Seminar 11 - Urosepsis Flashcards

1
Q

The majority of mucinous carcinomas of the ovary are bilateral - true or false

A

False

Only 5% are

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2
Q

How is pyonephrosis managed

A

Antibiotics and nephrostomy
OR
retrograde stent drainage

These treatments usually result in the infectious process clearing up over 24-48hrs

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3
Q

What might a low urine output suggest in a septic patient

A

A low urine output may suggest intravascular volume depletion and/or acute kidney injury and is therefore a marker of sepsis severity.

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4
Q

What are the main locations for metastases from clear cell carcinoma

A

Lung

Bone

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5
Q

What is the most common route of infection in clinical pyelonephritis

A

From the lower urinary tract (ascending infection)

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6
Q

How does membranous nephropathy present on IF microscopy

A

Granular deposits contain both immunoglobulins + complement.
Immuno-stains also show PLA2R glomerular positivity in majority of patients

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of primary glomerulonephritis

A

Most cases are idiopathic

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8
Q

List the pathological features of endometrioid ovarian carcinoma

A

They have tubular glands that resemble benign or malignant endometrium - glandular patters that bear a strong resemblance to tumours of an endometrial origin

This is what distinguishes these tumours from serous and mucinous tumours

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9
Q

How does the endothelial injury in ATN lead to disruption of renal blood flow

A

Endothelial injury causes increased endothelin release (vasoconstrictor) and decreased release of vasodilators like NO

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10
Q

What is the lymph drainage of the kidneys

A

Lumbar nodes

Around the abdominal aorta and IVC

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11
Q

Which morphological changes occur in the urinary tract due to subtotal or intermittent obstruction

A

You have progressive dilatation which causes hydronephrosis

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12
Q

Pyelonephritis can be asymptomatic - true or false

A

True

30-50% pyelonephritis cases may be silent in men

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13
Q

How does anti-GBM antibody mediated GN present in IF microscopy

A

Linear GBM fluorescence for Ig and complement.

Also seen in Goodpasture’s as same cause

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14
Q

Type 1 primary membranoproliferative GN is most common in which group

A

Most present in adolescence or as YA with nephrotic syndrome + nephritic component

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15
Q

Which symptoms are seen in pre-renal AKI

A

Symptoms related to hypovolemia, including thirst, decreased urine output, dizziness, and orthostatic hypotension.
May have mental status change in elderly due to hypovolaemia.

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16
Q

What is Acute Kidney Injury

A

A syndrome of reduced renal filtration function where the reduction occurs over hours or days
Rapid decline in kidney function
It leads to dysregulation of both fluid and electrolyte balance and a retention of waste product

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17
Q

Glomerular filtration can continue for some time despite the obstruction - true or false

A

True
This is because the infiltrate can diffuse back into the renal interstitium and perirenal spaces from which it can return back to the lymphatic and venous systems

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18
Q

What controls resorption of Na in the distal convoluted tubules

A

Aldosterone

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19
Q

What is the definition of urinary tract obstruction

A

The inhibition of flow of urine due to a blockage in urinary tract
Any level of the urinary tract can be effected to cause an obstruction meaning the blockage can occur anywhere from the urethra to the renal pelvis

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20
Q

Septic shock is associated with a greater risk of mortality than with sepsis alone - true or false

A

True

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21
Q

What causes hypotension in sepsis

A

Persistent hypotension is often due to a combination of low systemic vascular resistance, hypovolaemia and reductions in cardiac output from myocardial failure

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22
Q

Describe the microscopic features of acute pyelonephritis

A

Will see numerous PMNs filing renal tubules which can then form into a cast within the tubule

In early stages, the neutrophilic infiltration is limited to the tubules
The tubular lumens are a conduit for the extension of the infection and the infection can extend to the interstitium and produces abscesses that destroy the involved tubules

Glomeruli are relatively resistant to infection
However, extensive disease and fungal pyelonephritis can eventually destroy the glomeruli

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23
Q

What causes post-renal AKI

A

Caused by obstruction of the renal and urinary tract, either within the tract or extrinsic pressure.

Within the tracts: stone, renal tract malignancy, stricture, clot

Extrinsic causes: pelvic malignancy, prostatic hypertrophy, retro-peritoneal fibrosis, ureter obstruction

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24
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of PUNLMP

A

Singular core of loose fibrovascular tissue covered in thickened urothelium

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25
Q

What causes luteal ovarian cysts

A

These occur when the corpus luteum has filled with fluid and failed to regress

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26
Q

What are the functions of mesangial cells in the kidney

A

These cells of mesangial origin are contractile, phagocytic and capable of proliferation, of laying down matrix and collagen, and of secreting several biologically active mediators

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27
Q

Glomerulonephritis can have primary or secondary aetiologies - true or false

A

True

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28
Q

The larger the ovarian cyst, the more likely it will be symptomatic - true or false

A

True

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29
Q

In premenopausal women, every effort is made to preserve at least one ovary when cyst removal surgery is carried out - true or false

A

True
where possible only the cyst or the ovary that the cyst is in will be removed leaving either both ovaries or one remaining ovary to preserve fertility

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30
Q

Secondary membranoproliferative GN is invariably which subtype

A

Type 1

Though more common in adults

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31
Q

How can acute pyelonephritis lead to perinephric abscess formation

A

An extension of suppurative inflammation through the renal capsule into perinephric tissue

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32
Q

Nephritic syndrome is indictive of what

A

A proliferative process affecting endothelial cells.

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33
Q

How is AKI classified by type

A

Classed as pre-renal, renal (intrinsic) or post-renal

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34
Q

Ovarian cysts can be asymptomatic - true or false

A

True

They can be both symptomatic and asymptomatic but most tend to asymptomatic

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35
Q

Ovarian cysts are most common in which age group

A

They can occur at any age but are most common in women of reproductive age

Approx 4% of women will be admitted to hospital due to an ovarian cyst by age 65

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36
Q

What can cause recurrent UTIs

A

Unusually receptive uroepithelial cells
Colonization by ‘stick strains’ of E coli
Behavioural factors

Recurrent UTIs are mainly caused by reinfection by the same pathogen

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37
Q

What is the definition of a recurrent UTI

A

Infections within 3 months of the original infection

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38
Q

Which part of the kidney is clear cell carcinoma though to arise from

A

Proximal convoluting tubule

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39
Q

Pyelonephritis is more common in which sex

A

Women

Significantly more common

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40
Q

Pyelonephritis is more likely to occur via haematogenous spread in which patient groups

A

More likely to occur in the presence of ureteral obstruction and in debilitated patients

In patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy

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41
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of BPH

A

Well defined nodules compressing urethra to slit

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42
Q

What is azotaemia

A

A biochemical abnormality referring to elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, and is related largely to a decreased GFR

It is a consequence of many renal disorders (AKI, CKD), but it also arises from extra-renal disorders

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43
Q

How is targeted therapy used in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A

Targeted therapy can be given in some carcinomas and can also be used in some to treat recurrence

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44
Q

Describe the structure of the distal convoluted tubule

A

Has there are occasional microvilli, mitochondria, golgi apparatus, interdigitating processes (at base of cell) and a basal lamina
Smaller than PCT
More obvious luminal margin as apical microvilli are sparse - no brush border

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45
Q

Which symptoms suggest a ruptured ovarian cyst or ovarian torsion

A

Sudden onset of acute severe pain +/- nausea and vomiting

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46
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of an ascending urinary infection leading to pyelonephritis

A

Colonization of distal urethra & introitus (in the female) by coliform bacteria

From urethra to bladder: organisms gain entrance during urethral catheterization or other instrumentation
Or they can just spread up - more common in women

There are then many conditions that predispose to the movement of microbes from bladder to kidneys - obstructions (particualrly lower UT), vesicoureteral reflux and intrarenal reflux

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47
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is indicative of what

A

A non-proliferative process affecting podocytes

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48
Q

How can deposition of circulating immune complexes can lead to glomerulonephritis

A

Circulating Ag-Ab complexes can become trapped within the glomeruli and cause glomerular injury

Antigens which trigger formation of immune complexes can be endogenous (e.g., GN assoc. with SLE or in IgA nephropathy ) or exogenous (e.g., GN following infection).

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49
Q

Urological consultation should be considered for which acute pyelonephritis patients

A

Those whose condition does not respond rapidly to antibiotics

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50
Q

List risk factors for serous ovarian carcinoma

A

A family Hx of these tumours
Hereditable mutations Nulliparity
These tumours are also more frequent in women who have low parity

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51
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of nephritic syndrome

A

Proliferation of the cells within the glomeruli and an inflammatory leukocytic infiltrate severely injures the capillary walls
This allows blood to pass into the urine and induces haemodynamic changes
Leads to a overall reduction in GFR

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52
Q

What is meant by a relapsed UTI

A

Another infection with the same bacterial strain

Need to identify the cause of bacterial persistence in urinary tract e.g. stone, foreign body

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53
Q

Are most cases of membranous nephropathy primary or secondary

A

Most are primary -75%

This is the auto-immune form

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54
Q

The kidneys will become reduced in size due to urinary tract obstruction – true or false

A

False

They will me slightly or massively enlarged

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55
Q

Oncocytomas appear similar to which other renal pathology on imaging

A

Renal cell carcinoma
As a result they are resected when they are found to be safe

They also affect the same demographics

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56
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of BPH

A

Hyperplastic nodules composed of glands with infoldings of papillary epithelium

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57
Q

How do you treat sepsis

A

Begin treatment as soon as sepsis has been verified (NEWS2 of 5 or>5 in a patient with likely infection) by a senior clinician (ST3 or above)
Start the Sepsis 6 aka BUFALO
The critical care team may also adminisister corticosteroids, inotropes or vasopressors
Reassess and frequently monitor.

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58
Q

What determines the prognosis of ovarian carcinoma

A

How far it has spread outside the ovary and the extent of spread across the peritoneum

The histological appearance of serous carcinoma will also influence its prognosis

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59
Q

Acute proliferative GN can be caused by both exogenous and endogenous antigens - true or false

A

True
Post-infectious is the classic exogenous example
nephritis of SLE is an example of endogenous.

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60
Q

What is the most common subtype of bladder cancer

A

The vast majority (>90%) are urothelial

Squamous cell is associated with specific exposures - e.g. catheters

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61
Q

In the absence of vesicoureteral reflux, infection usually remains localized in the bladder - true or false

A

True

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62
Q

What are cystadenofibromas

A

They are rare benign tumours seen in the ovary

They can contain mucinous, serous, endometroid or transitional ( Brenner) epithelium.

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63
Q

What is the precursor lesion for high grade serous carcinoma

A

Serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma
Can be the
precursor lesion fin both sporadic and familial cases (linked to BRACA mutations)

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64
Q

What causes the dilation of calyces and pyramids in hydronephrosis

A

The continued glomerular filtration on top of the obstruction

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65
Q

UTIs caused by S. saprophyticus are more common in which patient group

A

Young women

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66
Q

Which cells predominantely make up clear cell carcinoma of the ovary

A

Mainly made of epithelial cells that have abundant cytoplasms.
This makes the cells resemble hypersecretory gestational endometrium

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67
Q

Which types of glomerular injuries are caused by damage to mesangial or endothelial cells and nephritic syndrome.

A

Overall caused a proliferative glomerular injury which includes:

Acute proliferative - includes post-infectious (post-strep) and infection associated

Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN (RPGN) - includes anti-GBM antibody mediated, immune complex deposition and Pauci-immune crescentic GN

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68
Q

Collapsing glomerulopathy is associated with prominent tubular interstitial inflammation - true or false

A

True

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69
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for death from AKI

A

Pulmonary complications

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70
Q

Describe type

2 endometriomas

A

Type 2 arise due to functional cysts being invaded by either ovarian endometriosis or type 1 endometriomas

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71
Q

How common are serous ovarian tumours

A

They account for 40% of cancers of the ovary and is the most common malignant ovarian tumour

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72
Q

What are the 3 most common toxic shock syndromes and how high are their mortalities

A

Meningococcal (Neisseria meningitidis) bacteraemic shock = Mortality of 10-20%

Staphylococcal (s.aureus) toxic shock syndrome = mortality of 5%

Streptococcal (group A) toxic shock syndrome - mortality of 50%

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73
Q

List risk factors for prostate cancer

A

Age – often described as a disease of advancing age and age is one of the strongest risk factors

Black ethnicity – Mortality is twice as high in the US

Family Hx

High dietary fat

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74
Q

The epidemiology of UTIs and pyelonephritis are similar - true or false

A

True
This is because they are related conditions
Data on pyelonephritis is however limited

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75
Q

List common clinical features of sepsis

A

Fever, tachycardia, and hypotension are common

Also have signs related to the sight of infection e.g. urosepsis flank pain and dysuria

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76
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

Caused by anti-GBM antibodies
They cross react with the BM in the alveoli and affect the GBM in the kidney
This leads to pulmonary haemorrhage associated with renal failure

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77
Q

What is the most typical histological feature of RPGN

A

Segmental glomerular necrosis and distinctive crescents (adjacent to glomerular segments uninvolved by inflammatory or proliferative change).

