Seminar 8 - Alcohol and Upper GI Bleeds Flashcards

1
Q

List risk factors for oesophageal variceal bleeding

A

Raised portal pressure
Variceal size - larger size = higher risk of rupture
Endoscopic features of the variceal wall - red colour signs
Bacterial infection
Active alcohol intake - if alcohol-related disease
Advanced liver disease
Local changes in distal oesophagus e.g., GORD

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2
Q

Which cells in the pancreas secrete digestive enzymes

A

Acinar cells

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3
Q

Describe survival rates from oesophageal cancer

A

Lymph node and solid organ metastasis will significantly reduce survival
Without mets 5yr survival is roughly 75-80%
With mets, which is common at adenocarcinoma presentation, 5yr survival roughly 20%

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4
Q

Which lymph nodes to oesophageal cancers metastasize to

A

Depends on where the cancer is in the oesophagus

Tumour in the upper 3rd (SCC) go to cervical nodes

Tumour in the middle 3rd (SCC) go to mediastinal, paratracheal and tracheobronchial nodes

Tumour in the bottom 3rd (SCC and adenocarcinoma) go to gastric and celiac nodes

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5
Q

List the microscopic features of a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Lesions are non-transmural, with only the mucosa and potentially the submucosa affected

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6
Q

Describe the microscopic features of a well differentiated gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Tumor arises from mucosa, infiltrates submucosa then muscularis externa then serosa

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7
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of portal hypertension

A

Increased resistance to portal blood flow
and/or
Increase in portal venous in flow

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8
Q

H pylori is associated with which gastric pathologies

A

Chronic gastritis
Peptic ulcers
Gastric cancer

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9
Q

Describe the microscopic features of oesophageal SCC

A

These tumours tend to be moderately to well differentiated

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10
Q

Describe the structure of the muscularis externa in the stomach

A

Inner oblique, middle circular, outer longitudinal muscle layers (3 layers)

Myenteric plexus between circular and longitudinal muscles – coordinate peristaltic waves

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11
Q

Describe the normal composition of ascites fluid

A

Fluid is generally serous with <3g/dL of protein (largely albumin), and a serum-to-ascites albumin gradient of ⩾1.1g/dL.
The fluid may also contain some mesothelial cells & mononuclear leukocytes.

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12
Q

How are symptomatic subdural haemorrhages managed

A

They must be surgically evacuated usually via craniotomy or a burr hole washout.
Surgery is usually immediate - within 4 hours

If there are clotting abnormalities these should be reversed immediately.
Should also address the initial cause of the trauma if possible (e.g. assess fall risk or treat alcoholism.)

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13
Q

List causes of peptic ulcer disease

A

H. pylori infection
NSAID use
Lifestyle factors - smoking, potentially caffeine
Severe physiologic stress - systemic illness, stress
Hypersecretory states (uncommon) e.g. cystic fibrosis, hyperparathyroidism, gastrinoma
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome - acid hypersecretion caused by gastrin secreting neuro-endocrine tumour
Genetic factors
Crohn’s
Other infections
Other drugs - bisphosphonates, KCl`

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14
Q

What determines the absorption rate of alcohol

A

It is dependent on rate of gastric emptying (affected by food etc.) and type of drink

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15
Q

Describe the zones in the liver

A

Functionally, the liver can be divided into three zones, based upon oxygen supply
Zone 1 encircles the portal tracts where the oxygenated blood from hepatic arteries enters (more O2)

Zone 3 is located around central veins, where oxygenation is poor.

Zone 2 is located in between

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16
Q

How does alcohol cause gastritis

A

Alcohol causes direct cellular damage to gastric mucosa.

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17
Q

Which mutations can contribute to gastric cancer

A

Germline loss-of-function mutations in tumour suppressor gene CDH1 (encodes cell adhesion protein E-cadherin)
Seen in 50% sporadic diffuse gastric tumors

Intestinal-type gastric cancers are strongly associated with mutations that result in increased signaling via the Wnt pathway
Loss-of-function mutations in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) tumor suppressor gene - leads to FAP
Gain-of-function mutations in the gene encoding b-catenin
Other genes commonly affected by loss-of-function mutations or silencing

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18
Q

The rate of alcohol metabolism is the same for everyone - true or false

A

False
There is individual variation in metabolism rate.
Rate is much higher in chronic alcoholics as they build tolerance - means they need to consume more alcohol to reach the same blood level

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19
Q

Gastric cancer is more common in individuals with which gastric/intestinal conditions

A

multifocal mucosal atrophy and intestinal metaplasia

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20
Q

What are the most common causes of pancreatitis

A

Gallstones - gallstonepassage/impaction is most common

Idiopathic - evidence suggests that most cases are associated with congenital duct abnormalities

Ethanol (alcohol) - most common cause of chronic

Trauma

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21
Q

List the macroscopic features of chronic pancreatitis

A

The gland is hard

Sometimes with visibly dilated ducts containing calcified concretions

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22
Q

List the clinical features of chronic pancreatitis

A

May follow multiple bouts of acute pancreatitis
Attacks precipitated by alcohol, overeating, opiates (other drugs which increase sphincter tone)
Attack may feature a mild fever + elevated serum amylase
Gallstone induced may be present w jaundice
Weight loss may also be present
Chronic pain is also a problem,

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23
Q

List the main sites of portosystemic shunt formation

A

Gastro-oesophageal junction (varices*)
Paraumbilical + abdominal wall collaterals
The retroperitoneum
Rectal/anal canal veins (PC: haemorrhoids)

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24
Q

Which microscopic features are seen in autoimmune type 1 chronic pancreatitis

A

swirling / storiform fibrosis, phlebitis

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25
Q

Which microscopic features are seen in autoimmune type 2 chronic pancreatitis

A

neutrophilic infiltrates within epithelium and lumen of medium sized pancreatic ducts

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26
Q

What is the mean age of presentation for gastric cancer

A

55

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27
Q

How does alcohol affect the pancreas

A

Can cause both acute and chronic pancreatitis

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28
Q

How does alcohol cause pancreatitis

A

Alcohol damages the acinar cells of the pancreas through oxidative stress which causes inappropriate release of enzymes that damage the pancreas itself.

Also increases contraction of the sphincter of Odi and secretion of protein rich fluid that is likely to cause plugs. Both processes cause blockage of the ducts.

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29
Q

How does H pylori cause an ulcer

A

H. pylori bacteria weakens the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum
Acid gets through to the sensitive lining beneath
Acid + bacteria cause irritation to the lining which causes the ulcer

Also causes impaired secretion of somatostatin and gastrin which leads to acid hypersecretion

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30
Q

Rebleeding can occur in cases of subdural haematoma - true or false

A

True
Multiple episodes of rebleeding can occur from damaged vessels
This is most common soon after the initial haemorrhage and occurs in 10-30% of cases.

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31
Q

Which surgical treatments are available for a bleeding peptic ulcer

A

Surgical hemostasis / angiographic embolization after failure of repeated endoscopy

Refractory bleeding peptic ulcer: surgical intervention with open surgery

Intraoperative endoscopy

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32
Q

How may the spleen appear in those with portal hypertension

A

Enlarged - splenomegaly
Degree of enlargement varies widely – weight can reach as much as 1000g (5-6x its normal)

Irregular pale-tan plaques of collagen over the purple capsule (aka. “sugar icing” or “hyaline peri-splenitis”).

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33
Q

Stomach perforations can have hat effect on other organs

A

May cause penetration of other organs, such as the pancreas, without spreading into the peritoneum

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34
Q

A BAC of over 300mg/100ml is likely to have what effect

A

Results in stupor.

Anything over this puts the individual at risk of brainstem depression and therefore respiratory depression.

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35
Q

What are the Kupffer cells

A

The resident macrophages of hepatic sinusoids

They are attached to the luminal surface of endothelial cells

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36
Q

Which type of alcohol is found in drinks

A

Ethanol

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37
Q

Where does the oesophagus run

A

cricoid cartilage to gastroesophageal junction

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38
Q

How do lower GI bleeds present

A

Haematochezia - fresh blood in stool, either mixed in or present on wiping

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39
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer

A

SCC is the most common worldwide but adenocarcinoma is becoming increasingly common in the US and western world

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40
Q

Subdural haematomas can occur bilaterally - true or false

A

True

Only in 10% of cases though and more common in infants

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41
Q

Describe the epidemiology of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

A

7X more common in men and most common in Caucasians
Highest rates in US, UK, Canada, Australia, Netherlands and brazil
Lowest rates in Korea, Thailand, Japan and Ecuador
>1/2 of all oesophageal cancers in the US

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42
Q

What makes up a portal triad

A

Bile duct
Portal vein
Hepatic artery

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43
Q

A yellow liver suggests what

A

Fatty change

Can be caused by alcoholism

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44
Q

What is Sinusoidal capillarisation

A

Loss of sinusoidal endothelial cells fenestration

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45
Q

what is the principle treatment for gastric cancer

A

Surgical resection
Can do a total, subtotal, or distal gastrectomy
Attempt to maintain a 5-cm surgical margin proximally and distally to primary lesion
Esophagogastrectomy for tumors of cardia & gastroesophageal junction
Subtotal gastrectomy for tumors of distal stomach

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46
Q

Describe the structure of the centroacinar cells

A

They are spindle-shapedcellsin the exocrine pancreas

Their nuclei and cytoplasm do not stain as intensely as the secretory cells

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47
Q

List the causes of GORD

A

Incompetence of LOS - hiatus hernias, pregnancy, Transient oesophageal sphincter relaxation

Raised intra-abdominal pressure - obesity, pregnancy, asthma, increased gastric volume, coughing, straining and bending down

Slow transit of food -diabetes, peptic ulcer disease, CTDs

Alcohol and tobacco use
CNS depression

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48
Q

What is the main cause of the acute effects of alcohol

A

Many of the effects are due to the toxic nature of acetaldehyde

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49
Q

List the clinical features of peptic ulcer disease

A

Epigastric burning / Aching pain - occurs 1-3 hours after meals, worse at night (11-2), relieved by alkali or food

Present with iron deficiency anemia, hemorrhage, or perforation

Nausea, vomiting, bloating, belching, significant weight loss

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50
Q

What is secreted in the cardia of the stomach and what are their functions

A

Lots of mucus and lysozymes - protection

HCl secreted from parietal cells -

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51
Q

Chronic h pylori infections are most commonly seen in which part of the stomach

A

The pyloric antrum

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52
Q

Ascites suggests a poor prognosis in pancreatic cancer patients - true or false

A

True

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53
Q

How can the by-products of alcohol metabolism damage the liver

A

Metabolism cause release of ROS which causes lipid peroxidation of liver cells and provokes endotoxin release by GI flora which causes further liver damage

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54
Q

Where are the p-450 enzymes found

A

In the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes

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55
Q

Which gastric cancers receive neo-adjuvant chemo

A

Operable gastric cancers beyond T1N0

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56
Q

What is the cause of hereditary pancreatitis

A

SPINK1gene mutation

Autosomal dominant

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57
Q

The portal vein is formed by which other vessels coming together

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric veins

This occurs behind the neck of the pancreas

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58
Q

Management plan for a subdural haematoma is dependent on what

A

The size and location of the haematoma

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59
Q

List some of the stigmata of cirrhosis

A
Spider naevi
Palmar erythema
Clubbing 
Gynaecomastia - impaired oestrogen metabolism 
Splenomegaly 
Hepatomegaly
None!!
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60
Q

You should start empirical antibiotics before H-pylori confirmed - true or false

A

False

Not recommended

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61
Q

List the microscopic features of chronic pancreatitis

A

Evident chronic inflammatory infiltrate that surround slobules and ducts
Acinar loss is a constant feature w sparing of Islets of Langerhans (become embedded in sclerotic tissue)
Ductal epithelium = atrophic or hyperplastic or metaplastic

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62
Q

List causes of rectal and anal bleeds

A

Haemorrhoids

Anal Fissures

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63
Q

Describe the process of scar formation and regression in cirrhosis

A

Hepatic stellate cells differentiate into highly myofibroblasts in response to injury.
Release cytokines, growth factors, chemotactic Kupffer cells or recruited macrophages & lymphocytes.

ECM deposition + scar formation often in space of Disse.

Loss of sinusoidal endothelial cells fenestration (sinusoidal capillarisation).

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64
Q

What is the MELD Score

A

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease
Created to predict survival of patients undergoing Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) procedure
Used to predict 3-month mortality in cirrhosis and aid liver transplant allocation (US).

