherapy to the lung or mediastinum

219
Q

Give an example of a condition leading to serous inflammation

A

Skin blister following a burn or viral infection
Serous fluid accumulates within the damaged epidermis
The epidermis and dermis are separated by the effusion

220
Q

Can a tissue still function if a scar forms after inflammation

A

Although pathological the tissue is usually still able to function
The scar provides structural stability
However, certain disease are the results of excess fibrosis (IPF or cirrhosis)

221
Q

What are the main symptoms of nasopharyngeal cancer

A
Alumpin the neck
Unilateral hearing loss
Tinnitus
Blocked nose 
Nose bleeds
Often not present until the cancer is advanced
222
Q

Describe the aetiology of lung abscesses

A

Can be due to aspiration of infective material (common in right lung)
Occur secondary to bacterial infection - higher risk if immunosuppressed
Obstructive tumours can lead to abscess
Infection can spread from adjacent organs or haematogenous spread of pyogenic organisms

223
Q

How long does it usually take symptoms of a URTI to begin

A

Onset of symptoms: 1-3 days post exposure

224
Q

What are the common pathogens that infect the GI tract

A

Norovirus and rotavirus
Virbrio cholerae, giardia, shigella, salmonella, H pylori
C diff in antibiotic use

225
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Debilitated and malnourished individuals

Elderly, diabetics, esp. chronic alcoholics

226
Q

What is the purpose of increased permeability in inflammation

A

It allows plasma proteins & leukocytes to leave the circulation and reach the site of damage

227
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pneumonia

A

It is the leading cause of death of children worldwide (highest rates in Sub-Saharan Africa and South East Asia)
Undernutrition, air pollution, second-hand smoke and HIV+ all contribute to pneumonia deaths

228
Q

Why does the inflammatory response need to be regulated

A

If the reaction continues once the pathogen is eliminated the body can be overwhelmed by the inflammatory response
It will end up causing more damage to tissues

229
Q

What organisms commonly cause meningitis in adolescents

A

Neisseria meningitides

230
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Immunosuppressed
Specifically in HIV+ patients
(CD4 count of around <200)

231
Q

What infections usually affect the nasopharynx

A

○ Pharyngitis and Tonsillitis
Often accompany URTI
Rhino, adeno and echo are most common causes but influenzas and RSV can also cause

232
Q

What are the clinical features of bacterial pneumonia

A

High fever, rigors, productive cough occasionally with haemoptysis.
Pleural involvement – friction rub + pleuritic chest pain.
Correct antibiotic administration significantly improves condition.

233
Q

What is the definition of inflammation

A

A response of vascularized tissues that delivers leukocytes and molecules of host defense from the circulation to the sites of infection and cell damage in order to eliminate the offending agents

234
Q

How do you diagnose constrictive pericarditis

A

CXR - small heart and calcification

CT if need to make sure not restrictive cardiomyopathy

235
Q

What is pleuritis/pleurisy

A

Pleuritis is the inflammatory form of a pleural effusion

Can be serous, serofibrinous or fibrinous but all are inflammatory in origin

236
Q

What are the complications of a lung abscess

A
Extension into pleural cavity
Haemorrhage
Septic embolization
Development of brain abscess or meningitis
Rarely - secondary amyloidosis
237
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of meningitis

A

When the pathogen reaches the meninges it triggers the inflammatory response
Tissue damage, swelling and oedema

238
Q

How do you treat laryngeal carcinoma

A

Early-stage (T1 and T2) - Surgery or radiation therapy
Moderately advanced (T3): Radiation therapy and sometimes chemotherapy
Advanced (T4): Surgery (often followed by radiation therapy +/- chemotherapy) or sometimes chemotherapy + radiation therapy

239
Q

What are the main morphological features of chronic inflammation

A

Infiltration with mononuclear cells
Tissue destruction and fibrosis
Attempts at healing by connective tissue replacement

240
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of pneumonia

A

Microorganisms, pollution and debris are inhaled but evade the usual host defences
Pathogens can disrupt these systems by attaching & proliferating locally (e.g. influenza), paralysing cilia via toxins (e.g. h. influenzae), or evading death by phagocytosis (mycobacterium tuberculosis)
Once a pathogen reaches the lungs there is immune activation and a build up of fluid and cells in the alveoli
This leads to impaired gas exchange

241
Q

How does sepsis promote coagulation

A

Many immune factors favor coagulation

Stasis in small vessels leads to formation of thrombi

242
Q

List the stages of cerebral abscess formation

A

Early cerebritis (day 1-4)
Late cerebritis (day 4-10)
Early capsule formation (day 11-14)
Late capsule formation (> 14 days)