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78
Q

Which part of the kidney does ADH act on

A

The collecting ducts

It increases their permeability to water - more is resorbed

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79
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of bladder CIS/invasive carcinomas

A

Range from erythematous, slightly thickened bladder wall to large fungating tumours with areas of haemorrhage, necrosis and ulceration

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80
Q

Describe how renal infection occurs via haematogenous spread

A

Results from seeding of the kidneys by bacteria from distant foci during septicaemia or localized infections

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81
Q

What causes multi-organ failure in sepsis

A

The inflammatory response in sepsis causes widespread tissue injury.

Multi-organ dysfunction may be partly caused by apoptosis of immune, epithelial, and endothelial cells and a shift to an anti-inflammatory phenotype, compounded by impaired organ perfusion due to hypotension, low cardiac output states, circulatory microthrombi, a disordered microcirculation, and tissue oedema

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82
Q

How does Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN present on electron microscopy

A

Shows deposits due to immune complex deposition.

Regardless of type, EM may show ruptures in the GBM, a severe injury that allows leukocytes, plasma proteins to reach the urinary space, where they trigger crescent formation.

In time, most crescents undergo organisation & foci of segmental necrosis resolve as segmental scars (type of segmental sclerosis).
Restoration of normal glomerular architecture may be achieved with early aggressive therapy.

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83
Q

Both high and low grade serous carcinoma of the ovaries commonly spread to which other areas

A

Both have a propensity to spread to the peritoneum and omentum and commonly cause ascites

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84
Q

What forms the glomerular basement membrane

A

It consists mostly of type IV collagen & several matrix proteins (incl. laminin, proteoglycans

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85
Q

List common causative organisms of sepsis

A

Of the 70% of infected patients with positive microbiology:

47% of isolates were gram-positive (Staphylococcus aureusalone accounted for 20%)

62% were gram-negative (20%Pseudomonasspecies and 16%Escherichia coli)

19% were fungal

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86
Q

What is endocapillary proliferation (glomerular injury)

A

The combination of infiltration of leukocytes and swelling and proliferation of mesangial and/or endothelial cells

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87
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is more common in men as their age increases - true or false

A

True

Due to prostatic hypertrophy & instrumentation

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88
Q

UTIs are most common in which patient group

A

Adult women
1 in 5 experience a UTI at some point
30x more likely than men to develop UTI
High rates in post-menopausal women

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89
Q

Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men - true or false

A

False

It is second after lung cancer

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90
Q

Endometrioid carcinomas of the ovary are commonly accompanied by which other cancer

A

15-30% of endometroid ovarian carcinoma will be accompanied by carcinoma of the endometrium

In these cases the endometroid ovarian carcinoma is a result of metastasis of the primary endometrial cancer

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91
Q

Which symptoms are seen in renal AKI

A

nephritic syndrome of haematuria, oedema, and hypertension indicates a glomerular aetiology

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92
Q

Which species of bacteria produce superantigens

A

25 species known to date

Includes: Staphylococcus aureus(S. aureus)
Streptococcus pyogenes(S. pyogenes)

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93
Q

What causes membranous nephropathy

A

It is a chronic immune complex-mediated disease, primary form is an autoimmune disease caused mostly by antibodies to a renal autoantigen (PLA2R)
This is a membrane protein at the basal surface of glomerular epithelial cells

Also involves IgG4 deposition

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94
Q

How can infertility treatment increase risk of ovarian cysts

A

gonadotrophins and other ovarian induction agents can cause cysts as they can cause ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

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95
Q

How is lactate used as an indicator in sepsis

A

Lactate is amarker of stressand may be a marker of a worse prognosis

Raised serum lactate highlights the possibility of tissuehypoperfusionand may be present in many conditions

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96
Q

Describe the structure of the renal capsule

A

It’s made of dense collagen fibres

Thin but strong

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97
Q

How would you treat fluid overload

A

Furosemide

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98
Q

What causes type one ovarian carcinoma

A

They arise in association with borderline tumours and endometriosis and are low grade.

This group includes endometrioid, mucinous and low grade serous carcinomas

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99
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of nephrotic syndrome

A

Derangement in glomerular capillary walls causes increased permeability to plasma proteins.

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100
Q

Describe the appearance of the GBM in membranoproliferative GN

A

They become thickened with a double-contour” or “tram-track” appearance on silver or PAS stains
This is caused by duplication of the BM (aka. splitting) usually as a result of new BM synthesis in response to subendothelial deposits of immune complexes

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101
Q

Describe the histological features of membranous nephropathy

A

Diffuse thickening of the glomerular capillary wall due to accumulation of deposits containing immunoglobulin along the subepithelial side of the BM

Epithelial cells of proximal tubules contain protein reabsorption droplets and there may be considerable mononuclear cell inflammation

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102
Q

List causes of LUT obstruction that can lead to pyelonephritis

A

Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Tumours
Calculi
Neurogenic bladder dysfunction caused by diabetes or spinal cord injury

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103
Q

How is very-low grade prostate cancer managed

A

Observation and active surveillance are both options

Especially in older patients

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104
Q

IC patients w/ pyelonephritis may exhibit few, if any, symptoms - true or false

A

True

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105
Q

Describe ovarian dermoid cysts

A

Also called mature cystic teratomas
They will contain elements from all three germ layers
Most will be benign but 1-2% can undergo malignant transformation
Can also become very large increasing the risk of ovarian

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106
Q

What is meant by reinfection with regards to UTI

A

New infection by a different organism/strain

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107
Q

List some risk factors for developing acute pyelonephritis

A

Urinary tract obstruction, either congenital or acquired
Instrumentation of the urinary tract, most commonly catheterization
Vesicoureteral reflux
Pregnancy - 4-6% of pregnant women develop bacteriuria during pregnancy
Pre-existing renal lesions, causing intrarenal scarring and obstruction
Diabetes
Immunosuppression & Immunodeficiency

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108
Q

List the main steps in the pathophysiology of sepsis

A

1 = Immune system activation

2= Activation of endothelium and alteration in the coagulation system

3 = Inflammation and organ dysfunction

4 = These abnormalities may lead to lactic acidosis, cellular dysfunction, and multi-organ failure

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109
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of minimal change disease

A

Current thinking is that there is some immune dysfunction and elaboration of factors that damage visceral epithelial cells
Ultrastructural changes point to a primary visceral epithelial cell injury
This leads to the proteinuria

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110
Q

What are the 2 subgroups of Membrano-proliferative GN

A

Type 1 - deposition of immune complexes containing IgG and complement

Type 2 - dense deposit disease, in which activation of complement appears to be crucial.