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65
Q

List intra-hepatic causes of portal hypertension

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (even in absence of cirrhosis)
Infiltrative malignancy, primary or metastatic

Pre-sinusoidal:
Schistosomiasis
Diffuse, fibrosing granulomatous disease e.g., sarcoid

Sinusoidal:
Cirrhosis (any cause; accounts for most cases of portal HTN).
Nodular regenerative hyperplasia (effects portal microcirculation).
Massive fatty change (steatohepatitis)
Amyloidosis

Post-sinusoidal:
Focal malignancy w/ invasion into hepatic vein (esp. hepatocellular carcinoma)
Budd-Chiari syndrome

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66
Q

Describe the ceiling effect when using the Child-Pugh Score

A

Unable to differentiate disease severity in the top subgroup of cirrhotic patients.
E.g., those with serum bilirubin >3mg/dL had the same CTP score as those with levels 20+mg/dL

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67
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in children

A

Trauma

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68
Q

How do you treat acute pancreatitis

A

Treatment centers on resting the inflamed pancreas by total elimination of oral intake and supportive therapy via analgesia and IV fluids

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69
Q

Prognosis of a subdural haematoma is dependent on what

A

The extent of associated brain damage

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70
Q

Are antifungals used as standard therapy in perforated peptic ulcers

A

No

May however be appropriate in high risk patients

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71
Q

The presence of neutrophils in ascites fluid suggests what

A

Infection

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72
Q

What does the UKMELD score include

A

Comprises serum bilirubin, INR, creatinine, and sodium

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73
Q

What is the normal pressure of the portal vein

A

Normal portal blood flow: 1000-1500ml/min.

Normal portal vein pressure: 5-10mmHg

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74
Q

List the major complication of portal hypertension

A

Hepatic encephalopathy
Ascites
Portosystemic venous shunts
Congestive splenomegaly

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75
Q

Describe micronodular cirrhosis

A

Has consistently sized nodules on liver
Diameter <3mm
Rare in portal area.

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76
Q

List the parts of the stomach

A

Cardia
Fundus
Body
Pylorus - has antrum, canal and sphincter

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77
Q

What characterises acute pancreatitis

A

Reversible pancreatic parenchymal injury

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78
Q

How may advanced pancreatic cancer present

A

Paraumbilical subcutaneous metastases (or Sister Mary Joseph nodule or nodules)

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79
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Barretts oesophagus

A

Incidence is rising rapidly
10% of symptomatic GORD patients and 2% of the general population will be affected
More common in Caucasians, 3X as common in men and increases in incidence with age ( usually being seen between 40-60yrs)

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80
Q

List cardiovascular conditions that can be caused alcohol

A

Dilated, congestive cardiomyopathy - caused by injury to the myocardium

Hypertension
Coronary Heart Disease

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81
Q

Describe the structure of the liver sinusoids

A

They are found between plates of hepatocytes
Lined with fenestrated endothelium making sinusoids very leaky - allows for easy movement of large proteins backwards and forwards
Space of Disse lies beneath these endothelial cells and the hepatocytes

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82
Q

As well as jaundice, encephalopathy and coagulopathy, what are some other significant features of chronic liver failure?

A

Hyper-oestrogenaemia form impaired oestrogen metabolism, pruritus, and hypogonadism in females

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83
Q

Describe the structure of the submucosae of the oesophagus

A

Loose connective tissue
Contains; vessels, lymphatics, miessners plexus and nerves, occasional white cells, lymphoid follicles and submucosal glands *
Glands lined by mucinous cells producing acid mucin that drains through ducts lined by cuboidal or squamous cells

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84
Q

The islets of Langerhans make up a large part of the pancreas - true or false

A

Flase

They are scattered and so only occupy a small volume.

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85
Q

Which virulence factors are present in h pylori

A

Flagella – allow bacteria to be motile in viscous mucus
Urease – generate ammonia -> elevate gastric pH -> enhance survival
Adhesins – enhance bacterial adherence
Toxins – e.g. cytotoxin-associated gene A

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86
Q

Where is alcohol absorbed

A

20% in stomach and 80% in small intestine

Not altered at this stage

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87
Q

The source of GI bleeding is always identified on colonoscopy’s - true or false

A

False

In approx. 25% of cases, the source of bleeding cannot be definitively identified

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88
Q

What causes hepatic encephalopathy

A

Elevated ammonia levels - cause impaired neuronal function and cerebral oedema

Principle source is the GIT (produced by microorganisms and enterocytes during glutamine metabolism)

Ammonia is normally transported in the portal vein to the liver (for urea cycle).
In severe liver disease, BBB and astrocytes clear it (glutamate -> glutamine); excess glutamine -> osmotic imbalance and a shift of fluid into these cells -> cerebral oedema

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89
Q

Eradication of HP can cause long term remission of peptic ulcer - true or false

A

True

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90
Q

List the 3 meningeal layers

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater.

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91
Q

Describe the blood flow and pressure in the hepatic artery and vein

A

Hepatic artery has highest pressure (100mg/Hg) but carries least amount of blood (ml)/min and the hepatic vein has the lowest pressure (4mmHg) but transports the most blood(ml)/min

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92
Q

How is hepatic encephalopathy graded

A

I: Altered mood/behaviour; sleep disturbance (e.g., reversed sleep pattern); dyspraxia; poor arithmetic. No liver flap.

II: increasing drowsiness, confusion, slurred speech ± liver flap, inappropriate behaviour/personality change.

III: incoherent; liver flap; stupor.

IV: coma

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93
Q

Short segments of Barrett’s have a lower risk of dysplasia - true or false

A

True
Lower risk of dysplasia and therefore adenocarcinoma too
Usually asymptomatic of GORD

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94
Q

List some of the signs and symptoms of liver failure

A
Jaundice
Ascites
Encephalopathy
Anorexia, weight loss
Bruising
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95
Q

Describe the natural history of subdural haematoma

A

After the vessels are torn, blood will accumulate in the subdural space .
As blood accumulates it puts more pressure on the brain, causing injury and gradually raising ICP.
If untreated this can cause shifting of the brain and eventual herniation
This can be fatal

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96
Q

List the sections of the duodenum

A

Superior
Descending
Horizontal
Ascending

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97
Q

Which groups are at an increased risk of subdural haematoma and why

A

Infants and children – veins are still relatively thin-walled
The elderly – higher fall risk and veins more fragile due to stretching from brain atrophy
Alcoholics are also at an increased risk due to their propensity for falls and head trauma alongside the disordered bleeding associated with alcoholism (thrombocytopenia, prolonged bleeding times)

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98
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of gastric cancer

A

Most early gastric cancers are small, measuring 2 to 5 cm in size
Often located at lesser curvature around angularis
Can be multifocal (indicative of a worse prognosis)
Features classified by Borrman classification - other card

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99
Q

Describe how the liver is remodeled in cirrhosis

A

Undergoes diffuse remodelling into parenchymal nodules (often regenerative) surrounded by fibrous bands & variable degrees of vascular shunting (circulation is rebuilt)

The whole liver can become deformed and hardened

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100
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of a subdural haematoma

A

Trauma/impact to the head causes the bridging veins to tear and venous blood escapes into the subdural space
They are vulnerable to tearing as they are fixed relative to the dura – on impact the brain suddenly moves and pulls on the fixed structure (shearing force)

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101
Q

Which nonoperative & endoscopic strategies are used for bleeding peptic ulcer

A

Administration of pre-endoscopy erythromycin

Endoscopic treatment: achieve hemostasis + prevent rebleeding

Nonoperative management: 1st –line management after endoscopy

Initiation of PPI therapy asap (high-dose PPI as a continuous infusion for the first 72 hours) + PPI for 6-8 weeks after endoscopic treatment

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102
Q

Which protective mechanisms exist to prevent the pancreas autodigestion

A

Digestive enzymes are synthesized as inactive proenzymes and packed into secretory granules

They are activated by trypsin which itself is activated by an enzyme from the small bowel (intrapancreatic activation is minimal)

Acinar and ductal cells also secrete tryptin inhibitors – all of these minimize the activation of digestive enzymes

Pancreatitis occurs when these protective mechanisms are disrupted

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103
Q

What type of epithelium lines the oesophagus

A

Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

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104
Q

How do subdural haematomas present on CT

A

Classic crescent moon appearance

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105
Q

Describe the structure of the cells within the pancreatic acinus

A

The basal part of the cells are typically basophilic due to extensive RER, while the apical part is very eosinophilic due to the presence of zymogen (pre-enzyme) granules

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106
Q

What causes palmar erythema in cirrhosis

A

Impaired oestrogen metabolism

It reflects local vasodilation

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107
Q

What is the main cause of increased portal venous flow

A
Primarily due to arterial vasodilatation in the splanchnic circulation. 
Increased arteriolar blood flow -> increased venous efflux into portal venous system.
Nitric oxide (NO) is the most significant mediator in splanchnic arterial vasodilatation (others: prostacyclin, TNF).
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108
Q

How is the transplant benefit score calculated

A

By measuring the difference between the area under the waiting list survival curve and the area under the post-transplant survival cure over a 5-year interval
Difference between the expected survival with the transplant and the expected survival on the waiting list

Utility – Need = Transplant benefit
Utility – liver offered to patient with shortest predicted survival time without liver transplant.
Need – liver offered to longest predicted survival time with a liver transplant

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109
Q

List the potential complications of endoscopic mucosal resection

A

bleeding, perforation, stricture formation, narrowed oesophagus = dysphagia

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110
Q

List causes of subdural haematomas

A

Head trauma is the leading cause of subdural haemorrhage.
However, in vulnerable groups such as the elderly this trauma can seem minor

Other rarer causes include coagulation disorders, vascular malformations and glutaric aciduria type 1.

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111
Q

List the clinical features of Barrett’s

A

Symptoms of chronic GORD
Rarely can be completely asymptomatic
May have globus sensation as well as dysphagia

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112
Q

Describe the epidemiology of squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus

A

4X as common in males and usually >45yrs
Most common in Europe and Asia
In Us much more common in African Americans than Caucasians due to alcohol and tobacco use as well as other unidentified factors

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113
Q

How do you treat peptic ulcers

A

All ulcers seen on endoscopy should be biopsied to assess for malignancy
Patients may require stabilisation and resuscitation
Most haemorrhage can be treated endoscopically via a mechanical method such as clips, coagulation, or fibrin +/- adrenaline
The use of PPIs should be considered, especially as prophylaxis where NSAID use cannot be stopped

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114
Q

Describe the structure of the pancreas capsule

A

The pancreas has a thin connective tissue capsule that is continuous with connective tissue septa that divide the gland into lobules.

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115
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease

A

Chronic mucosal ulceration affecting the duodenum or stomach

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116
Q

List the macroscopic features of cirrhosis

A
Bumpy surface nodules
Hardened liver
Thickened capsule
Depressed areas of fibrosis. 
Yellow hue: fatty change
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117
Q

Where does the portal vein drain blood from

A

Drains blood from the small + large intestines, stomach, spleen, pancreas and gallbladder

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118
Q

What is the prominent pathological feature in most cirrhotic livers

A

Regenerative nodules

They are formed from the surviving hepatocytes in CLD replicating in an attempt to restore the parenchyma

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119
Q

If a patients with PUD is on NSAIDs what should you do

A

Withdraw the drug

Same goes for any other offending agents that may interfere with mucosal healing

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120
Q

How do you manage pancreatic cancer

A

Surgery
Chemotherapy
Neoadjuvant therapy

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121
Q

Behaviour caused by drunkeness comes with significant risk - true or false

A

True

50% of alcohol related deaths caused by DUI, homicide and suicide

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122
Q

When is ascites clinically detectable?