243
Q

What is the most effective way for infection to spread

A

Via the bloodstream

From here, the pathogen can spread to all organs and produce a systemic response

244
Q

How do you treat HSV1 encephalitis

A

Acyclovir 10mg/kg every 8hrs for 14-21 days

245
Q

Which cells are recruited to the sites of inflammation

A

Leukocytes, antibodies and complement proteins
Some will have been circulating in the blood and are brought to the area via the circulation and become active (triggered by cellular signals)
Others are found in the tissues at all time and pick up invaders/changes

246
Q

What are the potential outcomes of pleuritis/ pleural effusion

A

With treatment, most cases will resolve and the fluid is absorbed.
Sometimes there is minimal fibrosis if the effusion had a fibrinous component which is reorganised
If the effusion is substantial, it can prevent the lungs from expanding fully and may even cause collapse
- This would lead to respiratory distress

247
Q

Which pathogens are the most common cause of viral meningitis

A

Enteroviruses
Influenza
Herpes simplex
Mumps

248
Q

What is pericarditis

A

Inflammation of the pericardium

Can be acute (majority) or chronic

249
Q

How do infections spread through the CNS

A

Some viruses can proliferate in peripheral nerves and then travel up the axons to access the CNS - Varicella zoster

Bacteria can reach the CNS in the bloodstream where they can proliferate in the CSF as well as tissues - Neisseria meningitidis

250
Q

What happens if the inflammatory response goes uncontrolled and becomes systemic

A

It can lead to SIRS and sepsis
Systemic features include: fever, production of acute-phase proteins, increased production of WBC, increased pulse and BP, rigors, anorexia and malaise (may be due to effect of cytokines on the brain)

251
Q

How does TB cause haemoptysis

A

Apical lesions can expand into the adjacent lung, bronchi and vessels

252
Q

What is the definition of contagious

A

Able to be transmitted from one human to another

253
Q

How does a lung abscess present on CXR

A

Walled cavity

Often with an air/fluid level

254
Q

How does complete resolution occur

A

Macrophages will remove the cellular debris and microbes
Lymphatic system will reabsorb the oedema fluid
The damaged tissue is then regenerated by surviving cells or tissue stem cells (normal cells are restored)

255
Q

What are some of the main complications of pneumonia

A

Lung abscess (if inadequately treated)
Respiratory failure
Hypotension (due to dehydration and vasodilation in sepsis)
AF (common in elderly) – resolves with treatment of infection.
Pleural effusion
Empyema
Systemic dissemination - endocarditis, meningitis, suppurative arthritis, metastatic abscesses

256
Q

What are the symptoms of laryngeal cancer

A
Hoarse voice 
Pain or difficulty when swallowing 
Lump or swelling in the neck 
Persistent cough or sore throat 
Ear ache 
Difficulty breathing
257
Q

What causes pericarditis

A

There are a wide range of causes including infectious agents, disorders of the immune system, MI and cardiac surgery

258
Q

Can leukocytes themselves cause tissue damage

A

Yes

This can prolong inflammation

259
Q

List some common pathogens of the urogenital tract

A
E coli (UTI)
candida albicans (disruption of vaginal flora)
STIs
260
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of a cerebral abscess

A

Discrete lesion with central liquefactive necrosis

Surrounding fibrous capsule

261
Q

How can immune reactions such as hypersensitivity cause inflammation

A

Sometimes the immune system can attack the individuals own tissue in response to harmless stimuli
Can be directed against self-antigens (autoimmune disease), environmental stimuli (allergies)
This leads to persistent/ hard to cure inflammation as stimuli cannot be eliminated

262
Q

How does an exudate form

A

There is increased blood flow to an area and the vessels become more permeable
This allows cells and plasma proteins to move out into the area
Common and normal occurrence in inflammation

263
Q

How can primary TB become latent

A

Initial infection is controlled by the T cell response
The Ghon complexes progressively fibrose and leave a fibrocalcific nodule
Some viable organism s can remains dormant in the granulomas

264
Q

What is the purpose of vasodilation in inflammation

A

This increases blood flow to the area to aid delivery of cells/fluid

265
Q

What are the risk factors for TB drug resistance

A

Previous TB treatment
Contact with drug-resistant disease
Birth or residence in country where resistance is high

266
Q

What are the macroscopic features of nasopharyngeal cancer

A

Most arise on the lateral wall of the nasopharynx
Most grow outwards
Usually a smooth, discrete raised nodule below the mucosa
Around 10% will be ulcerated
Cervical node mets are common