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111
Q

What are the most common mechanisms of death from ovarian cancer

A

Usually due to widespread metastasis and their effects on other organs causing ;
Bowel obstruction
Liver failure
Respiratory tract blockage leading to infection causing sepsis or respiratory failure

These patients have also been known to die from PE and infection - potentially due to chemotherapy or due to metastasis effecting the liver function and the lungs

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112
Q

List causes of UTIs in older men

A

Enlargement of prostate
Prostatism
Debilitation
Subsequent instrumentation of the urinary tract

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113
Q

The presence of polycystic ovaries is diagnostic of PCOS - true or false

A

False

Polycystic ovaries are found in 20-30% of women of a reproductive age so not all have PCOS

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114
Q

What can cause a mixed picture of ATN

A

Specific clinical settings such as a mismatched blood transfusion.

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115
Q

What causes ischaemic ATN

A

Caused by inadequate blood flow to the peripheral organs, hypotension and shock.

Seen in cases of severe trauma, pancreatitis and ones listed earlier all lead to these blood supply issues

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116
Q

Pyenephrosis can follow on from which condition

A

Pyelonephritis

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117
Q

What causes type two ovarian carcinoma

A

They tend to have come from serous intraepithelial carcinoma.

This group includes high grade serous carcinoma

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118
Q

Describe the macroscopic feature of follicular cysts

A

Often larger than 2cm in diameter

If >2cm can be detected by palpations and USS

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119
Q

Describe the initiation phase of AKI

A

Lasts about 36 hours
The main feature is the causative medical, surgical or obstetric event.

Only clue that renal system is affected is a slight decrease in urine output and rise in blood urea nitrogen.
Likely due to a transient decrease in blood flow and GFR

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120
Q

Which mechanism usually prevents the backflow of urine from the bladder

A

The normal ureteral insertion into the bladder is a one-way valve that prevents retrograde flow of urine when the intravesical pressure rises, as in micturition

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121
Q

How does kidney size change with urinary tract obstruction

A

The kidney can either be enlarged slightly or it can be enlarged massively. How enlarged it is will depend on the degree and the duration of the obstruction

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122
Q

Which genetic abnormalities are seen in clear cell carcinoma of the ovary

A

They include; aberrations in PIK3CA, KRAS, ARID1A, PTEN and TP53

Most of the genetic aberrations that are seen in clear cell carcinoma are shared with endometrioid carcinoma just in different frequencies

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123
Q

List the histological features of chronic pyelonephritis

A

Coarse, discrete, corticomedullary scars overlying dilated, blunted, or deformed calyces, and flattening of the papillae

Involve predominantly tubules and interstitium
Tubules show atrophy in some areas and hypertrophy or dilation in others
Thyroidization – Dilated tubules with flattened epithelium may be filled with casts resembling thyroid colloid
Varying degrees of chronic interstitial inflammation and fibrosis around the calyceal epithelium
Glomeruli may appear normal

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124
Q

Renal cell carcinoma is most prevalent in which age group

A

Tumours most commonly present in pts in their 60s and 70s

Median age of diagnosis is 64

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125
Q

Describe the normal histology of the renal pelvis, ureters and the bladder

A

Composed of basement membrane beneath transitional epithelium/ urothelium.
Most superficial layer of cells (“umbrella” cell layer) are very resistant to osmotic pressure and very distensible
They have rounded tops when the tissue not stretched

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126
Q

Why does ovarian cancer have a worse prognosis than endometrial and cervical cancer

A

The symptoms don’t appear until late stages of the disease so women often present much later than in cervical or endometrial

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127
Q

Describe the hyalinosis seen in glomerular injury

A

Hyalin is an extracellular, amorphous material composed of plasma proteins
It moves from the circulation into glomerular structures
When extensive, these deposits may obliterate the capillary lumens of the glomerular tuft

On light microscopy you see accumulation of material that is homogenous and eosinophili

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128
Q

How common are clear cell tumours of the ovary

A

These tumours collectively are rare with the benign and borderline forms being exceedingly rare and the clear cell carcinomas being uncommon

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129
Q

What is the most common cause of AKI in children

A

HUS - haemolytic uraemic syndrome

Also gastroenteritis can cause severe hypovolaemia and lead to an AKI

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130
Q

Which factors determine the treatment regime chosen for ovarian cancer

A

Treatment will depend on the patients health, whether they are post menopausal and how far the carcinoma has spread

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131
Q

Kidney cancers represent 3-4% of all newly diagnosed cancer in the US - true or false

A

True

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132
Q

Renal papillary adenomas are commonly found at autopsy - true or false

A

True
Incidence increases as age does
Up to 40% of overs-70s will have them

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133
Q

Describe how tubular injury occurs in ATN

A

The epithelial cells in the tubules are very sensitive to ischaemia and toxins
Ischaemia causes structural and functional changes such as redistribution of membrane proteins
This leads to abnormal ion transport and increased sodium in the distal tubules.
The rise in Na causes vasoconstriction via tubuloglomerular feedback which initially lowers the GFR to maintain distal blood flow.

The ischaemic tubular cells also release cytokines and adhesion molecules which recruit leukocytes to the area - contributes to injury

Can also be caused by urine backflow and intratubular obstruction.
You also get activation of the coagulation cascade and cell necrosis/apoptosis

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134
Q

Bladder cancer is more common in the older population - true or false

A

True

Over 70% of new cases in the over-65s

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135
Q

What are superantigens

A

Bacterial proteins that generate a powerful immune response by binding to Major Histocompatibility Complex class (MHC) II molecules on 1) antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and 2) T cell receptors on T cells

They are extremely potent

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136
Q

List the features of immune complex deposition GN

A

IF shows granular deposits of antibodies and complement.

Can be a complication of any of the immune complex nephritides, incl. post-strep GN, lupus nephritis, IgA nephropathy, and HSP

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137
Q

Which proportion of mucinous ovarian tumours are benign

A

The vast majority of these tumours will be benign and borderline with a smaller proportion being malignant

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138
Q

Angiomyolipomas are common in which patient groups

A

Occurs in up to 80% of pts w/ tuberous sclerosis

They also have a strong female predilection

Overall prevalence of 0.2-0.6% so rare in general population

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139
Q

List risk factors for sepsis

A
Age > 65
Immunocompromised
Catheter
Recent surgery
Diabetes
IV drug use
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140
Q

Describe the pulmonary complication of AKI

A

Seen in around 54% of patients.