A

Usually clinically detectable when at least 500ml has accumulated

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123
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for GORD

A

PPI

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124
Q

Which part of the stomach holds broken-down food until it is ready to be released

A

the pyloric antrum

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125
Q

Is endoscopy required for the diagnosis of GORD

A

NO

unless refractory after PPI

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126
Q

List causes of altered consciousness in cirrhosis patients

A
Hepatic encephalopathy 
Hypoglycaemia
Sepsis
Head trauma
Post-ictal
Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Hyponatraemia
Withdrawal syndromes
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127
Q

List the structures found in the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine

A

Plicae circulares - folded from mucosa & submucosa

Intestinal villi (mucosal outgrowths) - for absorption

Intestinal crypts

Submucosa of duodenum has Brunner’s glands - branched tubular mucous glands

Lamina propria & submucosa in ileum - Peyer’s patches (a component of GALT)

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128
Q

Hypogonadism in females with cirrhosis is caused by what

A

Nutritional deficiencies associated with chronic liver failure or a primary hormonal alteration which disrupts the HPA

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129
Q

Those with ADH disorders at higher risk of oesophageal cancer - true or false

A

True

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130
Q

List the macroscopic features of a peptic ulcer

A

Solitary in more than 80% of patients
Most common in duodenum
Form a round to oval, sharply punched-out defect - clear margin
Mucosal margin is usually level with surrounding mucosa
May overhang the base (particularly on proximal side)
Depth of ulcer correlated with diameter
Base of peptic ulcers is smooth and clean as a result of peptic digestion of exudate
may be evidence of infiltrated vessels and evidence of thrombosis

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131
Q

Is surveillance required after ablation in BO

A

Yes

Surveillance is still required as several treatments may be needed to eliminate the lesion

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132
Q

Describe the process of fatty hepatocyte degeneration

A

You get lipid accumulation, and fat vacuoles formed within cytoplasm of the liver cell

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133
Q

List the types of hepatocyte degeneration seen in cirrhosis

A

Ballooning degeneration

Fatty degeneration

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134
Q

Describe the natural progression of cirrhosis

A

Starts with the causal disease
This causes recurrent inflammation and fibrosis
This will lead to compensated cirrhosis
Then decompensated - causing acute-on-chronic liver failure
Eventually death

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135
Q

Which zone of the liver is most affected by iron overload

A

Zone 1

Due to higher exposure level and more oxygen present

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136
Q

Which proportion of duodenal and gastric ulcers are H.pylori positive

A

Over 60%

Excluding patients who use NSAIDs

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137
Q

How does alcohol cause acute pancreatitis

A

Via duct obstruction, acinar cell damage

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138
Q

How do you treat alcohol withdrawal

A

Treated with chlordiazepoxide and may need thiamine replacement

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139
Q

What is the prognosis of acute pancreatitis

A

Most recover but about 5% with severe cases die in first week

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140
Q

The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ - true or false

A

True

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141
Q

List potential causes of death in cirrhosis

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy
Ruptured oesophageal varices
Bacterial infection
Hepatocellular carcinoma

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142
Q

Impaired oestrogen metabolism in cirrhosis can have what effects

A

Leads to hyper-oestrogenaemia
Palmar erythema + spider angioma
Males: hypogonadism + gynaecomastia

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143
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Mallory-Weiss tears

A

Thought to be due to a failure to relax the gastroesophageal musculature during prolonged vomiting

During prolonged vomiting or intense coughing fits, there is a sudden rise in abdominal pressure
The gastroesophageal mucosa tears as it is unable to fully distend

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144
Q

How can you identify the extent of fibrosis in cirrhosis cases

A

Stain for collagen fibres (e.g., Masson’s trichome)

Type 1 collagen & nerve fibres blue; cytoplasm/muscle red; nucleus black/blue

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145
Q

How do you treat BO with confirmed low grade dysplasia

A

endoscopic ablative therapy or 6-12 month surveillance plan

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146
Q

If oesophageal adenocarcinoma is symptomatic what has likely already happened

A

likely already have haematogenous and lymphatic spread

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147
Q

Gastric cancer is more common in lower socioeconomic groups - true or false

A

True

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148
Q

What is contributing to a increase in gastric cancer cases

A

Barrett’s esophagus
Increasing incidence of chronic GERD
Obesity

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149
Q

What makes the acinar glands in the pancreas different to all others

A

Unlike in other acinar glands, such as the parotid, the smallest ducts in the pancreas (the intercalated ducts) do not start where the acinus ends, but rather extend into the acinus

They represent an extension of the intercalated duct into each pancreatic acinus.

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150
Q

At which vertebral level is the gastroesophageal junction found

A

T11

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151
Q

What causes oesophageal varices

A

Portal hypertension

Usually as a result of liver disease - cirrhosis

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152
Q

What are the main complications of GORD

A

The main one is that if left untreated it can progress onto Barrett’s oesophagus

It also has the potential to cause ulceration and strictures due to chronic inflammation

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153
Q

List neurological conditions that can be caused by alcohol

A

Peripheral neuropathies
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

(later cerebral atrophy, cerebellar degeneration and optic neuropathy can occur)

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154
Q

What can cause an obstruction in a GI bleed

A

Can occur as lesions or ulcers heal as scarring leads to stenosis, particularly at the gastric outlet

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155
Q

What is secreted by the centroacinar cells

A

aqueous bicarbonate solution

This occurs under stimulation by the hormone secretin

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156
Q

Deterioration is fast in subdural haemorrhage – true or false

A

False

It can be if there is herniation etc. but typically it is slow and progressive

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157
Q

Describe the prevalence and mortality of oesophageal varices in cirrhotic patients

A

Appear in ~40% of individuals with advanced liver cirrhosis

Cause massive haematemesis and death in about 50% of those affected.
Each episode of bleeding is assoc. with ~30% mortality

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158
Q

List the macroscopic features of oesophageal varices

A

Varices protruding into oesophageal lumen

May be inflammation or ulceration present along with evidence of past episodes of bleeding

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159
Q

Describe the structure of the falciform ligament

A

It divides liver into the larger right and smaller left lobes.
It has 2 layers of peritoneum and attaches the antero-superior surface of the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm.

The free edge of this ligament contains the ligamentum teres hepatis

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160
Q

Describe the effects of moderate alcohol consumption

A

In general, this doesnt lead to long term harms (if you follow safe drinking guidelines)

Studies have shown that moderate consumption of around 20 to 30g of alcohol per day actually appears to protect against coronary heart disease.
May be due to increasing HDL levels, inhibition of platelet aggregation and lower fibrinogen levels

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161
Q

How does h pylori cause gastritis

A

Interaction of H. pylori with surface mucosa -causes the release of IL-8
This leads to recruitment of PMNs which begin inflammatory process

This is enhanced by Class II molecules expressed by gastric epithelial cells as they cause activation of transcription factors
This leads to further cytokine release and more inflammation

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162
Q

Describe how acinar cell injury can cause acute pancreatitis

A

Acinar cells can be damaged by a variety of endogenous, exogenous and iatrogenic insults – oxidative stress, generation of free radicals, membrane lipid oxidation, transcription factor activation and various other molecular pathologies

This damage causes the release of intracellular enzymes

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163
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis

A

It is prolonged inflammation of the pancreas associated with irreversible destruction of exocrine parenchyma, fibrosis, and in the later stages endocrine parenchyma

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164
Q

Describe the neoadjuvant therapy used in oesophageal cancer

A

Neoadjuvant therapy can be given in the form of chemo +/_ radiotherapy

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165
Q

What is the most characteristic sign of cancer of head of the pancreas

A

Painless obstructive jaundice

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166
Q

What are some of the complications of H2 antagonist treatment

A

ED, depression, gynaecomastia, hallucination, liver dysfunction, leukopenia, agranulocytosis, AV block, pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia and vasculitis

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167
Q

Which microscopic features are seen in chronic pancreatitis caused by alcohol

A

ductal dilation + protein plugs and calcifications

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168
Q

What pressure is required for oesophageal varices to form

A

Varices form when pressure in collaterals is >10mmHg

Bleeding will occur if pressure >12mmHg

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169
Q

Which types of chemo are used in the treatment of gastric cancer

A

Platinum-based combination chemotherapy
Trastuzumab + cisplatin + capecitabine/5-FU
Ramucirumab following a fluoropyrimidine- or platinum-containing regimen
Pembrolizumab

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170
Q

How is the liver divided histologically

A

Divided into 1-2mm hexagonal lobules oriented around the terminal tributaries of the hepatic vein (central veins).
So the central vein is in the centre of the lobule
At the periphery of the lobule are portal triads

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171
Q

List some of the potential complications of a GI bleed

A

Hypovolaemic Shock -common
Obstruction
Perforation - rare but serious

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172
Q

How do you treat inoperable or metastatic gastric cancer

A

Palliative chemotherapy / Supportive care

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173
Q

Is gastric cancer more common in men or women

A

Men

M:F ratio: 2:1

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174
Q

List the classical clinical features of acute pancreatitis

A

Acute onset of severe central epigastric pain (over 30-60 min)

Poorly localised tenderness and pain
exacerbated by supine positioning
Radiates through to the back in 50% of patients

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175
Q

What are some of the complications of endoscopy

A

infection, bleeding, perforation, sedation caused hypotension, breathing difficulties or reaction

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176
Q

Describe the structure of the ligamentum teres hepatis

A

Attached to inferior surface of liver between segment IV on right and III on left

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177
Q

What is the Child-Pugh classification used for

A

It was introduced as a prognostic tool for operative mortality assoc. with portocaval shunt surgery for variceal bleeding

Current use is to predict life expectancy in patients with advanced cirrhosis
e.g. a CTP score 10 or above is assoc. with 50% chance of death within 1 year.

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178
Q

List the pros of the Child-Pugh score

A

Variables for ascites and hepatic encephalopathy (HE) are included in the score

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179
Q

Which cell types are found in the fundus and body of the stomach and what are their functions

A

Mucous neck cells - secrete mucus at neck region

Parietal cells - secrete HCl, gastric intrinsic factor and mucous coating at neck region

Chief cells - synthesize & release zymogens (including pepsinogen and precursors of rennin & lipase) at base region

Enteroendocrine cells - secrete various peptide hormones and act as neurotransmitters

Undifferentiated cells - they have high mitosis rates and give rise to the above cell types

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180
Q

What types of cancer make up the majority of oesophageal cancer cases

A

adenocarcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma

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181
Q

What structures are you looking for at the porta hepatis (liver hilum)?

A

Portal vein, hepatic artery proper, common bile duct.

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182
Q

How does alcohol cause gastric ulcers

A

Ulcers generally occur on a background of chronic gastritis which is also caused by alcohol

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183
Q

Which cells in the pancreas secrete insulin and glucagon

A

Islets of Langerhans

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184
Q

How do you treat a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

80-90% of cases are self-limiting

Else, treatment with clips or ligation are performed endoscopically, often in conjunction with adrenaline administration

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185
Q

Describe the caudate lobe of the liver

A

It is actually segment 1 and not a lobe
It lies in the lesser sac between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left and porta hepatis in front
The caudate process attaches the caudate lobe to the right lobe.

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186
Q

What is the characteristic feature of pancreatic cancer

A

Significant wait loss

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187
Q

What is the purpose of intrinsic factor

A

Allows for Vitamin B12 absorption in the small intestine

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188
Q

List the pathological features of mild GORD

A

Grossly – redness of the oesophagus representing hyperaemia

Microscopically – histology is often unremarkable

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189
Q

Where do scars typically form in cirrhosis

A

Often in the space of DIsse

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190
Q

List the macroscopic features of diverticulitis

A

Visible outpouchings of colonic mucosa - may contain impacted stool

In the case of infection or inflammation, this may be seen as hyperaemia, ulceration or rupture

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191
Q

List the component parts of the pancreas

A

The head - relatively short at only 1-2cm and lies over the superior mesenteric vessels.

The uncinate process - small projection from the inferior part of the head of the pancreas and lies posterior to the superior mesenteric artery.

The body - continues from the neck, lies over the aorta and L2 vertebra.

The tail - lies anterior to the left kidney

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192
Q

Management of subdural haematoma comes with what risks

A

Any form of brain surgery comes with many risks – brain damage, infection etc.
Risk of recurrence.

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193
Q

Oesophageal cancers can spread down into the cardia of the stomach - true or false

A

True

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194
Q

Cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until late stage disease - true or false

A

True

~40% are asymptomatic until most advanced stages of disease.

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195
Q

Where is the majority of alcohol metabolised

A

In the liver

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196
Q

What is the difference between diverticulitis and diverticulosis

A

Diverticulosis – formation of diverticular

Diverticulitis – inflammation of diverticular

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197
Q

List the cell types found in the intestinal crypts of the small intestine

A

Goblet Cells

Paneth cells - secretion of antibacterial, defensins, lysozyme

Columnar epithelial cells - – for absorption (brush border enzymes)

Enteroendocrine cells – secrete Gi hormones

Undifferentiated cells

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198
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Usually occurs in distal 3rd of oesophagus and may involve the gastric cardia
Initially comprised of patches that are raised or flat within an intact mucosae
Eventually it will become a large mass 5cm or more in diameter
Alternatively the tumours can ulcerate and invade deeply or can infiltrate diffusely

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199
Q

Where does blood enter the liver

A

Both supplies enter on inferior aspect of liver at hilum (aka. porta hepatis).

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200
Q

List GI disease that can be caused alcohol

A

Gastritis
Gastric Ulcers
Oesophageal Varices

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201
Q

What is the main cause of Barrett’s oesophagus

A

GORD

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202
Q

Which structures are included in the upper GI tract

A

Runs from the oral cavity up to and including the duodenum
Oral cavity
Pharynx - nasopharynx, oropharynx and larnygopharynx
Oesophagus
Stomach
Duodenum

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203
Q

Which 3 enzymes are responsible for alcohol metabolism

A

ADH is the main enzyme and is found in the cytosol of hepatocytes.

