Seminar 3 - IVDU and Complications Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the histological features of aspiration pneumonia

A

Desquaminated epithelial cells
Gastric contents
Clumps of bacteria
Alveolar haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you manage mitral stenosis

A

Only requires management in severe cases

Can do a percutaneous balloon valvotomy, open valve commissurotomy or valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the epidemiology of infective endocarditis

A

Incidence has been increasing
Approx. 12.7 cases per 100000
Proportion due to intracardiac devices rising but cases due to HIV fell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the structure of the AV valves

A

Valve leaflets attach at the annulus which is a a collagenous, crown-shaped structure that is part of the fibrous skeleton of the heart

The valve has 4 layers of varying compositions of elastic and collagenous tissue – atrialis, lamina spongiosa, lamina fibrosa, ventricularis

The chordae tendinae are branching structures made up of collagen and elastic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which valve does most endocarditis develop on

A

Mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can drug metabolites affect interpretation of toxicology results

A

Some drugs produce the exact same metabolites when broken down
e.g. opioids
Patient taking codeine will have both codeine and morphine in urine, must look at levels and determine if they also took morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 2 types of valve disease

A

Stenosis - failure of valve to fully open

Insufficiency/regurgitation - failure of valve to fully close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does aortic stenosis present

A

May not have symptoms until disease is severe and prognosis poor
May have signs of CHF, angina and syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the effect of M6G

A

It is pharmacologically active

2x more potent than normal morphine when administered systemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the risk of contracting HIV at autopsy

A

Occupational exposure has been documented but is rare and there is no evidence that it is easily acquired at autopsy.
Staff at risk if they receive a cut or needlestick injury when working on an infected corpse
Estimated HIV transmission rate after a single needlestick injury is 0.1-0.36%.
Risk is increased by AIDS, high viral load or a deep injury with visible blood.
IVDU are higher risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can a moving injury occur during autopsy

A

Incorrect moving and lifting of the body can lead to serious back injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is secondary haemostasis

A

Second stage of haemostasis

Involves the activation of the clotting cascade and the deposition of fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes deep vein thrombosis

A
Trauma
Surgery
Contraceptive pill
Tumours
Pregnancy
Prolonged travel/immobility
Hypercoagulability or stasis usually
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how blood is taken for toxicology at autopsy

A
At least 10ml of peripheral blood taken 
Ideally from femoral or iliac vessels 
Identify location in report 
Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate should be used as a preservative unless suspect poisoning with fluoride or a fluoride-producing compound exists
Always taken
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List the pathological features of the skin due to injection of drugs

A

Track marks with puckered scarring, hyper pigmentation and chronic sinuses
Skin popping scars
At time of injection you have acute bleeding and then progresses to inflammatory reaction after a few hours
Hemosiderin forms at the injection site 2-3 days post injection (shows an older site)
May have granulomatous inflammation present if foreign material also injected

Rarely some people get hypersensitivity uticarial rash post injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the major metabolic pathway for morphine in the body

A

Conjugation with glucuronic acid (glucuronidation)

Becomes morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) and M3G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which valves are most susceptible to non-infectious endocarditis

A

Affects mitral valve > aortic valve > tricuspid valve > pulmonary valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Libman-sacks endocarditis

A

Small sterile lesions in the heart in the context of SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does morphine affect the respiratory centers in the brain

A

Directly affects nucleus accumbens in brainstem
Decreases responsiveness to arterial CO2
Depresses the centers responsible for regulating the rhythm of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes superficial vein thrombosis

A

Varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

6MAM is only detectable once the heroin has been metabolised - true or false

A

True (mostly)

Some forms of heroin such as black tar may contain some 6MAM but most types only produce it on metabolisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Give examples of sharps based hazards from the body and explain how you reduce the risk

A

Scrape injury from the ends of cut bone - cover ends with surgical towel to prevent injury

Needle , bullet or other fragments may be found within the body
High risk corpses may get radiography prior to autopsy
Special equipment and resistant gloves used to remove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define ‘risk’

A

The chance of a negative event occurring.

e.g. chance of contracting HIV from a sharp injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the microscopic features of subacute endocarditis

A

Granulation tissue at the base - sign of healing

Fibrosis -> calcification -> development of a chronic inflammatory infiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the risk of contracting Hep B or C at autopsy

A

Staff at risk if they receive a cut or needlestick injury when working on an infected corpse.
HBV is highly infectious, and transmission can occur following exposure to extremely small volumes of infected blood
HCV is less infectious but still has a transmission rate of 2.7-10% following exposure
IVDUs are at higher risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In which body fluids can 6MAM be detected and how long for

A

Oral fluid - for several hours after heroin use
Urine - 12 hour detection window
May be found in vitreous humor and CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How can lines of Zahn be used to differentiate between between ante-mortem and postmortem thrombi

A

Lines of Zahn are only seen when a thrombi is formed in flowing blood
Therefore tell you it was ante-mortem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the invasive procedures which can lead to endocarditis

A
Pacemaker insertion 
Endoscopy 
Colonoscopy 
Barium enema 
Dental extractions 
Transurethral resection of the prostate 
Transesophageal echocardiography 
Lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the effects of infection induced valvular damage

A

Leads to valvular insufficiency and a backflow of blood
The heart cannot pump effectively and the tissues don’t get enough O2
Leads to fatigue, muscles tiring quickly, SOB and kidney malfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In forensic cases, is a blood sample enough for toxicology

A

No
Collection of blood should be supplemented with collections of vitreous, urine, bile, gastric contents, and in some instances, CSF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes pulmonary insufficiency

A
Pulmonary HTN, 
L-sided heart pathologies 
Endocarditis
Connective tissue abnormalities
Commonly occurs following surgical repair of heart eg in Tetralogy of Fallot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the infectious disease hazard groups

A

Organised by the likelihood of acquisition, severity of resulting disease, availability and efficacy of treatment and risk of transmission from staff to general public.