Pulmonary oedema and hypoxia are common

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141
Q

Which type of ovarian cyst is present in the normal ovaries of women of a reproductive age

A

Luteal

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142
Q

Perirenal abscesses can form after pyonephrosis - true or false

A

True

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143
Q

Describe the action of aldosterone

A

It is secreted by the adrenal cortex
Acts on the DCT and results in greater Na+ and water retention
Therefore, increases BP.

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144
Q

What are the characteristics of polyomavirus nephropathy

A

infection of tubular epithelial cell nuclei, leading to nuclear enlargement and intranuclear inclusions visible by light microscopy

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145
Q

What is the principal immunoglobulin deposited in most cases of membranous nephropathy

A

IgG4

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146
Q

How do the glomeruli appear in membranoproliferative GN

A

They are large and hypercellular

Hypercellularity produced by proliferation of cells in mesangium and capillary endothelium + infiltrating leukocytes.
Accentuated “lobular” appearance due to proliferating mesangial cells & increased mesangial matrix.

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147
Q

The nephrons are structurally intact in pre-renal AKI - true or false

A

True

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148
Q

Which signs are typically abnormal in the NEWS score of a patient with sepsis

A
-RR and HR = tachypnoea and tachycardia
Temp = high or low temp (+/- rigors)
AVPU = Altered mental status
O2 = low O2 sats
BP = hypotension
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149
Q

List the main tests run in a patient with suspected sepsis

A
Blood culture - before antibiotics
Serum lactate
Hourly urine output
Urea and electrolytes
Serum glucose 
Clotting screen 
Liver Function Tests 
C-reactive protein
Serum procalcitonin (new)
Blood gas
ECG
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150
Q

Which types of urinary obstruction typically cause pyonephrosis

A

The obstruction will either be a complete obstruction or an almost complete obstruction.
The obstruction also tends to be high in the urinary tract

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151
Q

How common are endometrioid carcinomas

A

They account for approximately 10-15% of ovarian cancer

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152
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of bladder papillary carcinomas

A

Lesions protruding into the lumen of the bladder

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153
Q

Non-enteric organisms such as staph are more likely to cause pyelonephritis in which patient groups

A

In patients receiving immunosuppressive therapy

Also more common for certain viruses and fungi to be involved

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154
Q

Which mutation is commonly seen in mucinous carcinoma of the ovary

A

KRAS proto-oncogene mutations are found in 85% of mucinous carcinomas and it is felt they are responsible for initiating the development of these tumours
KRAS mutations are also seen in benign and borderline forms of these tumours

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155
Q

What other diagnoses should be excluded in women with suspected pyelonephritis

A

Should exclude vaginitis, cervicitis or pelvic tenderness (suggests PID) in pelvic examination

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156
Q

BPH normally occurs in the peripheral zone of the prostate - true or false

A

False
This is where most cancers arise
BPH in more common in the transitional zone

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157
Q

List potential complications of salpingo-oophorectomy in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A
Vascular injury and bleeding
Bowel, bladder or ureter damage
Nerve damage
Infection
DVT
Adhesion formation
Ovarian remnant syndrome
Anaesthetic complications
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158
Q

Endometrioid ovarian carcinoma can be bilateral - true or false

A

True

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159
Q

Can you get a malignant Brenner/TC tumour of the ovary

A

Yes
It is possible to get malignant Brenner tumours and transitional cell carcinomas.
The different is that malignant Brenner tumours are when are when there are benign Brenner nests mixed with malignant cells and transitional cell carcinoma is when >50% of the tumour is made of malignant transitional type epithelium

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160
Q

Describe the pathological features of a Brenner/TC tumour of the ovary

A

They are usually benign contained neoplastic epithelial cells that look like uroepithelium

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161
Q

What causes type 2 MPGN

A

Excessive activation of alternative complement pathway

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162
Q

How do women with pyelonephritis present

A

They appear uncomfortable but not toxic
Presence of toxic fever, chills, nausea and vomiting
May appreciate signs of dehydration e.g. dry mucous membranes & tachycardia
Clammy extremities & symptomatic orthostasis suggest poor vascular tone due to gram-negative bacteremia

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163
Q

How is lactate used as an indicator in sepsis

A

Lactate is amarker of stressand may be a marker of a worse prognosis

Raised serum lactate highlights the possibility of tissuehypoperfusionand may be present in many conditions

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164
Q

Describe the pathological features of serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma

A

Made up of cells that are identical morphologically to high grade serous carcinoma.

The cells in this lesion do not invade the underlying stroma

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165
Q

List the microscopic features of high grade serous ovarian carcinoma

A

Have widespread infiltration or frank effacement of the underlying stroma and more complex growth patterns - distinguishes from low grade

Tumour cells have nuclear atypia, including pleomorphism, atypical mitotic figures and multinucleation

Sometimes of the tumours are so undifferentiated it may not be possible to recognise the serous feature

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166
Q

List the microscopic features of clear cell carcinoma

A

Tumours tend to be well-differentiated, but some cells may contain atypical nuclei
Cells are generally rounded/ polygonal with large amounts of clear cytoplasm
Vasculature is usually delicate and branching

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167
Q

How do you manage bladder cancer

A

For non-invasive cancers, transurethral resection is the treatment of choice with post-op intravesical chemotherapy +/- immunotherapy

Invasive cancer will usually require radical cystectomy +/- pelvic lymph node dissection +/- systemic adjuvant chemotherapy

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168
Q

List potential complications of targeted therapy in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A

Breathlessness
Nausea
Diarrhoea
Tiredness

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169
Q

Which drugs can increase the likelihood of complications from AKI

A

diuretics (especially K+ sparing), metformin and anti-hypertensives

They should be stopped in cases of AKI

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170
Q

Describe how the immune system is activated in sepsis

A

Pathogen successfully enters and survives in body
Innate immune system activated
Amplification of cellular and humoural response (cytokines, interleukins, ROS, complement system activate immune cells)

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171
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind primary membranous nephropathy

A

Autoantibodies bind to the PLA2R membrane protein at the basal surface of glomerular epithelial cells

This triggers complement activation and shedding of immune aggregates from cell surface

Results in characteristic deposits of immune complexes along the subepithelial aspect of the BM.
Complement activation injures the capillary wall and causes increased protein leakage.

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172
Q

The incidence of UTI in women tends to increase with increasing age - true or false

A

True

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173
Q

What is the most common underlying infection in cases of post-infectious/infection associated GN

A

Streptococcal infection

Only certain group A b-haemolytic streptococcal strains are nephritogenic (>90% of cases due to types 12, 4 and 1).