267
Q

What are the physiological defenses of the oropharynx

A

Saliva, sloughing and coughing

268
Q

How does HSV1 encephalitis cause death

A

Increased ICP leads to herniation

Can also affect cerebral perfusion

269
Q

What are some of the long term complications of HSV1 encephalitis

A

Behavioural issues, antegrade amnesia, seizures, difficulty with new tasks

270
Q

Define the oropharynx

A

Extends from soft palate to epiglottis

271
Q

What are the features of septic shock

A

DIC (clotting leads to tissue hypoxia)
Hypotensive shock (systemic hypotension)
Metabolic imbalances
Multiorgan failure

272
Q

What are the complications of streptococcal toxic shock syndrome occur

A

Limbs removed through surgery
Serious scarring from having infected tissues removed
Between 3 and 7 in 10 people with STSS die

273
Q

What are the clinical features of a cerebral abscess

A

Headache
Site dependent focal neurological signs
Seizures
Signs of raised ICP - N&V, double vision, confusion and drowsiness

274
Q

What are the main causes of a pleural effusion

A

Occur due to primary pleural diseases such as infection or mesothelioma
Or it can be from secondary inflammation or infection
Other causes include: decrease in osmotic pressure (nephrotic), decreased lymph drainage (cancer) and increased intrapleural pressure (collapse)

275
Q

How do animal vectors spread disease

A

Through their bites (e.g. Malaria and mosquitos)

Can spread bacteria, viruses or protozoa

276
Q

What is the most common subtype of pericarditis

A

fibrinous/serofibrinous

277
Q

Give an example of a condition that causes purulent inflammation

A

Acute appendicitis

278
Q

How do you treat strep throat

A

Usually self limiting - rest etc.

Resistant to most common antibiotics but if one is given its phenoxymethylpenicillin

279
Q

What are the common causative organisms of CAP

A

Typical: Strep. Pneumonia, H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

Atypical: Mycoplasma pneumoniae, staph. Aureus, Legionella sp., and chlamydia

Viruses only account for 15% of cases

280
Q

Which diseases can present with granulomas

A

TB - granuloma is called a tubercle

Crohn’s and sarcoidosis

281
Q

What factors increase your risk of respiratory infection

A

Smoking, being on a ventilator or CF all lead to damage of the mucocilliary system - more vulnerable
Immunocompromised hosts also a risk - PJ in AIDS

282
Q

Describe the epidemiology of HSV1 encephalitis

A

Most common type
Children and the elderly are the most commonly infected and most severely affected
Male:female affected equally
Its sporadic across the globe and has no seasonal preference

283
Q

Describe the inflammatory process of lobar pneumonia

A

You get the initial congestion from the classic acute inflammatory response (appears heavy and boggy)
Massive neutrophilic exudation with haemorrhage leads to red hepatisation
RBC disintegrates whilst fibro-purulent exudates remain leading to grey hepatisation
Finally you get resolution - enzymes digest the consolidated exudates

284
Q

What is the definition of contamination

A

The accidental introduction of microorganisms

285
Q

When does post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis occur

A

Occurs about 10 days after strep symptoms

286
Q

Legionella causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Colonises water tanks kept <60 degrees C (air-conditioning & hot water systems).
Immunocompromised patients

287
Q

What is a pleural effusion

A

An accumulation of excess fluid in the pleural space

Can be inflammatory or non-inflammatory in nature

288
Q

How can ingestion lead to infection

A

Most common is through food or drink contaminated by faecal matter which leads to diarrheal diseases (faecal-oral route)
If a pathogen is acid resistant they can survive the usual protective mechanism
Or they can produce toxins or adhere to areas of damage
Affect the GI tract

289
Q

How do you treat a cerebral abscess

A

Mainly antibiotics and surgery
Ceftriaxone for strep and vancomycin for staph
Surgery is either aspiration or craniotomy

290
Q

Describe the aetiology of pneumonia

A

Caused by bacterial, viral or fungal organisms
In certain conditions there is impairment in the local (CF) or systemic (AIDS) immune system which puts people more at risk
Intubation inhibits complete clearance of microbes via mucociliary escalator which also increases risk

291
Q

What are the symptoms of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A
Red/brown urine 
Oedema 
Less urine
Fatigue (caused by a mild anemia) 
Proteinuria 
Hypertension
292
Q

Describe the natural history of HSV1 encephalitis

A
Infected when young – cold sore virus 
Remains latent for several years 
Reactivates and presents acutely or sub acutely 
Antiviral treatment for 14-21 days 
Can have long term complications
293
Q

Explain the relationship between pericarditis and URTIs, pneumonia and pleuritis

A

URTI and lung infections such as pneumonia can precede pericarditis
Areas of pneumonia or empyema can directly invade the pericardium and lead to purulent pericarditis
In this case the URTI etc. would be considered the primary infection site

294
Q

How do you diagnose rheumatic fever

A

Throat swab for a group A strep infection
Blood test for group A strep antibodies
ECG & echocardiogram

295
Q

What is the definition of community acquired pneumonia

A

Lung infection in a healthy individual that is picked up in the normal environment
They have had no recent healthcare exposure

296
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes pneumonia in which population groups

A

Common in cystic fibrosis & neutropenic patients.