The p-450 enzymes become more important at high alcohol levels - part of the microsomal ethanol-oxidising system

Catalase has minor effect - only deals with around 5% of the alcohol

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204
Q

How does the pain present in a penetrating peptic ulcer

A

Pain is occasionally referred to the back , left upper quadrant, or chest

May be misinterpreted as cardiac in origin

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205
Q

List post-sinusoidal causes of increased resistance in the portal vein

A

Central vein lesions caused by perivenous fibrosis etc.

Veno-occlusive changes

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206
Q

What is the most common mechanism of death in GI bleeds

A

Hypovolaemic Shock

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207
Q

How are people selected for liver transplant in the UK

A

UKMELD used in conjunction with the Transplant Benefit Score (TBS)
UKELD must be calculated monthly to update patient illness severity.

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208
Q

Which body systems are most affected by alcohol (acutely)

A

Mainly affects the CNS but can also impact the GI system and the liver acutely

209
Q

Chronic pancreatitis is common in alcoholics - true or false

A

True

Persistent or repeated episodes of acute pancreatitis will lead onto chronic pancreatitis
Alcoholics are at a risk of repeated pancreatitis

210
Q

What is the definition of portal hypertension

A

Hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG): Gradient between portal vein and IVC >10mmHg

211
Q

How can a hepatic hydrothorax form in cirrhotic patients

A

With long-standing ascites, seepage of peritoneal fluid through trans-diaphragmatic lymphatics may lead to the hydrothorax

212
Q

How is alcohol distributed around the body

A

Around 10% is excreted unchanged via the urine, sweat and breath.
The rest is distributed around the body via the bloodstream.
This distribution is dependent on blood level and water content of tissues

213
Q

Smoking alongside alcohol consumption increases your cancer risk - true or false

A

True

It has a synergistic effect

214
Q

What is pancreatitis

A

Pancreatitis is initiated by an injury that leads to auto-digestion of the pancreas by its own pancreatic enzymes

Normally regulation would stop this so it occurs when the protective mechanisms are disrupted

215
Q

Describe the natural history of Barrett’s

A

First will have chronic GORD before progressing to BO

There is a risk if left untreated that it will progress, although slowly, to adenocarcinoma

216
Q

What is significant about the parietal cells in the pylorus

A

Fewer cells present
Secrete less HCl than other regions
H. pylori can grow here

217
Q

List the morphological classification of cirrhosis

A

Micronodular
Macronodular
Mixed

218
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the stomach

A

Adenocarcinoma

Accounts for more than 90% of all gastric cancers

219
Q

List post-hepatic causes of portal hypertension

A

Severe right-sided heart failure
Congestive pericarditis
Hepatic vein outflow obstruction

220
Q

List the ligaments of the liver

A

Falciform ligament
Ligamentum teres hepatis
Ligamentum venosum
Left and right triangular ligaments – branches of the coronary ligament

221
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of diverticulitis

A

Exact mechanism unknown
Infections may develop in diverticular as a result of food particles or faecal matter
This leads to inflammation, ischaemia, necrosis, ulceration

222
Q

Describe the structure of the muscularis propria of the oesophagus

A

Has inner and outer longitudinal layers
Skeletal muscle at top and smooth muscle distally
Has myenteric plexus

223
Q

How does NSAID use cause peptic ulcer disease

A

NSAIDs disrupt the permeability barrier

30% of adults taking NSAIDs have GI adverse effects

224
Q

What blood results would suggest acute pancreatitis

A

Elevation of serumamylase and lipaseare 90-95% specific for the diagnosis

Can be normal though - especially on an background of chronic

225
Q

Describe the palliative care options in oesophageal cancer

A

Involves both chemo and radiotherapy in order to control disease and its symptoms

226
Q

List the parts of the stomach

A

Comprised of a cardia, fundus, body/corpus and pyloric antrum

227
Q

Describe the structure of gastric glands

A

Found in the fundus and body
Straight, branched at base
Have an isthmus, Neck, Base
Secretion regulated by vagus nerve & hormones

228
Q

How are subdural haematomas classed

A

If less than 72 hours old they are classed as acute, subacute from days 3-21 and chronic from 3 weeks onwards

229
Q

How do you manage early stage oesophageal cancer

A

Endoscopic mucosal resection if small and confined to inner lining of oesophagus

If it has spread out with the inner lining then oesopahgectomy is done

Chemoradiation may be done if cant have/doesn’t want surgery or neoadjuvantly

230
Q

List intra-sinusoidal causes of increased resistance in the portal vein

A

Contraction of vascular smooth muscle cells + myofibroblasts - increases portal flow.
Hepatocyte degeneration and remodelling can reduce sinusoid calibre
Collagen deposition in space of Disse alters the elastic properties of the sinusoidal wall
Periportal inflammation, fibrosis and/or necrosis can block sinusoids
Decreased NO production, increased endothelin-1 + angiotensinogen release -> intra-hepatic vasoconstriction
Intrahepatic shunts interfere with the metabolic exchange between sinusoidal blood & hepatocyte

231
Q

Which is more common, upper or lower GI bleeding

A

Upper GI

Lower is approx 20% as common as upper GI bleeding

232
Q

List aggressive factors which contribute to peptic ulcer disease

A
NSAIDs
H. pylori infection
Alcohol
Bile salts
Acid
Pepsin
233
Q

List causes of stomach bleeds

A

Peptic Ulcer Disease
Gastritis
Gastric Cancer

234
Q

What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in pregnancy

A

Hypercalcaemia

235
Q

What is the connection between the portal and systemic systems in the oesophagus that allows shunts

A

Superior part of oesophagus drains to azygous vein

Inferior part drains to hepatic portal vein

236
Q

Describe the structure of the mucosa in the stomach

A

Has several sublayers

Epithelium - changes from stratified squamous in esophagus to simple columnar (for absorption)

Lamina propria - loose connective tissues, lymphatics, fenestrated blood vessels, mucosal gland, unencapsulated lymphoid nodules and plasma cells

Muscularis mucosae (controlled by Meissner’s plexus)
Raises into folds – rugae 

Gastric pits: tiny epithelial recess where glands open into

Mucous lining to protect against acidity

237
Q

H pylori can be picked up by which stains

A

Strongly urease positive

Silver stain: Warthin-Starry stain

238
Q

What determines the extent of the morphological signs of pancreatitis

A

The duration and severity of the pancreatitis

e.g. acute interstitial pancreatitis vs acute necrotizing and haemorrhagic pancreatitis

239
Q

How do you manage advanced stage oesophageal cancer

A

Managed with chemo +/- radiotherapy

Potentially herceptin or immunological therapy depending on cancer type

240
Q

Where does the portal vein enter the liver

A

Portal vein enters at hilum
It then splits into the right and left portal vein
Right supplies segments 5-8 and left supplies segments 1-4

241
Q

How common are subdural haemorrhages

A

They occur in around 15% of head trauma cases and up to 30% of fatal trauma cases.
More common in men than women (3:1 ratio) and highest incidence in the 50s-70s

242
Q

Describe the epidemiology of GORD

A

Most common cause of oesophagitis
Prevalence of 10-20% in the west but only 5% in Asia
Most common in individuals >40yrs

243
Q

Describe macronodular cirrhosis

A

Has differing size of nodules
Diameter >3mm (can be >1cm+)
May contain >1 portal vein + central vein

244
Q

How are the causes of portal HTN divided

A

Into pre, intra- and post-hepatic causes

Pre-hepatic – alterations to portal venous system (tributaries: splenic and SM veins).
Intra-hepatic – disease which affects the liver architecture or microcirculation.
Post-hepatic – aka. Supra-hepatic disease, from the IVC and beyond

245
Q

How are GI bleeds classified

A

typically classified by their location in relation to the ligament of Treitz (suspensory muscles of the duodenum)

UGI = Oesophagus, stomach and duodenum
LGI = Jejunum, ileum, colon, rectum and anus
246
Q

H pylori is positive in which proportion of ulcers

A

~95% of duodenal ulcer and~75% of gastric ulcer patients

247
Q

List the microscopic features of a subdural haematoma

A

Signs of clot lysis after 1 week.
After around 2 weeks, fibroblasts will be seen in the haematoma.
Hyalinised connective tissue can form after 1-3 months.

248
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic test for peptic ulcer disease

A

Upper GI endoscopy

249
Q

List the clinical features of oesophageal cancer

A
dysphagia/odynophagia - usually starts with solids and progresses 
Weight loss
Anaemia and heamatemesis
Epigastric or retrosternal pain
Pain over bony structures of neck
Hoarseness
Persistent cough
Recurrent pneumonia
250
Q

How do you treat Barrett’s (in general)

A

Once diagnosed are put onto optimum dose PPI therapy and given periodic endoscopy and biopsy to monitor for disease progression

251
Q

A BAC of between 200-300 mg/100ml is likely to have what effect

A

Get depression of the limbic system and cerebellum.

Leads to confusion, loss of memory/orientation and problems with movement and speech.

252
Q

What is the prevalence of peptic ulcer disease

A

Prevalence increases with age
Affecting approx. 4.6 million in the US

Non-variceal causes have mortality of 8-14%

253
Q

How can alcohol affect an unborn baby

A

It can cause Foetal Alcohol Syndrome

Caused by ethanol intake during pregnancy - particularly during the first trimester

254
Q

How does E-cadherin dysfunction lead to gastric cancer

A

Caused by mutations in the CDH1 gene

Causes dysfunction of gastric epithelial cells
This causes a failure to maintain cell polarity and differentiation
Leads to tumour invasion & progression

255
Q

Splenomegaly in portal HTN can induce which secondary effects

A

May secondarily induce haematologic abnormalities attributable to “hypersplenism” – esp. thrombocytopenia or even pancytopenia

Largely due to sequestration of blood elements in the expanded splenic red pulp.

256
Q

List the cons of the Child-Pugh score

A

Ascites and HE are subjective and the use of diuretics and lactulose (treatment) can vary.
INR reflects hepatic synthetic function but not naturally occurring anticoagulants like protein C and S.
Inter-laboratory variation in INR calculation.

257
Q

What is the typical incidence of peptic ulcer disease

A

approximately 1 case per 100 person per year

258
Q

Damage to the bile ducts in cirrhosis has what effects

A

It leads to cholestasis in the small bile ducts - pruritus

Can lead to new ducts forming in fibrous tissue.

259
Q

Where is Virchows node

A

behind the medial end of the left clavicle

260
Q

What is the mortality from subdural haematoma

A

Mortality in symptomatic cases is very high – 50-90%.

261
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Progression of the BO to the adenocarcinoma over an extended period of time due to step wise acquisition of genetic and epigenetic changes

Specific changes not well understood but thought to be due to mutations within tp53 and CDKN2A as well as amplification of EGFR, ERBB2, MET, cyclin D and cyclin E oncogenes

Obesity also plays a role additional to causing GORD as the hypertrophied adipocytes and inflammatory cells within fat deposits create an environment of low grade inflammation and promote tumour development by releasing adipokines and cytokines
Also supply energy and support tumour growth

262
Q

Which specialised cell type will you find in the space of Disse?

A

Hepatic stellate cells

263
Q

List the microscopic features of oesophageal varices

A

Dilated vessels sitting within the mucosa and submucosa

May be associated with inflammation +/- tissue necrosis

264
Q

Is h pylori a carcinogen

A

Yes

Class 1 carcinogen (WHO)

265
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of oesophageal varices

A

Increase in vascular resistance in portal system leads to development of collateral vessels to allow some shunting of blood around the liver

This causes congestion and dilation of venous plexuses within the oesophagus and stomach

266
Q

List factors associated with an increased risk of duodenal ulcers in the setting of NSAID use

A
Hx of previous peptic ulcer disease 
Older age 
Female sex
High doses or combinations of NSAIDs
Long-term NSAID use
Concomitant use of anticoagulants 
Severe comorbid illnesses
267
Q

What is the connection between the portal and systemic systems in the rectum/anus that allows shunts

A

Rectum and superior anal canal drain to IMV; inferior part of GI tract drains to internal iliac veins.

268
Q

How are small subdural haematomas managed

A

May be managed conservatively with serial head CTs.
This is because venous bleeding usually self-limiting and the haematoma may resorb

If there are clotting abnormalities these should be reversed immediately.
Should also address the initial cause of the trauma if possible (e.g. assess fall risk or treat alcoholism.)