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174
Q

How common is BPH

A

Seen in 30% of over 50s and 90% of over 80s

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175
Q

How does minimal change disease present on electron microscopy

A

GBM appears normal - no electron-dense material deposited

Principal lesion is in the podocytes: uniform + diffuse effacement of foot processes - reduced to a rim of cytoplasm with loss of recognisable intervening slit diaphragms

This change represents simplification of the epithelial cell architecture with flattening, retraction + swelling of foot processes

PT cells are often laden with lipid & protein, reflecting tubular reabsorption of lipoproteins passing through diseased glomeruli

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176
Q

How common are recurrent UTIs

A

Recurrent episodes afflict in 1 in10 women at some time in their life

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177
Q

How do you treat hypotension in sepsis

A

Fluid resuscitation is given with either colloids or crystalloids and vasopressors might be given

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178
Q

What are the three main phases of AKI development

A

initiation, maintenance and recovery

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179
Q

How does ischaemia cause a decrease in GFR in AKI

A

Leads to vasoconstriction which in turn decreases GFR

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180
Q

Bladder cancer may be multifocal at different stages of development/ invasion - true or false

A

True

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181
Q

At which point does the incidence of UTI in men approach that of women

A

When men reach the age of 60 and above

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182
Q

In glomerular injury how does the basement membrane thickening appear on electron microscopy

A

Takes 1 of 3 forms
Amorphous electron-dense material on the endothelial or epithelial side of the BM or within the GBM itself.

Increased synthesis of the protein components of the BM (e.g., diabetic glomerulosclerosis).

Formation of additional layers of BM matrices – most often occupy subendothelial locations; range from poorly organised matrix to fully duplicated lamina densa (e.g., MPGN).

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183
Q

Describe the maintenance phase of AKI

A

Get a sustained decrease in urine output (oliguria) of 40-400ml per day, salt and water overload, rising BUN, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis and other symptoms of uraemia .
Can recover from this with appropriate treatment

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184
Q

How are microbes usually cleared from the bladder

A

Ordinarily, organisms introduced into the bladder are cleared by continual voiding and by antibacterial mechanisms

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185
Q

What are the most common neoplasms at each part of the urinary system - kidneys, ureters, bladder, prostate

A

Kidneys – RCC
Ureters – Urothelial carcinoma
Bladder – Urothelial carcinoma
Prostate – Adenocarcinoma

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186
Q

Which patients are more vulnerable to fluid overload

A

May be more likely in those with sepsis or pre-existing cardiac disease

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187
Q

What is the Sepsis 6

A
B - bloods
U – urine output 
F – fluid resuscitation 
A – antibiotics 
L – lactate 
O – O2 judiciously
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188
Q

The majority of serous carcinomas of the ovary will be bilateral - true or false

A

True

66% are bilateral

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189
Q

List the histological features of FSGS

A

Epithelial damage = ultrastructural hallmark of FSGS

Circulating factors
and genetically determined defects damage slit diaphragms of epithelial

Causes hyalinosis + sclerosis from entrapment of plasma proteins in hyperpermeable foci + increased ECM deposition.

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190
Q

Describe the cardiovascular complication of AKI

A

Seen in 35% of cases and can include heart failure, MI, arrhythmia
Elderly with reduced cardiac reserve are high risk
Hyperkalaemia can lead to arrhythmia and cardiac arrest

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191
Q

How do endometriomas present on imaging

A

They appear as complex cysts on USS and have a ground glass appearance on internal echo

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192
Q

What causes cellular hypoxia in sepsis

A

Eventual hypoperfusion due to hypovolaemia
Impaired O2 delivery to cells due to peri-capillary oedema
Additional contributing factors: disordered blood flow at capillary level and increased blood viscosity

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193
Q

What are the characteristic histological features of type one MPGN

A

Discrete subendothelial electron-dense deposits between duplicated (split) BMs
IgG + C3 present in granular pattern along with early complement components (C1q & C4)

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194
Q

What are the most common systemic causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Diabetes
Amyloidosis
SLE

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195
Q

What is micropapillary carcinoma of the ovary

A

This is when the epithelial cells in borderline serous tumours grow in a delicate papillary pattern.
This is thought to be the precursor lesion to low grade serous carcinoma

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196
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of invasive urothelial carcinoma

A

Invasion in basement membrane associated with papillary urothelial cancers or adjacent CIS – overlying CIS destroyed by malignant invasion

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197
Q

How does minimal change disease present under immunofluorescence

A

no Ig or complement deposits

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198
Q

Urothelial carcinomas also affect which other body part beside the bladder

A

Also account for 5-10% of primary renal tumours

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199
Q

How does toxic injury cause a decrease in GFR in AKI

A

Contributes to tubular injury
This leads interstitial inflammation which directly decreases GFR
It also leads to sloughing of cells > obstruction and reduced GFR

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200
Q

What is considered to the be the precursor for endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary

A

Ovarian endometriosis

In some cases as the peak onset of endometrioid carcinoma is a decade earlier in endometriosis patients

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201
Q

Ascitic fluid in ovarian cancer cases typically contains what

A

Characteristically contains exfoliated tumour cells

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202
Q

Women with PCOS are at risk of which other conditions

A

Higher risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

This is due to increased levels of free serum estrone (type of female sex hormone)

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203
Q

List the microscopic features of serous ovarian carcinoma

A
The cysts are lined with columnar epithelium 
Concentric calcifications ( psammoma bodies) are features that are common in all types of serous tumours however they are not specific to neoplasia
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204
Q

What is the main morphological feature of PCOS

A

The ovaries contain multiple cystic follicles which causes the ovaries to become enlarged

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205
Q

In which phase of the menstrual cycle to follicular cysts form

A

These cysts may form in the follicular phase due excessive FSH levels leading to a lack of ovulation or because of a lack of the LH surge

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206
Q

What are the 2 main patterns of ATN

A

Ischaemic

Nephrotoxic

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207
Q

Which endocrine syndromes can be caused by renal cell carcinoma

A

Cushing’s
Polycythaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Sex hormone disturbances

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208
Q

What is the main management for the majority of ovarian cysts

A

Watchful waiting
Serial ultrasounds to ensure that the cyst is regressing by itself
If the women is post menopausal they will have an ultrasound and a blood test every 4 months for a year

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209
Q

What is Collapsing glomerulopathy

A

A morphological variant of FSGS

It has a poor prognosis

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210
Q

List how pre-renal, renal, post-renal factors cause disrupted blood flow in ATN

A

Pre-renal causes = reduced perfusion.
Renal = disease of kidney itself causes ischaemic damage.
Post = obstruction causes an increase in pressure which interferes with the pressure gradients and reduces filtration driving force.