Group 1 - unlikely to cause human disease.
Group 2 - can cause disease and may affect employees, unlikely to spread to community and treatment available.
Group 3 - cause severe human disease and may be serious hazard to employees, may spread to community but effective treatment available.
Group 4 - cause severe human disease and may be serious hazard to employees, likely to spread to community and effective treatment not available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the general pathological lung changes that are caused by drug misuse

A

Agonal or PM movement can lead to gastric content in the lung without the inflammation
Injecting talc/lactose/crushed tablets can cause intravascular granulomatous disease
May develop septic emboli in lungs following infective endocarditis
IVDU of any drug can cause TB, pulmonary talk granulomas, foreign body emboli and pulmonary necrotising angitis
HIV can increase risk of bacterial or pneumocytic pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which thrombi are called white thrombi

A

Arterial thrombi

Made up of lots of platelets and few red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the semilunar valves

A

The aortic and pulmonary valves

They close in diastole and open for systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What causes pulmonary stenosis

A

Mostly congenital

May occur in carcinoid heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe the microscopic features of venous thrombosis

A

Lots of red cells with few platelets

Lines of Zahn present - alternating layers of red cells and layers of platelets and fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you manage tricuspid stenosis

A

f mild or moderate, fluid restriction, diuretics

Valve replacement, balloon dilation if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which valve disease is the result of of abnormalities of the valve leaflets or aortic root dilation

A

Aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What causes aortic stenosis

A

Calcification of the valve leaflets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does aortic stenosis progress to heart failure

A

Valve opening becomes narrower due to calcification
This increases pressure in the left ventricle and leads to hypertrophy with ischaemia
The heart decompensates and you get congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the risk of contracting TB at autopsy

A

Can get pulmonary or cutaneous infection
Incidence in post-mortem staff is greater than clinical staff.
May actually be a higher risk at autopsy than during life.
Bacilli have been found on surfaces up to 24hrs after autopsy
Intravenous drug users are at higher risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If ante-mortem blood samples are used in toxicology, what should be considered

A

The gels used in many serum gel tubes may absorb drugs and affect the blood concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Can a person take heroin and still have a negative 6MAM test

A

Yes
It has a short half life so may only show up if taken recently
After 6MAM has been metabolised the person will only be positive for morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can increase the window of 6MAM detection

A

Chronic heroin use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

List the pathological features of the skin associated with crack cocaine use

A

Burns due to preparation

Self inflicted excoriations due to psychological delusions - often parasitic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List external signs of drug use seen on the face

A

Jaundice = liver failure

Necrosis of nasal tip = infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the main causative organisms of healthcare-associated or nosocomial infective endocarditis

A

Related to the underlying bacteremia

Typically gram-positive cocci i.e. S aureus, CoNS, enterococci, non-enterococcal streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When is pre-autopsy testing carried out

A

If there is suspicion of a HG3 infection (or higher)

Can test for HIV if they had a high risk lifestyle without prior consent from deceased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Pulmonary manifestations of infective endocarditis are common in which patient

A

Those with tricuspid infections
1/3 have pleuritic chest pain
3/4 have radiograph changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

List the standard PPE for autopsy

A

Scrub suits, gowns, waterproof sleeves, plastic disposable aprons, caps, N95 particulate masks, eye protection (goggles or face shields), shoe covers or footwear restricted to contaminated areas, and double sets of gloves

Remove rings to prevent gloves punctures
Cut resistant gloves should be available for high risk procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the pros and cons of bioprosthetic valves

A

Pros – Do not require anticoagulation, can be inserted via transcatheter procedures
Cons – May only last 10-15 years so further replacement surgery may be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Penicillin-sensitive S viridans: penicillin G/ceftriaxone + gentamicin
Vancomycin & gentamicin
MSSA = nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the clinical features of endocarditis

A

Rapid onset of fever - most consistent symptom
Chills
Weakness and fatigue
Flu-like syndrome
Weight loss
If IE is left sided they probably have a murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

During autopsy, whos health and safety needs to be considered

A

The lead pathologist
Any other staff helping in the autopsy room
Visitors such as clinical staff or medical students
Those involved in the handling of the body (relatives, funeral home staff etc.)
Laboratory workers handling the samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat native valve endocarditis

A

Penicillin G & gentamicin

Vancomycin if MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the risk from ICDs on autopsy and explain how you reduce it

A

Risk of electric shock. To reduce, it should be inactivated before autopsy and high quality gloves used on handling.
Must be removed prior to cremation = explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does heroin affect the heart

A

Injection of heroin can lead to infective endocarditis – does effect both left and right heart (R more common)
Will see inflammatory cells in myocardium but not fibrosis
May have myocarditis and cardiomyopathy due to HIV infection from needle sharing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which patients are at risk from fungal endocarditis

A

IV drug users

ICU patients who have received broad spectrum antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where are fibroblast samples typically taken from

A

Skin, fascia, lung, diaphragm and muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How does ecstasy affect the liver

A

2 forms of liver damage
Type 1 - steatosis, sinusoidal dilatation and hepatonecrosis
Causes death through hyperpyrexia

Type 2 - hepatitis and fulminant liver failure
May be due to direct toxic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe endocarditis in the context of SLE

A

Significant valvulitis with vegetations formed from fibrin and immune complexes
Mostly asymptomatic but may cause valvular dysfunction in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How can general drug use affect the kidneys

A

IV drug use causing suppurative skin infections may cause renal amyloidosis
HIV can cause FSGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Prosthetic valves in which position are most susceptible to infective endocarditis

A

Mitral position are more susceptible than the aortic areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Give examples of aerosol based hazards from the body and explain how you reduce the risk

A

Examples: bone dust, smoke from searing tissue for sample.
Risk of inhalation
Aerosol generating procedure limited if possible
Can use masks, filters or vacuums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does morphine affect the respiratory centers in the brain

A

Directly affects it
Decreases responsiveness to arterial CO2
Depresses the centers responsible for regulatiing the rhythm of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

List the key vaccines suggested for autopsy workers

A

Hep B, TB, tetanus, polio, diphtheria, MMR

All staff should be up to date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How do you diagnose fungal IE

A

Microscopic examination of large emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the main difference between pharmaceutical and street heroin

A

Pharmaceutical heroin is made from pure morphine
Street heroin is made from morphine purified from opium extract and is extract ten contaminated with other alkaloids, e.g. codeine, noscapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How does mitral stenosis present

A

Patients may present with symptoms of R-sided heart failure +/- atrial fibrillation, but even severe cases may be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the main types of embolism

A

Pulmonary
Fat - caused by soft tissue injuries, bone breaks or burns
Air - scuba divers rising to fast or air entering circulation
Systemic - most from cardiac mural thrombi
Amniotic - can reach mother’s lungs
Septic - particles from infection reach bloodstream and block
Retinal - small clots can block tiny vessels in the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe how injection sites are sampled for toxicology at autopsy

A

Resect a wide skin ellipse of needle puncture mark & surrounding skin (down to subcutaneous tissue).
Take a similar sample at a distant or contralateral site as a control. If specimen is for histology, add neutral buffered formalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How do valve leaflets become calcified

A

Repeated injury to valve encourages calcium deposition

This eventually limits the movement of the valves and they stop opening fully - stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Define early prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Occurring within 60 days of the valve implantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is thrombosis

A

When a blood clot blocks the circulation

Disruption of normal haemostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

List the features of ‘crack’ lung

A
Alveolar haemorrhage 
Hemosiderin laden macrophages 
Pneumonitis
Interstitial fibrosis 
Carbon laden macrophages ( see right) 
Small artery medial hypertrophy

Additionally you’ll get barotrauma and emphysematous lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade

A

In the presence of tissue factor, factor 7 becomes activated
This then activates factor 10
Factor 10, in the presence of Factor 5 and calcium then generates a molecule called prothrombin activator
This converts prothrombin to thrombin
Thrombin then converts fibrinogen to fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How would you take a foetal tissue sample