269
Q

How do you confirm dysplasia in BO

A

Biopsy

If biopsy shows dysplasia this must be confirmed by a second pathologist experienced with BO neoplasia

270
Q

List the 5 characteristic morphological signs of acute pancreatitis

A
Microvascular leak and oedema  
Fat necrosis 
Acute inflammation 
Damage 
Blood vessel destruction with interstitial haemorrhage
271
Q

Describe the structure of the muscularis externa of the small intestine

A

inner circular, outer longitudinal smooth muscles

272
Q

Which score is used MELD or Child-Pugh

A

More research needs to be done to define which score should be used and when

Each is better in different sitautions

273
Q

Cirrhosis can cause impaired oestrogen metabolism - true or false

A

True

274
Q

Describe the structure of the lamina propria of the oesophagus

A

Made of fibrovascular connective tissue
Has scattered inflammatory cells and mucus glands lined with foveolar like cells releasing neutral mucin
Will fold into papillae that protrude into epithelium

275
Q

What is the recommended antimicrobial regimen for a perforated peptic ulcer

A

Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Microbiological sample collection for analysis of pathogen

Initiation of empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics asap
Targeting gram-negative, gram-positive and anaerobic bacteria

Short course of 3-5 days or until inflammatory markers normalize

276
Q

List the clinical features of gastric cancer

A

A palpable enlarges stomach with succussion splash
Hepatomegaly
Periumbilical metastasis (Sister Mary Joseph nodule)
Enlarged lymph nodes e.g. Left supraclavicular node & anterior axillary node
Blumer shelf - tumour in pouch of Douglas
Weight loss
Melena
Pallor from anemia

277
Q

What are the 3 main processes behind acute pancreatitis

A

Duct obstruction
Acinar cell injury
Defective intracellular transport

278
Q

Describe the microscopic features of a poorly differentiated gastric adenocarcinoma

A

Glands are not visible
Rows of infiltrating neoplastic cells with marked pleomorphism
Neoplastic cells have clear vacuoles of mucin pushing cell nucleus to one side -> signet ring

279
Q

What does the MELD score include

A

Measures total bilirubin, creatinine, INR and serum sodium levels

280
Q

What is the purpose of the pyloric sphincter

A

Acts as a valve and prevents backflow of contents to stomach

281
Q

What is a subdural haematoma

A

It is bleeding between the dura and arachnoid layers - in the subdural space

282
Q

List the 4 layers of the stomach

A

Mucosa - composed of epithelium, lamina propria, muscularis mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Serosa

283
Q

Describe the prevalence of diverticular disease

A

Prevalence increases with age with approximately 50% of over 50s having some degree of disease.

Thought to account for 15-40% of LGI bleeds

284
Q

Describe the microscopic features of gastric cancer

A

Hyperchromatic (big N/C ratio)

Increased mitosis

285
Q

Describe how pancreatic enzymes are activated

A

The enzymes are produced as inactive proenzymes.
Once the pancreatic secretion arrives in the duodenum an enteropeptidase converts the inactive proteolytic enzyme trypsinogen into the active form, trypsin.

This begins a cascade that results in the activation of the other enzymes.

286
Q

How might compensated cirrhosis present

A

Stigmata of cirrhosis
May be an incidental finding
May have portal HTN
Symptoms of cause - may have been present earlier

287
Q

What is the outlook for chronic pancreatitis

A

Outlook is poor: 25 year mortality rate of 50%

288
Q

How may advanced pancreatic cancer present if there is intra-abdominal disease

A

Presence of ascites, a palpable abdominal mass, hepatomegaly from liver metastases, or splenomegaly from portal vein obstruction

289
Q

List symptoms of pancreatic cancer

A

Significant weight loss
Mid-epigastric pain - sometimes with radiation of the pain to the midback or lower-back region
Often, unrelenting pain: Night-time pain often a predominant complaint
Onset of diabetes mellitus within the previous year
Painless obstructive jaundice
Pruritus: Often the patient’s most distressing symptom
Depression
Migratory thrombophlebitis (ie, Trousseau sign) and venous thrombosis: May be the first presentation
Palpable gallbladder (ie, Courvoisier sign)

290
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of ascites

A

It is a complex process involving sinusoidal hypertension, hypoalbuminemia, increased hepatic lymph flow, and splanchnic vasodilatation and hyperdynamic circulation

291
Q

How do genetics contribute to peptic ulcer disease

A

More than 20% of patients have a family history of duodenal ulcers, compared with only 5-10% in the control groups

292
Q

If features of upper GI bleeding are present, there is no way the source is lower - true or false

A

Though there are certain features that are more characteristic of one source of bleeding or the other, these are not always the case
In 15% of patients who present with LGI bleeding, the source is actually an UGI bleed
UGI bleeds may present as frank blood in stool if severe enough

293
Q

List the microscopic features of peptic ulcers

A

There will be loss of the normal histological structure of the gut wall

Active ulcers may be lined by a thin layer of fibrinoid debris with a predominantly neutrophilic inflammatory infiltrate

Granulation tissue with immature vessels, mononuclear leukocytes, a fibrous/collagenous scar forms ulcer base

Scarring usually at base but may involve the entire thickness of the wall - this can draw surrounding mucosa into folds that radiate outward

There may also be some metaplastic changes present

294
Q

What is the mechanism of death in GORD

A

GORD can lead to Barretts Oesophagus and then Adenocarcinoma which can be fatal

Ulceration has the potential to cause an upper GI bleed

295
Q

How is non dysplastic BO treated

A

PPI irrespective of symptoms and surveyed every 3-5yrs

296
Q

List features of alcohol withdrawal

A

tremor, nausea & vomiting, malaise, headache, insomnia, weakness, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, depression, irritability
Hallucinations - particualrly visual or tactile - insect crawling is a common one

In severe cases patients can have withdrawal fits or develop delirium tremens (DTs) which involves sudden onset of confusion and hallucinations alongside the other symptoms.

297
Q

When does Barrett’s oesophagus become intramucosal carcinoma

A

Once the epithelial cells invade the lamina propria - defining feature

298
Q

Where is alcohol excreted unchanged (i.e. before metabolism)

A

The urine, sweat and breath

Excretion via breath is the reason why you can do breath tests

299
Q

Does h pylori reduce the risk of any types of cancer

A

YES
Reduced risk of gastric cardia cancer
Thought to be related to decline in stomach acidity which is often seen after decades of H. pylori colonization

300
Q

How do you treat oesophageal varices

A

Stabilisation and resuscitation if needed
Endoscopy within 12 hrs – if haemorrhage found, then Endoscopic Variceal Ligation (EVL) performed
TIPS – Trans-jugular Intrahepatic Porto-systemic Shunt

301
Q

What is happening to the incidence of peptic ulcer disease

A

Falling due to the reduced prevalence of H. pylori infection
BUT
Increasing in patients older than 60 years due to growing NSAIDs use - these cases can be amplified by H.pylori

302
Q

List the pathological features of significant GORD

A

Grossly – there may be erosions on top of the hyperaemia (redness)

Microscopically – eosinophils within the squamous mucosae, elongation of the papillae of the lamina propria and basal zone hyperplasia are all often seen

303
Q

List the macroscopic features of a subdural haematoma

A

Appears as a collection of freshly clotted blood on the brain surface.
It is not limited by the skull sutures but instead by the dural reflections.
The clot does not extend into the sulci of the brain and the arachnoid space is usually clear.
The underlying brain can be flattened by the pressure and after a long period the area can become atrophied.
Once organisation has occurred the haematoma can become firmly attached to the dura but free from the arachnoid.
May retract until it is only a thin layer of connective tissue or repeated bleeding can form a chronic haematoma.

304
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of chronic pancreatitis

A

Chronic pancreatitis often follows repeated episodes of acute pancreatitis
It has been proposed that the acute episodes initiate a sequence of perilobular fibrosis, duct distortion and altered secretions lead to loss of exocrine parenchyma and fibrosis

305
Q

What are some of the complications of the Nissen Fundoplication used in GORD

A

bleed at surgical site, peritonism, dysphagia, perforation/tear of oesophageal lining, slippage of the wrapped stomach

306
Q

What is the function of the pancreas

A

It is an accessory digestive organ
Has exocrine and endocrine functions
Exocrine - releases pancreatic digestive enzymes (produces 1L of juice per day)
Endocrine - releases insulin and glucagon

307
Q

Long-standing portal HTN may cause massive splenomegaly - true or false

A

True

308
Q

What is alcohol

A

The alcohols are a group of chemical compounds containing a hydroxyl group and a varying number of carbons
Produced via the fermentation of various products such as grains, fruit and vegetables

309
Q

What causes the formation of portosystemic shunts

A

Chronic portal hypertensions leads to vascular dilation + remodelling
Creates thin-walled collateral venous circulation (shunts) between portal & systemic circulations (bypass the liver)
Shunts can form anywhere the systemic & portal circulations share pre-existing vascular beds

310
Q

A BAC of under 100mg/100ml is likely to have what effect

A

Depression of higher cortical function.

Leads to excitement, loss of self consciousness, typical drunk/tipsy behaviour

311
Q

Where are most ulcers found in PUD

A

Most frequently found in proximal duodenum within a few cm of pyloric valve

312
Q

List the defense mechanisms of the stomach and small intestine

A
Tight intercellular junctions
Mucus
Bicarbonate
Mucosal blood flow
Cellular restitution
Epithelial renewal 

All help prevent ulceration normally

313
Q

Why must cirrhosis patients have a predicted mortality worse than 9% to be considered for a liver transplant

A

1-year post-liver transplant mortality (UK) is ~9%.

So they must have a worse mortality than that for the transplant to give them a survival benefit

314
Q

What are the characteristic features of chronic pancreatitis

A

parenchymal fibrosis, acinar atrophy and dropout, and variable ductal dilation

315
Q

Which structures run on the surface of the oesophagus

A

RLN runs on its surface with thoracic duct to left and carotid sheath down the side

316
Q

What is the main complication of Barrett’s

A

Can develop into adenocarcinoma

Most cases will NOT

317
Q

List the main causes of acute pancreatitis

A
Idiopathic
Gallstones (rare : genetic e.g. CF) 
Ethanol (alcohol)
Trauma - BF, surgery etc. 
Steroids
Mumps(and other infections)/malignancy
Autoimmune - SLE etc 
Scorpion stings/spider bites
Hyperlipidaemia/hypercalcaemia/hyperparathyroidism (aka the metabolic disorders)
ERCP
Drugs (tetracyclines, furosemide, azathioprine, thiazides and many others)
318
Q

The islets cells stain less intensely than the cells of the exocrine pancreas - true or false

A

True

319
Q

What are the indications for surgery in a perforated peptic ulcer

A

significant pneumoperitoneum, extraluminal contrast extravasation, or signs of peritonitis
Performing surgery asap (particularly in patients w/ delayed presentation or those >70 yo)

320
Q

What is the most common cause of oesophagitis

A

GORD

321
Q

List potential causes of cirrhosis

A
Viral hepatitis (B/C/D)
Alcoholism
NAFLD
Metabolic disease
Cholestasis
Hepatic venous outflow obstruction
Toxins & some drug-induced (MTX) hepatitis
Intestinal bypass (TPN)
Autoimmune hepatitis 
Cryptogenic cirrhosis.
322
Q

List the microscopic features of diverticulitis

A

The walls of colonic diverticula are comprised of flattened mucosa +/- submucosa, without muscularis.

In the case of infection, inflammatory infiltrate may be present at the base.