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211
Q

What is the 5-year survival for invasive mucinous carcinoma of the ovary

A

It has a 10yr survival rate greater than 90%

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212
Q

What are the 3 main complications of ovarian cysts

A

Rupture
Haemorrhage - can be severe and life threatening
Torsion - a surgical emergency

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213
Q

Does the severity of the microscopic features in ATN correlate to the severity of the clinical picture

A

NO

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214
Q

How are serous ovarian carcinomas subdivided

A

Into high and low grade forms
The difference between high and low grade is the degree of nuclear atypia

The grades will correlate with patient survival.

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215
Q

What forms the nephron

A

Renal corpuscle + tubule

This is the basic functional unit of the kidney

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216
Q

what is the source of pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

Originally thought it was mucinous carcinomas of the ovary but now believed to be the appendix

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217
Q

Define AKI (in terms of blood/urine results)

A

A rise in creatine >26 umol/L within 48hrs.
A rise in creatine >1.5x of the baseline for that patient within 7 days.
Urine output <0.5mL/kg/hr for more than 6 consecutive hours.
25% or greater fall in eGFR in children and young people within 7 days.

Can also stage AKI based on the highest creatine reading or longest period of oliguria

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218
Q

Mucinous ovarian tumours typically affect which age group

A

They mainly occur in the middle section of adult life and are rarer before puberty and after menopause

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219
Q

Endometrioid ovarian carcinoma can be bilateral - true or false

A

True

40% of these tumours are bilateral

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220
Q

How do you treat renal cell carcinoma

A

Usually radical nephrectomy
Nephron-sparing surgery may be possible for smaller masses - local ablation may be either cryoablation or radiofrequency ablation

Pharmacological treatment or chemotherapy typically not beneficial except in metastatic disease

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221
Q

What are the complications of radiotherapy in prostate cancer

A

Can lead to significant urinary complications

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222
Q

What is the 5-year survival for endometrioid carcinoma of the ovary

A

Approximately 75%

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223
Q

How can serous carcinoma of the ovary spread into the peritoneum

A

They can occur on the ovaries surface therefore if unencapsulated they can spread to the peritoneum easily

They can also originate from the fallopian tubes and from here they can also exfoliate into the peritoneum

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224
Q

Describe the clinical course of type 1 membranoproliferative GN

A

Slowly progressive but unremitting course

Some develop numerous crescents + clinical picture of RPGN.

~50% develop chronic renal failure within 10 years.

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225
Q

How does Pauci-immune crescentic GN present in IF microscopy

A

little/no deposition of immune reactants

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226
Q

Focal areas of carcinoma can be found within cystadenofibromas in the ovary - true or false

A

True

It is rare and metastatic spread from this is extremely uncommon

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227
Q

List potential treatment options for renal AKI

A

Renal causes may need referral for biopsy and specialist treatment of renal disease.

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228
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for developing a non-benign ovarian cyst

A

increasing age

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229
Q

Sepsis has a very high mortality - true or false

A

True
Sepsis is present in MANY hospitalisations that culminate in death
In 2015, 23,135 people in the UK died from sepsis, where sepsis was an underlying or contributory cause of death

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230
Q

How are the different types of ovarian carcinoma distinguished

A

They are distinguished by the differentiation of their neoplastic epithelium

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231
Q

Ascites is a common clinical sign of ovarian cancer - true or false

A

True
It occurs once the carcinoma has extended through its capsule and seeded into the peritoneal cavity
Fluid collection can be massive

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232
Q

What is hydronephrosis

A

The dilatation of the renal pelvis and calyces, that is associated with progressive atrophy of the kidney, due to the obstruction of the outflow of urine

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233
Q

Describe the structure of the loop of Henle

A

The thick ascending limb lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
The thin descending limb by simple squamous

Permeability to water and ions and active transport of ions varies in the different parts of the Loop

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234
Q

Which patient groups are more susceptible to urosepsis

A

women
children
older adults
people who have a compromised immune system
people who have existing wounds or injuries
people who have invasive devices, such as catheters or breathing tubes

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235
Q

Which morphological changes occur in the urinary tract due to sudden and complete obstruction

A

There will be mild dilatation of the calyces and pelvis and occasionally atrophy of the renal parenchyma will be seen

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236
Q

Acute tubular necrosis can follow which other conditions

A

Ischaemia - hypovolaemia, microscopic polyangiitis, microangiopathies such as HUS or TTP

Direct toxic injury, either from endogenous (myoglobin/haemoglobin/light chains) or exogenous sources (drugs or heavy metals)

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237
Q

Which AKI cases have the highest mortality

A

those with shock related to sepsis, extensive burns or multiorgan failure the mortality can be above 50%.

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238
Q

Describe the structure of the podocytes of the kidney

A

It’s a specialised visceral epithelium

It has interdigitating foot process, separated by 20-30nm wide filtration slits which are bridged by a thin diaphragm.

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239
Q

How does prostate cancer spread

A

Local invasion to eminal vesicles, periprostatic tissues and base of the bladder

Lymphatic spread through through the obturator nodes leading to the para-aortic nodes

Also mets to the axial skeleton - osteoblastic lesions suggest a prostatic origin

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240
Q

What causes hypercellularity in glomerular injury

A

Results from 1 or more of:
Proliferation of mesangial or endothelial cells
Infiltration of leukocytes (incl. neutrophils, monocytes, lymphocytes)
or
Formation of crescents

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241
Q

What signs would you look for in history and examination that may suggest sepsis

A
Presence of risk factors 
NEWS2 score of 5 or more
Oliguria 
Poor cap refill / skin mottling
Cyanosis
Malaise
Nausea/vomiting

Also have signs related to the sight of infection e.g. urosepsis flank pain and dysuria

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242
Q

List the main features/diagnostic criteria of septic shock

A

Persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain mean arterial pressure of ≥65 mmHg

Serum lactate >2 mmol/L (>18 mg/dL)

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243
Q

List some of the long term complications of sepsis

A

Neurological sequelae e.g. focal neurological deficits in patients with bacterial meningitis

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244
Q

What determines the prognosis of clear cell carcinoma and what is it’s 5-year survival

A

Prognosis largely depends on stage at diagnosis, but 5-year survival is approx. 75%