Common cause of HAP, esp. in ITU or post-surgery

297
Q

Which bacteria is in Group A strep

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

Pyogenic so can produce pus

298
Q

What are the pathologic features of pericarditis

A

Exudate is made up of blood and fibrinous/suppurative effusion.
If cancer is the underlying cause, then neoplastic cells may be found on cytology of the exudate.

299
Q

How do you diagnose a pleural effusion

A

Chest X-ray - blunting of costophrenic angles and fluid level seen
US - useful for guidance
Diagnostic aspiration
Biopsy if aspiration is inconclusive

300
Q

Describe the natural history of meningitis

A

Starts with exposure to the virus or bacteria
Takes between 3-7 days from infection for the inflammatory processes to take place and to see symptoms
Seek medical attention
Treatment – 1-2 weeks for bacterial or supportive management for 7-10 days for viral
Potential for long term complications

301
Q

How do you diagnose laryngeal carcinoma

A

Laryngoscopy
Operative endoscopy
Biopsy + imaging tests for staging

302
Q

How do you diagnose strep throat

A

Examination and swab
Can be diagnosed by rapid streptococcal antigen tests in pharyngitis and culture in other cases
Use the FeverPAIN score to differentiate from a viral infection

303
Q

What causes aspiration pneumonia

A

Inhalation of gastric or oropharyngeal contents into the lower airways
Pneumonia occurs due to presence of foreign material in the lungs

304
Q

What are the normal defenses of the respiratory system

A

Mucociliary clearance
The cough reflex
Resident alveolar macrophages & neutrophils

305
Q

What causes an immune granuloma

A

Caused by a variety of agents that can induce a persistent T cell-mediated immune response
Occurs when the microbe is particularly hard to get rid off

306
Q

What commonly leads to adherence mediastinopericarditis

A

Infection, surgery or radiation

307
Q

Which pathogens are the most common cause of chronic meningitis

A

TB

Cryptococcus

308
Q

Describe the histology of the trachea

A

Lined by respiratory epithelium
Layer of basal lamina then lamina propria of CT
It has between 15-20 cartilage ‘C’ shapes
The open side has fibroelastic tissue and smooth muscle (trachealis muscle)
Also has many submucosal glands which secrete mucus onto the surface

309
Q

What is the definition of a parasite

A
An organism that lives in or on, and benefits from, another organism whilst causing harm to its host.
Includes protozoa (unicellular)
310
Q

Describe the role of T and B lymphocytes in chronic inflammation

A

They prolong the inflammation
They can secrete cytokines which promotes inflammation
Memory function may be key to prolonged inflammatory reactions

311
Q

How do you treat meningitis empirically

A

Ceftriaxone IV 2g bd plus dexamethasone IV 10Mg qds

If over 65 or immunocompromised add in amoxicillin IV 2g 4hrly (listeria cover)

312
Q

How do you diagnose HSV1 encephalitis

A

Lumbar puncture
EEG
MRI
PCR on CSF for HSV1

313
Q

Describe serous inflammation

A

Exudation of cell-poor fluid into spaces created by tissue damage or into body cavities (pleural or pericardial)
No microbes present in fluid and little to no leukocytes
Fluid in cavities either comes from the plasma or secretions from the mesothelial cells due to local irritation

314
Q

Purulent pericarditis often leads to chronic pericarditis - true or false

A

True - particularly constrictive

the severe inflammation usually leads to scarring

315
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of URTI

A

Organism is acquired by inhalation of infected droplets
It then successfully invades the mucosa of the upper airway, bypassing the bodies defenses
Once invaded the inflammatory response initiated

316
Q

What are the common pathogens that infect the lower respiratory tract

A

Staph. aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycoplasma pneumonia

317
Q

What are the features of an chronically inflamed ulcer

A

Fibroblastic proliferation & scarring of margin & base of ulcer
Accumulation of lymphocytes, macrophages & plasma cells

318
Q

How would a CSF sample appear in bacterial meningitis

A
Cloudy or purulent, 
High pressure
High neutrophils
Increased protein
Markedly reduced glucose
319
Q

What is the main protective mechanism of the UG tract

A

Frequent bladder emptying