A

Chorionic villus sampling has best chance of growing cell culture
Must be done as soon as intrauterine death confirmed

Fibroblasts can also be used but 1/4 will fail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do DVTs present

A

May be asymptomatic

Also have localised pain, heat, oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

At what point in the autopsy should toxicology samples be taken

A

Before any disruption of the body has occurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does rheumatic fever progress to heart failure

A

Acute RF leads to fusion of the leaflet commissures and thickened leaflets
This reduces flow which increases pressure in the L atrium and decreases it in the L ventricle
This leads to reduced CO and pulmonary hypertension
Results in RHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the typical causative agents of subacute native valve endocarditis

A

Alpha-haemolytic strep or enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How do you reduce transmission of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies at autopsy

A

Should be carried out in a separate/isolated room with limited staff if possible.
To reduce risk use waterproof gown, HEPA filters, disposable equipment where possible, keep reusable equipment wet and have a dedicated set for TSEs.
Care must be taken when removing the brain and fixing it.
Samples must be marked
Certain detergents need to be used as they denature the prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the issue with existing toxicology results ‘ranges/scales’

A

They were created before redistribution was discovered so this is not taken into consideration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What oesophageal changes may be seen in drug misuse

A

Mallory Weiss tears if drug use causes a lot of vomiting

Varices may be present if liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most common way to take crack cocaine

A

To smoke it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the effects of carcinoid heart disease

A

Typically causes R sided pathology (tricuspid insufficiency, pulmonary stenosis) as this side receives blood from the liver first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How is heroin synthesised

A

In the presence of acetic anhydride, morphine is initially acetylated at position 3 producing 3-acetylmorphine
There is a further acetylation reaction at position 6 to give 3,6-diacetylmorphine which is heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which type of vegetations are associated with more valvular destruction

A

Those from subacute endocarditis rather than acute endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the acute causes of mitral regurgitation

A

Infective endocarditis
Ischaemic damage to the papillary muscles
Rupture
Acute rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the half life of 6-MAM

A

0.6 hours

Very quickly metabolised into morphine or excreted from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of venous thrombosis

A

Thrombi extend in direction of blood flow

Long clot in the shape of the lumen (like a cast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

List some of the complications of infective endocarditis

A

Glomerulonephritis - due to antigen-antibody complex deposition
Particularly ill patients may develop sepsis, arrhythmias or emboli
Now uncommon ones include :
microthrombi (splinter or subungual haemorrhage)
Janeway lesions and osler nodes
Roth spots - retinal haemorrhages
Untreated IE can be fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe how gastric content are taken for toxicology at autopsy

A

Stomach tied off (reduce contamination) and emptied
The total volume is recorded
Only a few labs routinely analyse
Look for undigested pills etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How do opiates affect the lungs

A

Classically causes mushroom plume in overdose
Histologically non specific with amorphous eosinophilic material in alveolar spaces
May have aspiration pneumonitis/pneumonia – suggest opiate overdose over stimulant overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

List the cure rates for specific IE organisms

A

S. viridans: 98%
Enterococci & S. aureus: 60-90%
Gram-negative bacilli/fungi: 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the purpose of vasoconstriction in haemostasis

A

It is an immediate response to try and stop haemorrhage

Rarely effective alone and requires the other processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Explain how a pacemaker ‘settles into’ the heart

A

When implanted a fibrin/platelet thrombus can form on the generator box and leads - this is a sterile vegetation
After around a week connective tissue proliferates which partially embedding the leads in the wall of vein & endocardium
This process may offer partial protection against infection during a bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which valve disease is the result of abnormalities to the functional unit of the valve

A

Mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How can you reduce transmission of TB at autopsy

A

Autopsy should be carried out in a separate/isolated room with limited staff
Aerosol generating procedures are high risk so N95 masks or suits with HEPA filters should be worn and bulb syringe used for body fluids rather than hose aspirator.
Staff can get yearly TB tests and should be vaccinated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Name the leaflets of the aortic valve

A

Left coronary, right coronary, non-coronary leaflets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is primary haemostasis

A

First stage of haemostasis

Involves arteriolar vasoconstriction and formation of the platelet plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the 3 active metabolites of heroin

A

6-MAM
Morphine
3-MAM - much less active than 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which patients are most prone to recurrent IE

A

Those who abuse IV drugs

Or those with pretreatment symptoms of IE of more than 3 months’ duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which patients are most likely to develop healthcare-associated or nosocomial infective endocarditis

A
Those with significant comorbidities
More advanced age
Predominant infection with S aureus
High mortality
May be associated with new intravascular devices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the general indications for surgery in endocarditis

A

Paraventricular abscess & intracardiac fistula
Treatment of metastatic infections
Patients with multi-resistant organisms
Persistent hypermobile vegetations - history of emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which patients are susceptible to non-infective endocarditis

A

Those in hypercoagulable states (malignancy, sepsis)

Or those with endocardial trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What can contaminate blood from the general body cavity

A

Highly likely to be grossly contaminated by intestinal contents, effusions, urine, faeces etc.
Blood should not be taken from here.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

List external signs of drug use seen on the hands

A

Palmar erythema and Dupuytren’s contractures = liver disease
Splinter haemorrhages = infective endocarditis
Clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How does a pacemaker lead to endocarditis

A

A bacteremia cab infect the sterile fibrin/platelet clots or vegetations on the pacemaker
Microorganisms establish themselves on the surface of the vegetation
The process of platelet aggregation & fibrin deposition accelerate at the site
The bacteria multiply
and are covered by ever-thickening layers of platelets and thrombin
This protect them from neutrophils & other host defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What thrombi are called ‘red thrombi’

A

Venous thrombi

lots of red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat IVDU endocarditis

A

Should be aimed at s.aureus

Vancomycin or amox/nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are some of the complications of left sided IVDU endocarditis

A

Can be associated with systemic manifestations from embolic events
Must be special attention to renal, splenic and central nervous system involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why might the bladder be distended on a drug death autopsy

A

MDMA, amphetamine and other psycho-actives may cause urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

List common opioids/opiates

A

heroin, morphine, pethidine, fentanyl, methadone, oxycodone, dihydrocodeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the aetiology of native valve endocarditis

A

Rheumatic valvular disease - primarily of mitral (most common)
Congenital heart disease (PDA, VSD, ToF)
Mitral valve prolapse with associated murmur
Degenerative heart disease such as calcified aortic stenosis, Marfan’s or syphillis
Infections - most commonly strep or staph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Does IVDU endocarditis occur due to underlying valve abnormalities

A

No

the valves are typically normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Why are arterial thromboses more dangerous

A

Can occlude critical vessels resulting in infarction

May lead to MI or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What causes carcinoid heart disease

A

Carcinoid syndrome - around 50% of patients will develop the heart effects
Neuroendocrine tumours in the gut secrete compounds such as serotonin
If there is significant liver pathology, these cannot be broken down and are carried to the heart where they cause damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the preferred sample for death by carbon monoxide poisoning