Granulomas may begin to form, especially in the case of perforation

323
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus will develop in every case of GORD - true or false

A

False

Wont develop in every chronic GORD patient but its not known why some are effected and not others

324
Q

List the Borrman classifications for gastric cancer

A

Type I: polypoid

Type II: fungating
Ischemic-> necrotic -> shed off

Type III: ulcerated
Heaped up/everted edges

Type IV: diffusely infiltrating
Thickening of stomach wall
Very firm (leather-bottle stomach/linitis plastica)

325
Q

What is the pro of the UKMELD

A

All laboratories in transplant units measure serum bilirubin and creatinine conc. using the same methods - consistent

326
Q

Which infections can cause acute pancreatitis

A
Mumps
Coxsackievirus
Hepatitis
Infectious mononucleosis
HIV/AIDS
parasitic:ascariasis
327
Q

Describe mixed cirrhosis

A

Has an equivalent no. of micro- and macro-nodules so cannot be clearly classified as one of the other types

328
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease

A

Results from imbalance between defence mechanisms & aggressive factors that cause chronic gastritis
Under normal conditions: a physiologic balance exists between gastric acid secretion & gastroduodenal mucosal defense
Aggressive factors alter mucosal defense by allowing back diffusion of hydrogen ions and subsequent epithelial cell injury

329
Q

Where does the stomach sit

A

From the gastroesophegeal junction at T11 to the duodenum at l1-l2

330
Q

How do hepatocytes regenerate in early stage cirrhosis

A

Primarily by replication of mature hepatocytes adjacent to those that have died (even with significant confluent necrosis)
Will however reach replicative senescence - can no longer replicate

331
Q

Describe the path of the oesophagus

A

Muscular tube that’s normally collapsed
In the neck is within the deep cervical visceral fascia with the trachea and thyroid
Runs behind the aortic arch and to left and descending aorta
Travels behind the left main bronchus and right pulmonary artery
Comes in front of the descending aorta at the oesophageal diaphragmatic hiatus (passes through at T10)
Gastroesophageal junction at T1

332
Q

The presence of red blood cells in ascites fluid suggests what

A

possible disseminated intra-abdominal cancer

333
Q

Describe the brain injury caused by subdural haematomas

A

Primary brain injury can occur from the haematoma itself or the causative trauma .
Secondary injuries can include oedema, infarction, secondary hemorrhage, and brain herniation (all of which cause further brain damage and potentially death)

334
Q

List the management options for GORD

A

Lifestyle modification - stop smoking, wt loss (if obese), avoid provoking factors i.e. certain foods
Antacids and H2 antagonists for symptomatic relief
PPI for symptom relief and healing of the oesophagus – GOLD standard
Nissen Fundoplication – rarely used and only for young patients with severe refractory disease and complications

335
Q

What is cryptogenic cirrhosis

A

Where cirrhosis arises without any clear cause.

336
Q

In which part of the stomach are gastric peptic ulcers most commonly found

A

along lesser curvature near the interface of the body & antrum

337
Q

How is quality of life affected in subdural haematoma survivors

A

Quality of life is often impaired due to loss of function

338
Q

How does alcohol cause oesophageal varices

A

Impaired blood flow through the portal system and liver leads to increased pressure in collateral vessels, such as those in the oesophagus.

These vessels become dilated and are at risk of rupture and fatal bleeding

339
Q

Describe the epidemiology of chronic pancreatitis

A

According to Robbins, prevalence is 0.04% - 5%

Middle age males most affected

340
Q

A BAC of between 100-200 mg/100ml is likely to have what effect

A

Causes confusion, loss of fine motor control and emotional control and slurring of speech

341
Q

What is the aim of GORD management

A

To relive symptoms, heal oesophagitis and prevent complications ( mainly BE)

342
Q

How does alcohol cause malnutrition

A

Ethanol provides calories but not nutrition.
Chronic drinkers are therefore at risk of many nutritional deficiencies, particularly B vitamins as they often won’t eat properly

343
Q

Oesophageal cancer is more common in which sex

A

Men

344
Q

How does a shunt within the rectum/anal canal veins collaterals present

A

With haemorrhoids

345
Q

How might decompensated cirrhosis present

A

With the signs + symptoms of liver failure

Stigmata of cirrhosis and symptoms of cause may also be present

346
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of GORD

A

Reflux of gastric bile and acid into oesophagus irritates the stratified squamous epithelium as it’s not designed to deal with corrosive acids

Leads to irritation and inflammation causing symptoms and if not resolved then chronic pathological changes occur

347
Q

Describe the natural history of GORD

A

It’s a chronic rather than acute condition that lasts for many years
Can progress to Barretts and cancer

348
Q

What is the most common cancer of the pancreas

A

80% are adenocarcinomas of the ductal epithelium

349
Q

In which countries is gastric cancers most prevalent

A

Incidence varies markedly with geography

Japan, Chile, Costa Rica, Eastern Europe: Incidence is up to 20-fold higher than in North America, Northern Europe, Africa and Southeast Asia

Highest death rates are recorded in western Asian countries (Iran, Turkmenistan, Kyrgyzstan)
Mass endoscopic screening programs have been successful in regions where the incidence is high

350
Q

Describe the acute effects of alcohol on the CNS

A

Alcohol acts as a depressant and mainly affects subcortical structures and therefore cortical activity
This leads to the common ‘symptoms’ of drunkenness such as loss of motor and cortical functions (e.g., decision making) and decrease in intellectual function.

At higher levels it affects cortical neurones and medullary centers including the respiratory centre = respiratory arrest

351
Q

How does pancreatic adenocarcinoma spread

A

Typically, pancreatic cancer first metastasizes to regional lymph nodes, then to the liver and, less commonly, to the lungs.

It can also directly invade surrounding organs such as the duodenum, stomach, and colon, or it can metastasize to any surface in the abdominal cavity via peritoneal spread.

It may spread to the skin as painful nodular metastases.

352
Q

List causes of bleeding in the small intestine and colon

A

Diverticulitis
Colonic Angiodysplasia

Infective Colitis 
Colonic Polyps 
IBD 
Colorectal Ca
Ischaemic Colitis
353
Q

What proportion of upper GI bleeds are caused by Mallory-Weiss tears

A

3-15%

354
Q

What causes spider nevi in cirrhosis

A

Impaired oestrogen metabolism

Each spider angioma is a central, pulsating, dilated arteriole from which small vessels radiate

355
Q

What is the arterial supply to the pancreas

A

Mainly branches from splenic artery - pancreatic branches

Gastroduodenal artery - superior pancreaticoduodenal

Superior mesenteric artery- inferior pancreaticoduodenal

Close relationship to the duodenum so similarities in blood supply

356
Q

What is the main function of M cells in Peyer’s patches

A

for primary defense against mucosal infection

357
Q

What are the main aims of treatment in PUD

A

Aimed at H. pylori eradication & neutralization of gastric acid (primarily with proton pump inhibitors)

358
Q

Describe the end stage of cirrhosis with diffuse scarring

A

Areas of hepatocyte loss transformed into dense fibrous septa -> encircle surviving hepatocytes.

Prominent feature in most cirrhotic livers: regenerative nodules

359
Q

How does a shunt within the paraumbilical + abdominal wall collaterals present

A

Appear as dilated subcutaneous veins extending from the umbilicus toward the rib margins - called caput medusae

It is a clinical hallmark of portal HTN

360
Q

Describe the process of scar formation and regression in cirrhosis

A

Hepatic stellate cells differentiate into highly myofibroblasts in response to injury.
Release cytokines, growth factors, chemotactic Kupffer cells or recruited macrophages & lymphocytes.

ECM deposition + scar formation often in space of Disse.

Loss of sinusoidal endothelial cells fenestration (sinusoidal capillarisation).

361
Q

List the morphological features of cirrhosis

A

Hepatocyte degeneration
Inflammatory cell infiltration-induced necrosis
Liver fibrous tissue hyperplasia (fibrosis)
Hepatocyte nodular regeneration

362
Q

What is the risk of sudden abstinence from alcohol

A

It can cause alcoholics to go into withdrawal

This is a very dangerous state

363
Q

What is the ligamentum teres hepatis a remnant of

A

the obliterated umbilical vein

364
Q

How do patients present with a GI perforation

A

Usually present with peritonitis and shock

365
Q

Which genetic variation to alcohol metabolism is common in the Asian population

A

Some people have very low levels of ADH due to a genetic variant
Approximately 50% of the Asian population have this
Leads to nausea, flushing, tachycardia and hyperventilation after alcohol intake

366
Q

What is the prevalence of oesophageal varices

A

Cause 5-10% of UGI bleeds

Present in up to 90% of patients with cirrhosis, more in those with decompensated cirrhosis

Mortality of 15-20%/ haemorrhagic episode, with >50% of patients having a recurrent bleed within the first year

367
Q

List the potential mechanisms of death from Barretts

A

Have a lower life expectancy than the average population
May die due to progression to adenocarcinoma
May die from complications of screening and treatment
May die due to comorbidities which are common due to risk factors for the original GORD including obesity, smoking and alcohol

368
Q

What is a blumer shelf

A

A palpable metastatic mass in the rectal pouch

Seen in pancreatic cancer

369
Q

Cervical nodes may be palpable in pancreatic cancer - true or false

A

True

370
Q

What is the main carcinogenic agent in laryngeal and oesophageal cancers

A

Acetaldehyde

371
Q

What causes pruritis in cirrhosis

A

Derived from persistent cholestasis

372
Q

How do you treat diverticulitis

A

1st line treatment is lifestyle modification +/- oral Abx

In acute bleeding, patients may require stabilisation and resuscitation, followed by endoscopic haemostasis (via clips, powders, stitching)

In the case of perforations, these should be surgically drained and IV Abx prescribed

373
Q

Alcohol misuse increases your risk of which cancers

A

Increased risk of cancer of the oral cavity, larynx oesophagus, liver and breast

374
Q

List pre-hepatic causes of portal hypertension

A

Obstructive thrombosis of portal vein
Structural abnormalities e.g., narrowing of portal vein before it ramifies in liver.
Massive splenomegaly w/ increased splenic vein blood flow

375
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of SCC of the oesophagus

A

The molecular pathogenesis is not well understood but recurrent abnormalities are seen as amplifications of transcription factor SOX1, over expression of the cell cycle regulator cyclin D and LOF mutations in tp53, CDH1 and NOTCH1 tumour suppressors

Generally thought to be linked to inflammation of the squamous epithelium which leads to dysplasia and in situ malignant transformation

376
Q

How do alcohol and tobacco cause SCC of the oesophagus

A

Alcohol damages the cellular DNA by decreasing metabolic activity in the cell
This promotes oxidation by blocking detoxification
Tobacco then has the synergistic effect and because alcohol is a solvent it allows the tobacco to penetrate into the oesophageal epithelium with more ease

377
Q

How do you diagnose portal hypertension

A

Diagnosis often based on clinical findings

Portal pressure can be measured if required but patency of portal vein should be assessed by Doppler USS before attempting to measure pressure in it

378
Q

List the potential complications of oesophageal radiofrequency ablation

A

bleeding and stricture formation

379
Q

List risk factors for oesophageal SCC

A
Smoking
Alcohol use
Caustic oesophageal injury
Achalasia
Plummer vinson syndrome,
Tylosis - rare genetic 
HPV
Consumption of very hot  beverages
Caustic strictures
Use of oral bisphosphonates
Poor oral hygiene
Prior gastrectomy
380
Q

How do you manage Hypovolaemic shock in GI bleeds

A

Patients may require careful management, including fluid resuscitation and blood products
Treat underlying bleed

381
Q

Where do most pancreatic cancers arise

A

Approximately 60% arise in the head of pancreas, 15% in the body, 5% in the tail and in 20% the entire pancreas is involved

382
Q

How do you treat BO with confirmed high grade dysplasia

A

endoscopic mucosal resection followed by ablation of remaining BE mucosae

383
Q

Describe the structure of the submucosa in the stomach

A

Loose connective tissues, larger blood & lymph vessels, lymphoid tissue, Meissner’s plexus, no submucosal glands

384
Q

List the microscopic features of cirrhosis

A

Lobular architecture destroyed by dense bands of fibrosis.
Hepatocyte degeneration – fatty, ballooning, eosinophilic, hydropic, etc.
Patterns of necrosis
Damaged/altered vasculature – central vein, bile ducts.
Nodular regeneration.
Specific cell types may be seen – e.g., Mallory bodies in alcoholic hepatitis/cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease

385
Q

List the potential complications of oesophageal cryo-ablation

A

pain, bleeding, scarring, dysphagia

386
Q

List some of the necrosis patterns seen in cirrhosis

A

Confluent - begins in zone 3 (near CV) w/ hepatocyte dropout (space filled with cellular debris

Bridging -may extend from the central veins to portal tracts, or across adjacent portal tracts

Pan-acinar – entire lobule obliterated

Piecemeal, zonal, spotty, etc.

387
Q

How are stage T1a gastric cancers treated

A

T1a - well-differentiated, ≤2 cm, confined to the mucosa, and not ulcerated

May be amenable to endoscopic resection

388
Q

List liver disease that can be caused alcohol

A

Alcoholic steatosis
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis (with portal hypertension
and hepatocellular carcinoma as a consequence)

389
Q

What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol abuse

Non-linear dose-response relationship
1.2x risk with ~40 g/day alcohol consumption
4x risk with ~100 g/day alcohol consumption

390
Q

Which factors are included in the Child-Pugh score

A
Encepathology - which grade
Ascites - presence/extent 
Bilirubin level 
Bilirubin in those with PBC or PSC 
Albumin level 
Prothrombin time or INR
391
Q

What UKMELD score is needed for a patient to be put on the transplant list

A

UKELD score ⩾ 49 is the minimum criteria for entry to waiting list under this category.