A

Blood sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

List most common causes of IVDA infective endocarditis

A

Staph aureus is the most common organism
Also Group A, C, G streptococci and enterococci
Gram-negative organisms e.g P aeruginosa and the HACEK family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

List the basic precautions taken during autopsy

A

Prevention of puncture wounds, cuts, and abrasions by safe handling of needles and sharp instruments.
Protection of existing wounds, skin lesions, conjunctiva, and mucous membranes with appropriate barriers.
Prevention of contamination of workers’ skin and clothing with appropriate barriers and hand washing.
Control of work surface contamination by containment and decontamination.
Safe disposal of contaminated waste.
Minimise aerosol production.
Limit the number of staff in the room at one time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Where are lung samples taken from

A

Take approximately 2cm3 of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Heroin has a higher affinity for the m-opioid receptor than its metabolites - true or false

A

False
It has a lower affinity
Therefore called a pro-drug as action comes mainly from metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Give examples of radioactive based hazards from the body and explain how you reduce the risk

A

Some corpses will be slightly radioactive if just undergone therapeutic or diagnostic radiology procedures
Should be left until level has fallen (most used in diagnostic have short half lives). In these cases the risk of exposure is very low.
If the source cannot be removed a radiology specialist should be involved and levels should be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which valve is most effected by endocarditis in SLE

A

Mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the major complications of endocarditis treatment

A
Post-treatment bacteraemia 
Relapse 
Valvular dysfunction
Myocardial or septal abscesses
Congestive heart failure
Metastatic infection
Embolic phenomenon
Organ dysfunction resulting from immunological processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Can blood clots be useful for toxicology

A

Yes
They may reflect drug and/or alcohol concentrations closer to the time of injury - act like time capsules as poorly perfused
Also good for documenting pre-existing drug use

129
Q

What poses a risk of electrocution in autopsy

A

Poorly maintained electrical equipment - wet environment

ICDs

130
Q

How are clots resorbed

A

Once stabilised, the body activates counter measures to break down and stop clotting
Tissue plasminogen Activator is released which converts plasminogen into plasmin which is capable of breaking down fibrin.
Also thrombomodulin which blocks coagulation cascade

131
Q

Describe the features of the vegetations in endocarditis

A

They are friable, bulky, potentially destructive lesions containing fibrin, inflammatory cells & bacteria/other organisms
Can be single/multiple
May involve more than 1 valve

132
Q

Describe the process of secondary haemostasis

A

Tissue factor is released by subendothelial cells, activating factor VII & the coagulation cascade resulting in the generation of thrombin from prothrombin
Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen into fibrin (strong, insoluble substance)
Fibrin consolidates the platelet plug by forming a fibrin mesh and further enhancing platelet aggregation

133
Q

List the microscopic features of acute bacterial endocarditis

A

Vegetations that contain no fibroblasts and develop rapidly (no evidence of repair)
Large amounts of both polymorphonuclear leukocytes & organisms in an expanding area of necrosis
Rapidly produces spontaneous rupture of leaflets, papillary muscles and chordae tendinae

134
Q

What is the main transmissible spongiform encephalopathy

A

Creutzfeldt-Jacobs disease

Caused by a prion

135
Q

List common stimulant drugs

A

Cocaine, amphetamine, methamphetamine and amphetamine derivatives like ecstasy

136
Q

What is morphine

A

Opioid agonist - greatest activity on m-receptor
Relatively long-acting
Hydrophilic

137
Q

Describe how hair and fingernails taken for toxicology at autopsy

A

Hair samples should be collected before body is opened to avoid contamination
Cut from posterior vertex of head, as close as possible to scalp.
Specify cut end of hair bundle, then wrap in inert covering e.g. aluminium foil
Fingernails can be collected by clipping, or if necessary, by removal of entire nail.

138
Q

What causes tricuspid insufficiency

A

L-sided cardiac pathologies
Congenital abnormalities
Pacemaker lead entrapment
Marfan’s

139
Q

What causes arteriolar vasoconstriction in primary haemostasis

A

Reflex neurogenic mechanisms and the local release of vasoconstrictors such as endothelin
Temporary effect

140
Q

If there is too much space in a toxicology container what should be considered

A

Oxidative loss due to air trapped in container and volatile drug evaporation

141
Q

What is bile tested for in toxicology

A

Historically used in the determination of opiates in general and morphine in particular
May be used if nothing else is available

142
Q

What causes arterial thrombosis

A

Atherosclerosis - plaque ruptures forming clot
Abnormal myocardial contractions (arrhythmias/MI)
Thrombophilia’s
Heparin
Prosthetic heart valves
Genetic conditions

143
Q

How is heroin metabolised in the body

A

Rapidly enters the CNS

Metabolised into 6-acetylmorphine (6-MAM), 3-acetylmorphine (3-MAM; less potent), and morphine

144
Q

List the common causes of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Early infection (just after surgery) is typically staph aureus and s. epidermidis
Also gram -ve bacilli and candida
Late infection is most commonly alpha haemolytic strep/enterococci or s. aureus

Other causes include Corynebacterium,non-enterococcal streptococci, fungi, Legionella, and the HACEK organisms

145
Q

What does a positive 6-MAM test mean

A

It can only mean that the person has recently used heroin

Cannot be caused by prescription opiates

146
Q

Describe how urine is taken for toxicology at autopsy

A
At least 20ml if possible 
Use of fluoride preservative encouraged.
Undergoes immunoassay 
Collected by creating a nick in the upper anterior fundus, or by aspiration with 20ml needle and syringe. 
Always taken
147
Q

How do you manage aortic and mitral insufficiency

A

Depends on the symptoms and ejection fractions

May consider valve replacement or repair

148
Q

List the effects of cocaine on the GI tract

A

Causes gastroduodenal perforation
Causes accelerated atherosclerotic disease causing ischemic colitis and colonic perforation
May occlude the SMA

149
Q

What can lung samples tell you in a drugs death case

A

Useful in assessment of volatile substance abuse or exposure

150
Q

Describe the course of acute native valve endocarditis

A

Involves normal valves - does not need underlying structural damage
Has an aggressive course
Rapidly progressive in all patients

151
Q

List the indications for surgery in cases of native valve endocarditis

A

Congestive heart failure refractory to standard medical therapy
Fungal IE
Persistent sepsis after 72 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment
Recurrent septic emboli, especially after 2 weeks of antibiotic treatment
Rupture of an aneurysm of the sinus of Valsalva
Conduction disturbances caused by a septal abscess
Kissing infection of the anterior mitral leaflet in patients with IE of the aortic valve

152
Q

What were the original uses of heroin

A

As an anti-tussive for patients with TB and asthma

153
Q

What is haemostasis

A

The process by which clots form at the site of vascular injury, arresting bleeding and maintaining vascular patency

154
Q

What are the potential complications of air embolism

A

Decompression sickness

Mental impairment / coma

155
Q

Which valves are most effected by rheumatic heart disease

A

Mitral most common, followed by aortic and, rarely, tricuspid
Valves can be effected in isolation or combination

156
Q

What pathology is associated with aortic valve prothesis

A

Local abscesses
Fistula formation
Valvular dehiscence

157
Q

Give examples of chemical based hazards from the body

A

If the death was due to toxic chemical ingestion/exposure

e.g. Cyanide poisoning can covert to toxic gas in stomach

158
Q

List the main effects of morphine

A
Analgesia
Respiratory depression
Reduced GI activity
Miosis
Euphoria
159
Q

Describe how CSF is taken for toxicology at autopsy

A

Aspirate from cisterna magna (skin at junction of back of head & posterior neck)
Entry felt as a loss of resistance.
Can also be taken via standard percutaneous LP (between L1&2 after organ evisceration)
Or by inserting a needle connected to a sterile syringe into a lateral ventricle of brain

160
Q

List the pathological features of the skin due to secondary infection from drug use

A

May have abscesses and necrotising fasciitis due to pyogenic bacterial infection
Can get ulceration due to bacterial and fungal infection of injection sites
Chronic suppurative infections of the injection sites can lead to systemic amyloidosis

161
Q

How long does it take heroin concentration to reach its peak in the body

A

After 1-5 mins from IV and smoked route, and within 5 mins of intranasal and IM administration

162
Q

List the histological features seen in the lungs following cannabis use

A

Goblet and reserve cell hyperplasia
Squamous metaplasia
Nuclear atypia, basement membrane thickening
Subepithelial inflammation
Brown pigment macrophages - more common in smokers

163
Q

How can you reduce transmission of Hep B and C at autopsy

A

Hep B risk can minimised by vaccination which should be given to all healthcare workers
Sharps care
Should be carried out in a separate/isolated room with limited staff if possible

164
Q

What can contaminate blood from the jugular venous system

A

Reflux from the upper thorax

165
Q

How can deep vein thrombosis remain asymptomatic

A

Collateral veins open up to maintain blood flow

166
Q

What is the most common type of valve disease

A

Aortic stenosis

in developed world

167
Q

What is post-mortem redistribution

A

The movement of drugs after death along a concentration gradient
It is a non-uniform process
Starts around 1hr after death and continues as PM interval increases
Biggest changes occur in the first 24hrs

168
Q

How can perivascular abscesses progress

A

Can extend into adjacent cardiac conduction tissues leading to heart block
If it interferes with the ventricular conduction system in the septum it may cause sudden cardiac death

169
Q

When might hair and fingernail samples be taken

A

Hair is rare as no direct link to cause of death
Can be useful when investigating sexual offence prior to death (drug-facilitated), long-term drug compliance/abstinence, previous use in drug users with abstinence/loss of tolerance & relapse, and chronic heavy metal poisoning.

170
Q

How can tolerance affect interpretation of toxicology results

A

What may seem like a toxic or fatal dose may have less clinical effect in a person who has developed tolerance.
Take history into context

171
Q

Which drugs can cause rhabdomyolysis without muscle compression

A

Cocaine, ecstasy and heroin

172
Q

When do mechanical valves most often get infected

A

Within the first 3 months of implantation

173
Q

What is an embolism

A

A solid, liquid or gaseous mass carried by the blood to a site distal from its origin
The majority are dislodged thrombi

174
Q

What is rheumatic heart disease

A

Chronic complication following acute rheumatic fever

Occurs in 30-50% of patients

175
Q

Describe the morphology of arterial thromboses

A

Grow in retrograde against the direction of flow
Consist of a meshwork of lots of platelets, some red cells and degenerating white cells - crumbly
Superimposed on atherosclerosis

176
Q

How do you reduce the risk of chemical exposure during autopsy

A

Room should be well ventilated

Formaldehyde levels monitored to remain below safe legal limits as can be irritant or cause respiratory disorders

177
Q

What can injection site samples be tested for

A

May be useful for determining the type of substance that has been injected, such as insulin or heroin

178
Q

What are the underlying causes of aortic regurgitation

A
Bicuspid valve 
RHD 
Endocarditis 
Aortic root dissection 
Connective tissue diseases 
Most commonly aetiology is unknown
179
Q

What is heroin

A

A semi-synthetic opiate

180
Q

Why does heroin have such a fast effect

A

Lipophilic properties allow it to cross the BBB rapidly

This gives the immediate action and more intense effect

181
Q

What is the major causative agent in IVDU endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

182
Q

List the management options for infective endocarditis

A

Treatment of congestive heart failure
Oxygen
Haemodialysis - may be required in patients with renal failure
Take blood culture
Antibiotic therapy - dependent on culture results
May use anti-coagulation but contraversial

183
Q

What is in Virchow’s triad

A

Stasis of blood flow - increase endothelial dysfunction and bring platelets in contact

Hypercoagulability - genetic or acquired

Endothelial injury - enhances procoagulant molecules and limits anti- ones

184
Q

Which infection hazard groups required labelling on corpse or sample

A

HG3 or 4

185
Q

What must be considered when interpreting toxicology from a urine sample

A

Positive identification of drugs in urine indicates past drug use, but does not indicate when or how much was ingested.

Blood should be tested for analytes found in urine to interpret context of exposure, e.g. negative in urine but high concentration in blood might indicate an acute death due to drug ingestion

186
Q

All autopsies and samples should be handled as if infectious - true or false

A

True

Use standard infection control at all times, even if not confirmed infection - e.g. safe sharps, PPE

187
Q

What are the potential complications of septic embolism

A

Ischaemic Injury - due to occlusion

Infectious - potential abscess

188
Q

What is the typical half life of morphine

A

1.8 hours in women and 2.9 in males
Half life doubles in cirrhotic patients
Not affected by renal failure

189
Q

What are the potential complications of systemic embolism

A

75% travel to lower extremities

10% go to brain and cause stroke

190
Q

Where do thrombi form in endocarditis

A

Deposited on the sides of the low-pressure sink that lies just beyond a narrowing or stenosis (Venturi effect)
In mitral insufficiency they form on the atrial surface of the valve
With aortic insufficiency they are located on ventricular side

191
Q

Define late prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Occurring 60 days or more after the valve implantation

192
Q

Repeated dosing of oral morphine is more potent relative to repeated doses of IV morphine - true or false

A

True

Thought to be due to large accumulation of M6G as oral morphine undergoes extensive first pass metabolism

193
Q

What are the most common sites of infection in endocarditis

A

Aortic and mitral valves

Right heart valves affected in IVDU

194
Q

What is normorphine

A

N-demethylated product of morphine
About 5% of morphine dose converted to this
Low conc and less potent

195
Q

In general what are the most common causative organisms of infective endocarditis

A
S. aureus 
Viridans group streptococci
Coagulase-negative staphylococci
Enterococcus spp
S. bovis
196
Q