Unless patient has hepatocellular carcinoma and variant syndromes.
Those with alcoholic liver disease, past IVDU or current methadone use must be assessed individually.

392
Q

How do you treat a GI obstruction following a GI bleed

A

The precise treatment depends on the location, but endoscopic dilation is often a first line treatment

393
Q

Which neoadjuvant and adjuvant therapies are used in the treatment of gastric cancer

A
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy - pre-op and then post-op too
Intraoperative radiotherapy (IORT)
Adjuvant chemotherapy (eg, XELOX)
Adjuvant radiotherapy - post-op
Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy
394
Q

How does smoking cause peptic ulcer disease

A

It harms the mucosa

Smoking in the setting of H. pylori infection may increase the risk of relapse of peptic ulcer disease

395
Q

How can a subdural haematoma resolve

A

Venous bleeding is typically self-limiting.

The resulting haematoma can be broken down and organised with time

396
Q

List pre-sinusoidal causes of increased resistance in the portal vein

A

Compression of hepatic venules

e.g., by regenerative nodules (cirrhosis), cysts (polycystic disease), granulomatous disease or metastases

397
Q

How do you differentiate between high and low grade dysplasia in Barrett’s oesophagus

A

High grade is differentiated from low grade as it has more severe architectural and cytological changes

398
Q

If a mucosal lesion cant be seen but dysplasia is confirmed ( either high or low grade) then radio/cryo ablation can be done - true or false

A

True

399
Q

Describe the aetiology of Barrett’s oesophagus

A

It’s a complications of chronic GORD - not known why some affected and some not
You have intestinal type metaplasia within the oesophageal squamous mucosae due to chronic inflammation by the gastric contents
There are some autosomal dominant familial genetic mutations that will cause it but it’s a minority cause

400
Q

Describe the structure of H pylori

A

Gram negative
Spiral-shaped bacterium
Has 4-6 unipolar flagellae

401
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of the exocrine pancreas

A

It actually resembles the parotid gland
Has numerous serous acini and ducts
The cells are very basophilic because they contain large amounts of Rough Endoplasmic R.

402
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease typically associated with

A

Is almost always associated with H. pylori infection, NSAIDs, or cigarette smoking

403
Q

What are the 3 major complications of peptic ulcer treatments

A

Hemorrhage, Perforation/Penetration, Pyloric stenosis

404
Q

List the features of the dysplasia seen in Barrett’s

A

Increased nuclear to cytoplasm ration
Atypical mitoses
Irregularly clumped chromatin
Nuclear hyperchromasia
Failure of epithelial cells to mature as they travel to the surface of the oesophagus
Dysplastic glands show budding, cellular crowding and irregular shapes

405
Q

What are the hepatic stellate cells

A

Also called Ito cells
They are modified fibroblasts found in the space of Disse
They produce CT and store vitamin A in fat droplets.

406
Q

Describe the layers found in the mucosae of the oesophagus

A

Made of 3 layers - epithelium, lamina propria and mucularis mucosae

407
Q

Describe the structure of intestinal villi

A

Lined by columnar epithelial cells with abundant goblet cells

Lymphocytes, plasma cells, eosinophils present in lamina propria

Smooth muscle cells extend from muscularis mucosae – modulate height of villi

Fenestrated blood capillaries & lacteals – for fat absorption

Microvilli – further increase surface area

408
Q

List early post-op complications seen in gastric cancer treatment

A
Anastomotic failure
Bleeding
Ileus
Transit failure at the anastomosis
Cholecystitis (often occult sepsis without localizing signs)
Pancreatitis
Pulmonary infections
Thromboembolism

Direct mortality after 30 days - 1-2%

409
Q

which lymph nodes may be dissected in the treatment of gastric cancer

A

D1: perigastric lymph nodes

D2: hepatic, left gastric, celiac, splenic arteries, in the splenic hilum
D2 recommended
Try to spare pancreas and spleen

410
Q

List the microscopic features of alcohol cirrhosis

A
Hepatocytes in moderate-severe fatty degeneration
Presence of Mallory bodies
Eosinophilic degeneration & bodies
Bridging necrosis
Bile duct proliferation
411
Q

Describe the structure of the epithelium of the oesophagus

A

Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

Also contains melanocytes, Langerhans cells, Merkle cells, endocrine cells and squiggle cells

412
Q

Which cells in the pancreas secrete digestive enzymes

A

Acinar cells

413
Q

How do you treat a GI perforation

A

Surgery is sometimes necessary but most can be treated in the same way as the underlying pathology

414
Q

How does alcohol metabolism lead to fatty liver disease

A

Oxidation cause by alcohol leads to reduction of NAD to NADH which decreases the overall amount of NAD available
As this is required for fatty acid oxidation in the liver it leads to an accumulation of fat in the liver

415
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Barrett’s Oesophagus

A

Get chronic reflux of acidic gastric contents through the LOS into the distal oesophagus
The squamous epithelium is inflamed by the acidic contents and continued exposure leads to persistent inflammation as the squamous cells release Il8 and Il 1b signalling T lymphocytes and neutrophils
A columnar type metaplastic reaction occurs developing an intestinal phenotype characterised by goblet cells
Bile acid in particular up regulates CDX2 and MUC2 and therefore plays a role in the cellular transformation
Clonal abberations of p16 as well as mutations in CDX2 and tp53 are also found in early BE lesions and therefore potentially linked to the disease
Embryonic stem cells at the squamocolumnar junction or stem cells derived from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the lamina propria of the oesophagus or bone marrow may be the epithelial cells of origin for BO

416
Q

How does a low fibre diet lead to formation of diverticular

A

Caused increased transit time in colon and decreased stool volume

This leads to increased intraluminal pressure then increased colonic segmentation

Causes the formation of diverticular

417
Q

What are some of the complications of oesophageal biopsy

A

perforation or bleeding

418
Q

List non-specific symptoms of a GI bleed

A

Symptoms of anaemia - fatigue, syncope

Epigastric or wider abdominal pain

419
Q

Describe the structure of the serosa in the stomach

A

mesothelium and connective tissue

420
Q

How does h pylori cause gastric cancer

A

Long-term presence of inflammatory response leads to increased expression of a single cytokine interleukin-1-beta in stomach of transgenic mice
This results in sporadic gastric inflammation + cancer
(increased cell turnover from ongoing cellular damage -> increase likelihood of cells developing harmful mutations)

Infection with CagA- positive H. pylori was associated with inactivation of tumor suppressor proteins (p53)

421
Q

List late mechanicophysiologic

complications seen after gastric cancer treatment

A

Dumping syndrome, vitamin B-12 deficiency, reflux esophagitis, and bone disorders, especially osteoporosis

422
Q

Which parts of the small intestine have an adventitia and which parts have a serosa

A

Duodenum: adventitia

Jejunum & ileum: serosa

423
Q

What is the most common cause of ascites

A

Caused by cirrhosis in 85% of cases

424
Q

Goblet cells are found in the epithelium of the fundus and body of the stomach - true or false

A

False

425
Q

Which proportion of blood is diverted to collateral vessels in portal hypertension

A

In portal HTN, portal vein diverts 90% of increased blood flow to collaterals

426
Q

List causes of oesophageal bleeds

A

Varices
Oesophagitis
Mallory-Weiss Tears

Boerhaave Syndrome
Oesophageal Cancer

427
Q

What is the recommended surgical approach for a perforated peptic ulcer

A

Stable: Laparoscopic approach
Unstable: Open surgery

428
Q

Which vessels are usually responsible for the bleeding in a subdural haematoma

A

Bridging veins

They cross the subdural space and drain blood from the brain into the larger dural sinuses

429
Q

List the macroscopic features of a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Single or multiple vertical lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction, measuring anywhere between a few millimeters and several centimeters

430
Q

The liver has a dual blood supply - true or false

A

True
Supplied by both the hepatic portal vein and left & right hepatic arteries (come from the hepatic artery proper, a branch of the coeliac trunk).

431
Q

Describe the specific effect adenocarcinoma has on the pancreas

A

They recapitulate normal ductal epithelium by forming glands and secreting mucin

432
Q

The larger the spleen the more severe the other features of portal HTN - true or false

A

False

Size is not necessarily correlated with other features of portal HTN

433
Q

Describe the natural history of SCC of the oesophagus

A

The various underlying causes will result in squamous dysplasia which the progresses into invasive lesion

434
Q

What are the most common locations for mets in oesophageal cancer

A

Liver followed by the lung and lymph nodes

435
Q

What can cause pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

Smoking
Diabetes
Chronic inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis)
Family history of genetic syndromes that can increase cancer risk, including a BRCA2 gene mutation, Lynch syndrome and familial atypical mole-malignant melanoma (FAMMM) syndrome
Family history of pancreatic cancer
Obesity
Older age, as most people are diagnosed after age 65

436
Q

Where would you find intestinal crypts

A

Between villi & in lamina propria of the small intestine

437
Q

Describe the metabolism of alcohol

A

The majority of the alcohol is metabolised to acetaldehyde in the liver by 3 enzymes - alcohol dehydrogenase, cytochrome P-450 and catalase
The acetaldehyde will eventually be converted to acetate by alcohol dehydrogenase which can be used in the respiratory chain or lipid synthesis

438
Q

Describe the natural history of gastric cancer

A

Normal epithelium can be damaged by chronic gastritis
This can lead to atrophic gastritis
This can progress to intestinal metaplasia, then dysplasia
Finally the cancer forms

Huge number of factors can trigger/influence each step in this progression - including mutations, lifestyle factors etc

439
Q

How would you investigate suspected oesophageal cancer

A
CT chest and abdo
PET
Endoscopic USS
Bronchoscopy
Barium swallow
440
Q

How do you manage early stage oesophageal cancer

A

Endoscopic mucosal resection if small and confined to inner lining of oesophagus

If it has spread out with the inner lining then oesopahgectomy is done

Chemoradiation may be done if cant have/doesn’t want surgery or neoadjuvantly

441
Q

Describe the aetiology of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus

A

Most cases are caused by chronic GORD and its progression to BO
Lesser causes include tobacco smoke and exposure to radiation

442
Q

What is the third most common cause of death from cancer

A

Gastric cancer

443
Q

Describe the natural history of oesophageal adenocarcinoma

A

Starts as GORD, progresses to BO then adenocarcinoma due to dysplasia

444
Q

List the layers of the small intestine

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Adventitia/Serosa

445
Q

Describe the microscopic features of Barrett’s

A

Intestinal type metaplasia is characterised by replacement of squamous epithelium with goblet cells

Goblet cells are diagnostic of BE and have distinct mucous vacuoles that stain pale blue and shape the rest of the cytoplasm like a wine glass

Non goblet columnar cells such as gastric type foveolar cells may be seen also – not enough for diagnosis

446
Q

Why might a patient with oesophageal cancer not notice their dysphagia

A

Some people inadvertently alter their diet - less solids so problem is less obvious

447
Q

Describe the structure of the muscularis mucosae of the oesophagus

A

Longitudinally orientated smooth muscle bindles

Will thicken as the oesophagus descends

448
Q

What is the most likely cause of gastric metaplasia

A

Most likely to be a defence response or adaptation to excess acid reaching the duodenum

449
Q

What stimulates hepatic stellate cells to turn into myofibroblasts in cirrhosis

A

Cytokines e.g. TNF-alpha (produced by Kupffer cells, macrophages)
Altered interactions with ECM
Toxins
Reactive oxygen species

450
Q

Describe the mechanism of death from oesophageal cancer

A

Organ dysfunction due to metastasis

Local invasion resulting in asphyxia, haematemesis or recurrent infection = respiratory failure and sepsis

Invasion of the aorta ( SCC) causing fatal exsanguinations

451
Q

Sinusoidal capillarisation is a particularly prominent feature of which conditions

A

NASH

Also a feature of the abnormal sinusoids seen in hepatocellular carcinoma.