How does ketamine affect the urinary tract

A

It causes cystitis
Presents with denudation of the uroepithelium, granulation tissue in lamina propria and lymphocytic and eosinophilic infiltrate
Can be haemorrhagic

197
Q

What can liver samples be tested for in drug deaths

A

Used for screening not quantification

Particularly valuable for Tricyclic antidepressant interpretation as well as other drugs which are highly protein bound

198
Q

What are bioprosthetic valves made of

A

Porcine or frozen human valves from deceased donors

199
Q

How can synergy affect interpretation of toxicology results

A

One drug increases the effects of another, either by summation (alcohol and ether) or by potentiation
Must consider all substances together - how do they affect each other

200
Q

How do you manage pulmonary stenosis

A

Monitoring only if mild

Percutaneous balloon pulmonary valvuloplasty

201
Q

What are the risk factors for recurrent IE

A

IV drug use
a previous episode of IE
The presence of a prosthetic valve
Congenital heart disease

202
Q

Describe non-infectious endocarditis

A

Caused by the deposition of small bland thrombi onto the valve leaflets
There is no damage to underlying structures and no inflammatory response

203
Q

Which enzyme is most important in opioid metabolism

A

UGT2B7

204
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of carcinoid heart disease

A

Glistening white plaques form on endocardial surface

Plaques are comprised of extracellular matrix, myofibroblasts, mast cells and lymphocyte

205
Q

Describe the course of subacute native valve endocarditis

A

Affects abnormal heart valves

More indolent course and may extend over several months

206
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose endocarditis

A

Modified Duke Criteria

207
Q

How you reduce the risk from infected bodies during autopsy

A

Body should be washed with detergent and then antiseptic.
Place in a leakproof bag.
Mark known infected corpses

208
Q

List potential hazards from the equipment during autopsy

A

Sharp instruments and needles
Contaminated equipment
Chemical exposure - e.g. formaldehyde for fixing samples
Electrocution

209
Q

What is the main difference between the mitral and tricuspid valves

A

Mitral only has 2 cusps and papillary muscles

Tricuspid have 3 of each

210
Q

Where are liver samples taken from and why

A

Deep in the right lobe

This site should be uncontaminated with bile and less affected by drug distribution from the stomach

211
Q

Describe how the platelet plug forms

A

Damage to the endothelial wall exposes collagen
This causes endothelial cells to release Von Willebrand Factor and other proteins
These substances from a bridge between platelets and site of injury - platelets adhere to it
Platelets then secrete chemicals causing further platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
This forms a platelet plug

212
Q

What are the typical causative agents of acute native valve endocarditis

A

Staph aureus

Group B strep

213
Q

What are the potential complications of pulmonary embolism

A

Sudden death
Acute right heart failure
Artery rupture – haemorrhage
Pulmonary hypertension -> RV failure

214
Q

How do you manage tricuspid insufficiency

A

Medical management of heart failure

Valve replacement or annuloplasty if severe

215
Q

How can metabolism affect interpretation of toxicology results

A

Metabolism can be affected by liver disease so levels interpreted differently
Oxidative pathways which are easily saturable are most affected

216
Q

What is included in the ‘circumstances of death’ information

A
Witness statement
Medical history
Current medication/therapies
Previous operations/interventions
Alcohol and drug use
Previous imprisonment (incl. dates)
Blood borne virus status
Family history
If they have had recent tests then pathologist should be given results
217
Q

Describe endocarditis embolism

A

The emboli fragments contain virulent organisms
They can form abscesses where they lodge
They also may go on to cause septic infarcts

218
Q

How is morphine excreted

A

90% in the urine
10% in faeces
75% excreted as M3G, 10% as free morphine and the rest as M6G and other molecules
approx 87% excreted after 72hrs

219
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat MSSA endocarditis

A

Nafcillin

220
Q

When collecting samples for genomic DNA analysis what is the goal

A

It is to collect tissue type with intact nuclei that doesn’t hinder tissue dissociation procedures.

221
Q

How do you treat aortic stenosis

A

Valve replacement - either open surgery or TAVI

May do balloon valvuloplasty if patient is unstable

222
Q

Which drugs have the greatest post-mortem redistribution

A

Highly protein bound drugs
Especially those contained within the major organs
Likely due to changes to proteins PM which causes release of the bound drugs - they can redistribute

223
Q

Describe the general pathogenesis of infective endocarditis

A

All cases develop from a bacteremia (nosocomial or spontaneous) that delivers the organisms to the surface of the valve
Adherence of the organisms
Eventual invasion of the valvular leaflets

224
Q

What are mechanical valves made of

A

Configurations of metal and ceramic

225
Q

How can cocaine affect the kidneys

A

Can cause FSGS, renovascular disease, interstitial nephritis

226
Q

What are the potential complications of retinal embolism

A

May be asymptomatic
Branch retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal artery occlusion
Vision problems

227
Q

Describe laminar flow

A

This is how blood flows normally

Most blood constituents in the middle and plasma around the periphery

228
Q

When might you see a ‘mushroom plume’ at autopsy

A

Plume of froth at the mouth due to pulmonary oedema

Common in opiate overdose

229
Q

List potential hazards from the room during autopsy and explain how they can be avoided

A

Contaminated work surfaces
Disinfect all surfaces and floors
UV light can be used to decontaminate air and surfaces if necessary

Spills - risk of contamination or slips
Disinfect and dry all spills

230
Q

Which areas of the heart are most susceptible to perivascular abscesses following endocarditis

A

Aortic valve & its adjacent annulus

231
Q

Which side of the heart is most often affected in IVDU endocarditis

A

Right side - 70% of cases

50% of cases involves the tricuspid valve

232
Q

List external signs of drug use seen on the chest

A

Spider naevi, caput medusa, haemorrhoids and abdominal distension as a result of liver failure

233
Q

What pathological changes may be seen in the liver due to drug use

A

Most due to hep B and C or ethanol
Hep B/C cause triaditis – lymphocytic infiltration with a few plasma cells and neutrophils
Hep C can cause steatosis with a mixed macro/micro vesicular pattern
Skin infections from IV use can lead to amyloidosis

234
Q

Which samples can be taken at autopsy for toxicology

A
Blood 
Urine 
Vitreous humor 
Gastric contents 
Bile 
CSF 
Hair and fingernails 
Sample from injection sites 
Lung tissue 
Bone marrow
235
Q

What are the potential complications of amniotic embolism

A

Mortality rate 80%

Permanent neurological deficit in 85% of survivors

236
Q

How does cocaine affect the heart

A

Enlarged hearts with interstitial fibrosis and perivascular fibrosis caused by catecholamine effect of cocaine
Accelerated atherosclerosis, coronary and aortic dissection and coronary thrombus in the young
Will increase the chances of an MI
Cocaine can cause a cardiomyopathy
Can cause sudden cardiac death with contraction band necrosis
Also seen in methamphetamine/amphetamine (without vascular effects)

237
Q

Which heart valves are most commonly affected by valve diseases

A

Aortic and mitral

238
Q

List the macroscopic features of infective endocarditis

A

Vegetations on the heart valves - may be single or multiple
May produce a ring abscess in the myocardium if the vegetations erode
May lead to septic emboli

239
Q

What is the sample of choice for detecting and analysing drugs concentrations in PM

A

Blood
If patient was in hospital or had a blood test in the last days of life then this is the best sample - ante-mortem
Peripheral venous or arterial best PM sample

240
Q

Which samples are taken for metabolic studies at autopsy

A

Liver, brain, kidney, cardiac + skeletal muscle and peripheral nerves can be used
Samples obtained soon after death
Can be used to diagnose inborn errors of metabolism

241
Q

List the indications for surgery in cases of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Same as native valve but also includes:
Valvular dehiscence
Early PVE

242
Q

What are fibroblast samples used for

A

Tissue culture

Then karyotyping, metabolic & enzyme assays, and diagnostic ultrastructural studies can be done

243
Q

When are muscle samples taken at autopsy

A

Can be useful if internal organs are badly decomposed

Take from the psoas muscle

244
Q

When does rheumatic fever typically occur

A

2-3 weeks after a group A strep pharyngitis

245
Q

What does morphine bind to in the body

A

Mainly albumin

246
Q

List the main sources of hazards from the body during autopsy

A
Aerosols 
Sharp injury from within the body 
Infection 
Radioactivity 
Implanted cardiac devices 
Chemical contamination 
Moving injury
247
Q

Which drugs can cause changes in the testes

A

Cocaine and cannabinoids impair spermatogenesis through reduction in mature germinal cells, narrower tubules and shorter sperm producing epithelium
Cannabis can cause a non-seminoma testicular germ cell tumour

248
Q

What factors impact the effect a drug has on an individual

A
Sex
Age
Body habitus
Genotype
Fast/slow metabolisms
Empty/full stomach
Concurrent substance
Tolerance
Dose & purity of drug.
249
Q

Most patients with IVDA infective endocarditis typically have a history of heart disease or murmurs - true or false

A

False

2/3 have no history

250
Q

If multiple autopsies are being performed which one should be done first

A

The highest risk/most infectious

This reduces risk of error due to fatigue

251
Q

How can metabolism affect interpretation of toxicology results

A

Metabolism can be affected by liver disease so levels interpreted differently
Oxidative pathways which are easily saturable are most affected

252
Q

What is MRSA endocarditis associated with

A

Previous hospitalisation
Long-term addiction
Non-prescribed antibiotic use

253
Q

What are kidney samples useful for

A

Analysis of heavy metals

254
Q

What is included in the functional unit of the AV valves

A

Valve leaflet - cusp
Chordae tendinea
Papillary muscles

255
Q

What is included in the ‘scene of death’ information

A

Details of environment - indoors/outdoors, temp etc.
How body was discovered
Security
Place, posture and clothing
Presence/absence of needles, syringes, medicine containers and pills
Provisional description of the body, including injuries (if any)
Identity of person discovering the dead person

256
Q

Describe how bile is taken for toxicology at autopsy

A

Aspirate from gall bladder (after tying it off) or directly from common bile duct

257
Q

What are the potential complications of fat embolism

A

Fat embolism syndrome

258
Q

What autopsy results can suggest drug packing

A

Presence of undigested pills in the cases/wrapping in the GI tract
High levels on toxicology due to rupture

259
Q

Which sites see the greatest changes in drug concentrations post-mortem

A

The greatest increase is seen in blood at central sites such as vessels around major organs

Changes are highly site dependent

260
Q

List the non-specific external signs of drug use

A
Malnourishment 
Recent injury/self harm
Signs of resus
Bright red hypostasis
Scars and homemade tattoos
Abnormal patterns of hypostasis
261
Q

List the external signs of chronic drug use

A

Perforated nasal septum from snorting
Thrombophlebitis from injecting
Self harm and previous injury and bruising
Older needle marks - look all over, may have irregular scarring, hyperpigmentation and chronic sinuses

262
Q

Which drug can cause black sputum

A

Cocaine

263
Q

Which sites see the greatest changes in drug concentrations post-mortem

A

The greatest increase is seen in blood at central sites such as vessels around major organs

264
Q

What is the last stage of haemostasis

A

Clot stabilization and resorption

265
Q

Describe the risk of contracting transmissible spongiform encephalopathies at autopsy

A

Risk of transmission is lower, but the prions are much harder to kill.
Incidence is the same amongst mortuary staff as general population, again suggesting the risk is not that high
It can remain infective once dried down and is resistant to normal cleaning procedures

266
Q

What are the chronic causes of mitral regurgitation

A

Mitral valve prolapse
Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
Mitral annular calcification

267
Q

Why is it unlikely for a thrombus to occur in the arterial system

A

It is high flow so pro-coagulant molecules are easily washed away
More turbulent blood flow - less stasis
However, may occur if there is underlying atherosclerosis

268
Q

Describe the composition of vegetations in non-infective endocarditis

A

Made up of fibrin and platelets

Bland vegetations

269
Q

How can heroin affect the kidneys

A

Can cause FSGS, interstitial nephritis and fibrosis

Will see plasma cell and lymphocyte infiltrates

270
Q

List the potential complications of valve replacement surgery

A

Thromboembolism - occlusion of valve or emboli thrown off it
Infective endocarditis - increased risk of bacterial vegetation
Structural deterioration of bioprosthetic valve
Continued valve dysfunction e.g. with inadequate or fibrotic healing, valve-orifice disproportion

271
Q

If you cant get a peripheral blood sample at autopsy where should you take it from

A

The heart - right chamber is preferable

Must label it as a cardiac sample

272
Q

When do the complications of IE typically present

A

Usually within the first few weeks of IE onset

273
Q

How does superficial vein thrombosis present

A

Overlying skin is inflamed
Pain, oedema, swelling and tenderness
Can feel like a hard cord under the skin

274
Q

How can endocarditis cause death

A

Heart failure
Valvular damage due to the infection
Abscesses which involve the conducting system can lead to arrhythmia0 and sudden cardiac death
Septic emboli can lead to infarction and acute MI

275
Q

Describe the effect of M3G

A

It is not an agonist of opioid receptors - has no narcotic activity
Highly water soluble

276
Q

How does right sided IVDU endocarditis present

A
Fever
Pleuritic chest pain 
Dyspnea
Non-productive cough
May or may not have a murmur
277
Q

How do you reduce the risk from contaminated equipment during autopsy

A

All should be put in enzymatic cleaner, rinsed and then disinfected.
Known infected cases use the enzyme cleaner but then are rinsed and placed in bleach or glutaraldehyde.
Even things like the camera should be cleaned after use

278
Q

List the most common risk factors for infective endocarditis

A

Most significant: residual valvular damage caused by a previous endocarditis
DM
Age
Use of anticoagulants and corticosteroids
3 times as common in males as in females
Surgical intervention to a pacemaker system