452
Q

What signs on examination may suggest acute pancreatitis

A

(Rare) signs of haemorrhage on the physical exam include:
Cullen sign: periumbilical bruising
Grey-Turner sign : flank bruising

453
Q

Which zone of the liver is most affected by paracetamol overdose

A

Zone 3

454
Q

List the 2 characteristic features of pancreatic caner

A

1) highly invasive extending into peripancreatic tissues

2) they elicit a desmoplastic response that results in deposition of dense collagen

455
Q

Describe the range of pathology seen in acute pancreatitis

A

The morphology of acute pancreatitis ranges from limited inflammation and oedema to extensive necrosis and haemorrhage

456
Q

How do NSAIDs cause peptic ulcer disease and bleeding

A

COX-1 pathway promotes prostaglandin production, which contributes to maintaining the mucus-bicarbonate barrier in the stomach, optimal submucosal blood flow, and improved healing when tissues are damaged
NSAIDs inhibit this pathway, rendering the gastric mucosa more susceptible to damage

Also have anti-platelet action, which increases bleeding risk

457
Q

When is oesophageal cancer considered advanced

A

When it has spread to nodes, liver, lungs or stomach

458
Q

What is the connection between the portal and systemic systems in the abdominal area that allows shunts

A

Connection between para-umbilical + small epigastric veins

459
Q

Describe the structure of pyloric glands

A

Shorter & more branched glands

Deeper pits

460
Q

Where is gastric juice secreted from and what is its function

A

The fundus and body of the stomach

It is for digestion - contains water, HCl, mucus, digestive enzymes, electrolytes

461
Q

What is the role of hepatic stellate cells in both normal health and in the context of chronic liver disease?

A

Store vitamin A in fat droplets normally

Transform into myofibroblasts in setting of chronic liver injury. Myofibroblasts are fibrogenic and are involved in scar formation.

462
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of oesophageal SCC

A

50% of cases will be in the middle 1/3 of the oesophagus and all will start as squamous dysplasia

Early lesions - small plaque thickenings that are gray-white in colour
Over months to years will grow into a tumour mass that is either polypoid or exophytic and protrudes into and obstructs the lumen

Otherwise tumours mat be diffuse infiltrated lesions that will spread in the oesophageal wall and cause rigidity, thickening and narrowing of the lumen or they may also be ulcerated

463
Q

What is the transplant benefit score used for

A

It is a national set of rules offering livers to named adult patients on the elective liver waiting list

Livers offered to named patients throughout the UK who are predicted to gain the most survival benefit from receiving the particular liver graft on offer

464
Q

Describe the pathological timeline of cirrhosis

A

Starts with hepatocyte degeneration (ballooning, fatty change)
Then hepatocyte necrosis
Then hepatocyte regeneration
Then scar formation and regression
Eventually will have extensive, diffuse scarring with dense fibrous septa surrounding remaining normal hepatocytes (cirrhosis).

465
Q

What innervates the pancreas

A

Sympathetic – abdominopelvic splanchnic nerves
Parasympathetic – vagus nerves

Both of these pass through the diaphragm, then follow arteries from the celiac and superior mesenteric plexus to reach the pancreas

466
Q

List the classic symptoms of GORD

A
Heartburn
Dysphagia and odynophagia
Regurgitation of sour tasting gastric contents, usually postprandial 
Coughing
Hoarseness
Chest pain that differs from heartburn
467
Q

What is the most common cause of acute lower GI bleeds in Western countries

A

The two most common causes of acute LGI bleeding with significant blood loss are diverticulitis and colonic angiodysplasia

468
Q

What is ascites

A

The accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

469
Q

List the potential adverse outcomes of acute pancreatitis

A
Acute renal failure
Acute respiratory distress syndrome 
Sterile pancreatic abscesses 
Pseudocysts
In around half of patients with acute necrotizing the debris becomes infected
470
Q

How is T1 gastric cancer treated if endoscopic treatment isn’t possible - doesnt meet criteria

A

Lymph node dissection during open surgery (limited to perigastric nodes & local N2 nodes)

471
Q

What causes coffee-ground vomit and melaena

A

Gastric acid oxidises the haem in RBCs after a period of time giving these appearances

472
Q

What nerve system coordinates peristalsis

A

Myenteric plexus

Found in the muscularis externa

473
Q

What is contributing to a decrease in gastric cancer cases

A

Reduced rate of H. pylori infection

Decreased consumption of dietary carcinogens such as N-nitroso compounds and benzo[a]pyrene

Widespread availability of refrigeration -reduced use of salt and smoking for food preservation

474
Q

How long does it take for alcohol withdrawal to set in

A

Usually begins 6-12 hours after last drink (can be up to 72hours) and lasts a few days

475
Q

Describe the aetiology of diverticulitis

A

Thought to be multifactorial with both genetic and environmental factors contributing

Low fibre diet thought to be main contributing factor in Western countries
May also be due to dysfunction of the colonic wall, changes in colonic motility, and disruptions to the gut microbiome

Other RF – Obesity, smoking, excessive alcohol and caffeine intake, NSAID use

476
Q

What signs of oesophageal cancer may be seen on physical examination

A

Usually normal but may show enlargement of laterocervical or supraclavicular nodes or hepatomeagaly

477
Q

How does COVID affect the pancreas

A

SARS-CoV-2 has been shown to infects cells of the human exocrine and endocrine pancreas ex vivo and in vivo
Has been detected in pancreas cells PM

Infection is associated with morphological, transcriptional and functional changes
Can affect insulin and contribute to the metabolic dysregulation observed in patients with COVID-19.

478
Q

Which signs suggest a poor prognosis in gastric cancer

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes e.g. dermatomyositis, acanthosis nigricans, circinate erythemas

479
Q

How do upper GI bleeds present

A

Haematemesis
“coffee-ground” vomit
Melaena

480
Q

Which palliative therapies are used in the treatment of gastric cancer

A

Palliative radiotherapy

Palliative-intent procedures (eg, wide local excision, partial gastrectomy, total gastrectomy, simple laparotomy, gastrointestinal anastomosis, bypass)

481
Q

What are the duct cells within the pancreatic acini called

A

Centroacinar cells

Commonly called duct cells

482
Q

List rare cancers that can affect the oesophagus

A
Unusual adenocarcinoma
Undifferentiated carcinoma
Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Melanoma
Lymphoma
Sarcoma
483
Q

What causes fat necrosis

A

Caused by lipase leads to “saponification”

Fatty acids combine with calcium to form insoluble soaps that impart a granular blue microscopic appearance to surviving fat cells

484
Q

Which enzymes are secreted by the pancreas

A

proteases to break down proteins
lipases to break down lipids
nucleases to breakdown DNA/RNA
amylase to break down starch

485
Q

Describe the microscopic features of oesophageal adenocarcinoa

A

Form glands and produce mucin - glands tend to have intestinal type morphology
Less commonly the tumours may be made of diffusely infiltrating signet ring cells or rarely small poorly differentiated cells
Its also common to find BO beside the tumour

486
Q

What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

A

Thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency - common in chronic alcoholics

487
Q

List the 4 layers of the oesophagus

A

mucosae, submucosae, muscularis propria and adventitia

488
Q

Subdural haematomas are most common over which part of the brain

A

The lateral aspects of the cerebral hemispheres

489
Q

How does alcohol cause hepatitis

A

By-products of metabolism cause hepatic injury and inflammation though exact mechanism uncertain

490
Q

What is the UKMELD

A

UK-specific version of the MELD score which was designed to predict waiting list mortality and improve distribution of liver grafts

491
Q

Very few pancreatic tumours are benign - true or false

A

True

Only 2% of tumours in the exocrine pancreas

492
Q

Which malignancies can cause acute pancreatitis

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

lymphoma

493
Q

H pylori are present in what proportion of chronic gastritis cases

A

H. pylori are present in majority of individuals w/ chronic antral gastritis

494
Q

What is the standard eradication therapy for H pylori

A

First-line eradication therapy: standard triple therapy i.e. amoxicillin, clarithromycin, PPI
Should be started after 72-96 hours of intravenous proton-pump inhibitor and continued for 14-day duration

Other options: PPI-based triple therapy, clarithromycin-based triple therapy, quadruple therapy

495
Q

Describe the natural history and progression of PUD

A

Imbalance between aggressive factors & defensive factors leads to gastric metaplasia (defence adaptation) of duodenum/stomach
This causes duodenitis/gastritis
Further addition of aggressive factors causes a duodenal/gastric ulcer
Ulcer penetrates through muscularis and adventitia (ulcer perforates into peritoneal cavity!) causes peritonitis and eventually death

496
Q

List the macroscopic features of Barrett’s

A

Red velvety mucosae extending upwards in tongues from the gastroesophageal junction
The metaplastic mucosae alternates with the squamous epithelium that remains (it is pale) and will interface with the gastric mucosae distally which is a light brown columnar gastric mucosae
Separated into short segment ( <3cm) and long segment ( >/3cm)

497
Q

Where does the pharynx run

A

Base of skull to criciod cartilage

498
Q

List potential mechanisms of death from gastric cancer

A

Hematogenous spread & lymphatic spread can lead to:
Pathologic peritoneal & pleural effusions
Liver failure
Intrahepatic jaundice caused by hepatomegaly
Extrahepatic jaundice

Obstruction of gastric outlet, gastroesophageal junction, or small bowel

499
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus can cause which specific symptoms

A

Most will have had symptoms of underlying GORD

The cancer may be diagnosed before symptoms occur if picked up on GORD/BO screening

500
Q

Describe the structure of the adventitia of the oesophagus

A

Made of loose connective tissue.

Most of the oesophagus is surrounded by fascia

501
Q

List the most common causes of cirrhosis

A
Alcohol
NAFLD
Hep C and B
PBC
Autoimmune hepatiti
502
Q

The activation of the alcohol metabolism pathway can increase susceptibility of other drugs - true or false

A

True
If the other drug uses the same enzymes in their metabolism then the person is more susceptible - e.g. cocaine
However, when both are present the alcohol competes for the enzyme and may slow drug metabolism (potentiated effect)

503
Q

What causes the majority of adenocarcinoma cases in the oesophagus

A

Barrett’s

504
Q

Each functional segment of the liver contains what structures

A

Each with a branch of the hepatic artery and portal vein, a bile duct and venous drainage (to IVC).

505
Q

List the potential complications of oesophagectomy

A

bleeding, infection, anastomotic leak, change to voice, pneumonia, dysphagia, AF, death

506
Q

What can cause a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Associated with activities which cause a transmural pressure gradient between the abdomen and thorax

Coughing, vomiting, CPR, hiccups, medications (particularly NSAIDS), instrumentation
Hiatus hernias are thought to be a risk factor
Most commonly associated with prolonged retching or vomiting during alcohol intoxication

507
Q

Which disease can alcohol consumption protect you from?

A

Coronary heart disease

508
Q

List the clinical signs of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Fluctuating rigidity and hyperreflexia.

Asterixis – nonrhythmic, rapid flexion-extension movements of head and extremities
Best seen when arms held in extension with dorsiflexed wrists. Aka. ‘liver flap’.

509
Q

Describe the aetiology of chronic pancreatitis

A

Most common cause is alcohol
Also associated with long-standing obstruction of pancreatic duct, autoimmune injury and hereditary factors
Genetics - CFTR

510
Q

Where is the pancreas located in the body

A

Transversely orientated retroperitoneal organ extending from the c-loop of the duodenum to the hilum of the spleen
Lies between the duodenum on the right and the spleen on the left, posterior to the stomach

511
Q

List risk factors for subdural haematomas

A
Chronic alcohol misuse
Epilepsy
Coagulopathies
Anticoagulant use 
Diabetes
512
Q

Describe how duct obstruction can cause acute pancreatitis

A

Back up of enzymes such as lipase cause extensive damage such as fat necrosis as well as oedema

Common in gallstones and cancer

513
Q

What are some of the complications of PPI treatment

A

hypomagnesium, hypocalceamia, c. diff infection, pneumonia

514
Q

How many lobes does the liver have

A

2 main lobes - L&R

Also has 8 functional segments

515
Q

When would you see incomplete septal cirrhosis

A

If chronic injury is interrupted – e.g., clearance of hepatitis viral infection, EtOH cessation

The stellate cell activation and scarring ceases and the fibrous septae may be broken down by metalloproteinases
Leads to partial resolution

However, vascular remodelling + other architectural changes that occur in cirrhosis may not revert to normal, even with extensive scar resorption – may explain why portal HTN fails to improve in some patients

516
Q

Describe the path pancreatic juice takes from the pancreas

A

It is secreted into a branching system ofpancreatic ductsthat extend throughout the gland.

In the majority of individuals, the main pancreatic duct empties into the second part of duodenum at theampulla of Vater.

517
Q

What is the risk of pruritis in cirrhosis

A

Patients may scratch their skin raw and risk bouts of potentially life-threatening infection
Relief may only come with transplantation.

518
Q

List the clinical features of a subdural haematoma

A

Usually present on a background of head trauma.
Typically the deterioration is slow and progressive but patients can also suddenly decompensate as blood accumulates.
Consciousness may fluctuate.
Focal neurological signs (e.g. unequal pupils, hemiparesis) that are dependant on the location of the haematoma.
Non-focal signs such as headache, unsteadiness, personality change, seizures and confusion.
Symptoms of raised ICP – headache, vomiting, altered GCS etc