279
Q

How can drug packing affect the GI tract

A

If the package ruptures it can lead to overdose - high levels on tox screen
Can perforate the bowel, cause mucosal discoloration and rarely ulceration

280
Q

What can cause mitral stenosis

A

Most caused by RHD following rheumatic fever (rare in developed world but still prevalent elsewhere)
Other causes: calcification, carcinoid syndrome, use of serotonergic drugs, SLE and amyloidosis

281
Q

How do you manage pulmonary insufficiency

A

Treatment of underlying cause
Medical management of heart failure
Valve replacement in severe cases

282
Q

What are the atrioventricular valves

A

The valves found between the atria and ventricles - mitral and tricuspid
Close on first heart sound

283
Q

What conditions may predispose you to aortic stenosis

A

Bicuspid aortic valves - may present earlier in life

RHD - more prone to calcification

284
Q

Cardiac blood is particularly susceptible to drug concentration increases due to redistribution - true or false

A

True

Also susceptible due to cardiac muscle autolysis or trauma

285
Q

How can you reduce transmission of HIV at autopsy

A

Should be carried out in a separate/isolated room with limited staff if possible
Can be inactivated by drying or disinfectant - virus doesn’t last well out of body

286
Q

What are the risk factors of a pacemaker

A

Development of a postoperative hematoma
Infectious endocarditis
Inexperience of the surgeon
A preceding temporary transvenous pacing

287
Q

What information must be collected prior to the autopsy

A

Info about the scene of death - environment, position etc.
Circumstances of death - witnesses, medical history etc.
Sources of the above information
Patient history

288
Q

List the external signs of recent drug use

A
Powder and froth around mouth and nose
Faecal and urine staining 
Vomitus
Facial petechiae
Recent bruising/injury
Needle marks - look all over
289
Q

How does valve insufficiency progress to heart failure

A

Increased atrial and ventricular filling pressures
This leads to cardiac hypertrophy and eventually congestive heart failure
Patients may be asymptomatic until this occurs

290
Q

Which antibiotics are used to treat MRSA endocarditis

A

Vancomycin

291
Q

List some of the potential sources for pre-autopsy information

A

If death in the community use GP notes or pre-hospital clinician report
If death in hospital get admission bloods, lab investigations, urine sample if possible and clinical notes

292
Q

When do bioprosthetic valves most often get infected

A

Typically within 1 year

293
Q

When are adipose tissue samples taken in drug deaths

A

When the presence of fat-soluble drugs or chlorinated hydrocarbons and other pesticides is suspected.

294
Q

Is heroin hydrophilic or lipophilic

A

Highly lipophilic
Due to presence of 2 acetyl groups
More lipophilic than morphine

295
Q

Name the leaflets of the pulmonary valve

A

anterior, left and right leaflets

296
Q

What is bile tested for in toxicology

A

Historically used in the determination of opiates in general and morphine in particular

297
Q

Which valvular disease gives a fish mouth appearance

A

Mitral stenosis

298
Q

Where is morphine metabolised

A

Primarily in the liver

299
Q

What are the pros and cons of mechanical valves

A

Pros – Typically long-lasting so unlikely to require further surgeries
Cons – Requires lifelong coagulation (currently with warfarin), audible clicking depending on design

300
Q

Why might the bladder be empty on a drug death autopsy

A

Any drug that causes a seizure may

cause incontinence

301
Q

What causes tricuspid stenosis

A

RHD (with mitral and aortic involvement)
Carcinoid syndrome
IE (especially among IVDU)
Anatomical abnormalities

302
Q

Describe the appearance of post-mortem clots

A

Not attached to endothelium
Gelatinous, moist and shiny
Upper “chicken fat” portion is yellow and lower is dark red
Do not have lines of Zahn (differentiates from venous thrombi)

303
Q

How are bacteria protected from the host response in pacemaker endocarditis

A

The growing layers of platelets and fibrin protect it from circulating neutrophils and other defenses
Lots of nutrients available
Organisms deep in the vegetation hibernate and are less susceptible to antibiotics that interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis

304
Q

Which type of venous thrombosis is most likely to embolise

A

Deep vein

305
Q

List common sedative drugs

A

benzodiazepam and related drugs

306
Q

How do you reduce the risk of sharps injury

A

Never recap a needle (most common cause of injury) and dispose immediately after use
Use blunt needles/blunt top scissors where possible
Apply traction with forceps or a cut resistant glove rather than a simple gloved hand

307
Q

Describe how rheumatic fever damages the heart

A

Host mounts immune response to the RF
Antibodies and CD4+ T cells may recognise cardiac self-antigens as M antigens of group A streptococcus
This triggers complement activation and macrophage activity which damage the heart tissue Leads to formation of fibrous lesions

308
Q

Describe how vitreous humor is taken for toxicology at autopsy

A

Collected from both eyes - can be put in the same container

Always taken

309
Q

What is the difference between the pulmonary oedema seen in cocaine use and opiate overdose

A

Cocaine - the oedema is cardiogenic and so has a low protein count, doesn’t foam as much

Opiate - foams up causing mushroom plume

310
Q

List the effects of cannabis on the lungs

A

Can cause a pneumopericardium, pneumomediastinum and pneumothorax as well as bullous disease
Can also cause a desquamative interstitial pneumonitis
Fibrosis and atelectasia of the lungs is also caused by cannabis
Combined with smoking increased COPD risk

311
Q

How might the teeth be affected by cocaine use

A

Typically leads to poor dental hygiene and tooth damage

312
Q

In which non-forensic cases are toxicology samples taken

A

Where death is very likely to be due to a drug
Where no cause of death is found at autopsy
Death by suicide/misadventure with the possibility of impaired reasoning
Where it is necessary to exclude toxicology as a likely cause of death
Any case where there is deprivation of liberty (e.g. when someone is held under supervision and not allowed to leave)
Where poor compliance may have contribute to death (e.g. anti-epileptic medication)

313
Q

List external signs of drug use seen on the limbs

A

Peripheral oedema

Erythema over joints = hypothermia

314
Q

Fungal endocarditis will have a negative blood culture - true or false

A

True

315
Q

Describe the histology of the SL valves

A

Annulus is the same as AV
Have an endothelial lining – smooth on ventricular side, ridged on arterial side
Three distinct layers of connective tissue – lamina radialis, lamina spongiosa, lamina fibrosa

316
Q

Can non-infective endocarditis cause emboli

A

Yes

Can go on to cause significant infarcts in the brain, heart, kidneys, and other organs

317
Q

Define a ‘hazard’

A

A source or a situation that has the potential to cause harm

e.g. slippery floor or sharps

318
Q

What are the clinical features of arterial thrombosis

A

Symptoms as dependent on site of occlusion/embolus

E.g. a stroke can cause one side of the face to droop, weakness in one side of the body and slurred speech