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245
Q

What is AKI treatment dependent on

A

The underlying cause

Need to diagnose and treat appropriately

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246
Q

List the macroscopic features of clear cell carcinoma

A

Thought to arise from PCT so most commonly originate in and are confined to the cortex
Most commonly solitary, well-circumscribed, unilateral, spherical mass which distorts the outline of the kidney
Usually yellow-grey-white, commonly with areas of necrosis and foci of haemorrhage
May show cystic changes
Can bulge and fungate into calyces and pelvis, and have been known to extend into the renal vein up to the IVC

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247
Q

List the risk factors for AKI

A

Pre-existing CKD
Male Sex
Age
History of AKI
Certain comorbidities – diabetes, CVD (heart failure), malignancy, chronic liver disease, complex surgery, connective tissue disease and autoimmune diseases
Certain drugs can also increase risk – NSAIDs
Some toxic substances too such as ethylene glycol, mercury vapour, heavy metal exposure

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248
Q

List common mutations in both ovarian endometrioid carcinoma and endometrial endometrioid carcinoma

A

Frequent alterations increasing PI3K/AKT signalling ( PTEN, ARID1A, KRAS and PIK3CA mutations)
DNA mismatch repair gene mutations
TP53 mutations are also common in poorly differentiated carcinomas in both locations

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249
Q

How does FSGS present under immunofluorescence

A

IgM and C3 present in sclerotic areas and the mesangium.

Focal sclerosis has possible pronounced hyalinosis and thickening of afferent arterioles

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250
Q

What causes staphylococcal (s.aureus) toxic shock syndrome

A

Menstrual - tampons
Skin wounds or surgical wounds
Pneumonia
Catheter infections

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251
Q

What causes the renal atrophy in hydronephrosis

A

The obstruction causes high pressure in the renal pelvis which is then transmitted through the collecting ducts into the cortex which will result in renal atrophy

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252
Q

What are the 2 key steps in the pathogenesis of ATN

A

Tubular injury

Disruption of blood flow

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253
Q

Post-strep GN occurs most frequently in which age group

A

Children ages 6-10

Usually after an infection of pharynx or skin (impetigo)

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254
Q

Which benign tumour of the ovary is also called a Brenner tumour

A

Transitional Cell Tumours

They account for 10% of ovarian tumours

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255
Q

Describe the link between COVID and AKI

A

COVID patients will often have kidney involvement with 20-40% having AKI on admission (Europe and US figures)
AKI in these patients is associated with a higher mortality

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256
Q

How do endothelial cells in the nephron respond to injury

A

Leads to vasculitis

This results in nephritic syndrome

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257
Q

What is requires for a diagnosis of minimal change disease

A

Only when podocyte effacement is associated with normal glomeruli by light microscopy that the diagnosis of MCD can be made.

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258
Q

Which proportion of endometrioid ovarian tumours are benign

A

The benign and borderline forms of this tumour are uncommon with the malignant form being more common

259
Q

How does bladder cancer normally present

A

Patients most commonly present w/ painless haematuria, which may be associated w/ frequency, urgency and dysuria

260
Q

What are the main factors determining whether management is required for an ovarian cyst

A

Its size and appearance
Whether it is symptomatic
If the women is post menopausal - as this carries a higher risk that the cyst is cancerous

261
Q

What causes hyalinosis in glomerular injury

A

Consequence of endothelial or capillary wall injury

This is a typical end result of glomerular damage

262
Q

Describe the microscopic feature of follicular cysts

A

If the intraluminal pressure has not been so high as to cause their atrophy, granulosa lining cells are present within them
Outer theca cells may be conspicuous due to luteinisation

If Luteinisation is pronounced there may be increased oestrogen production and endometrial abnormities

263
Q

What causes urosepsis

A

Urosepsis starts with the development of a UTI and typically occurs if a UTI is left untreated

264
Q

How does the body respond to the hypovolaemia and hypoperfusion in sepsis

A

It undergoes an initial increase in HR, but later hypoperfusion kicks in once heart is worn out

265
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of flat urothelial carcinoma (CIS)

A

May appear as scattered malignant cells in otherwise normal urothelium or full thickness atypia
May also see denuded basement membrane as malignant epithelium shed in urine

266
Q

Describe the clinical course of a viral pathogen causing pyelonephritis in kidney allografts

A

Usually polyomavirus
Latent infection with polyomavirus is widespread in the general population and immunosuppression of the allograft recipient can lead to reactivation of latent infection and the development of nephropathy resulting in allograft failure in up to 5% of kidney transplant recipients

267
Q

What is the 5-year survival for serous carcinoma of the ovary

A

The 5yr survival of serous carcinoma that is confined to the ovary is 70% however once it has spread to the peritoneum this becomes 25%

268
Q

List some of the short-term complications of sepsis

A

High risk:
Renal dysfunction
Hypotension

Medium risk:
ARDS
Myocardial dysfunction and failure
Multiple organ failure

Low risk:
Hepatic encephalopathy
DIC

269
Q

Dense deposit disease (T2 MPGN) typically affects which age group

A

Primarily children and YAs

270
Q

Which proportion of serous ovarian tumours are benign

A

Of the serous ovarian tumours 70% will be benign and borderline and 30% will be carcinomas

271
Q

Which type of cyst can lead to increased oestrogen production

A

Follicular

If lutenisation occurs in the outer theca cells

272
Q

Which functional disorders can cause urinary tract obstruction

A

Either those are neurogenic - due to spinal chord damage or diabetic nephropathy
Or due to other functional abnormalities of the ureter or bladder

273
Q

What can cause RPGN

A

May be a manifestation of renal or systemic disease

No single mechanism can explain all cases however, most cases have immunologically mediated glomerular injury

274
Q

AKI related to sepsis is more common in which groups

A

It is more common in ICU and elderly

This accounts for 50% of ICU AKI cases.

275
Q

Describe the normal structure and histology of the kidneys

A

Have a central glomerulus surrounded by Bowman’s capsule

Both PCT and DCT have cuboidal epithelium but PCT has taller cells with microvillae so appear more pink on histology

276
Q

Superantigens have what effect on the body

A

They have been linked to the severe effects of bacterial infections, such as toxic shock syndrome

The shock state that these antigens induce is ultimately caused by a massive T cell proliferation and cytokine release (or cytokine storm)

277
Q

List the main subtypes of glomerulonephritis caused by proliferative glomerular injury

A

Acute proliferative - includes post-infectious (post-strep) and infection associated

Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN (RPGN) - includes anti-GBM antibody mediated, immune complex deposition and Pauci-immune crescentic GN

278
Q

Where is ADH secreted from

A

Posterior pituitary

279
Q

List potential complications of pyonephrosis

A

Urosepsis and septic shock
Kidney rupture resulting in peritonitis and death
Irreversible kidney damage
Fistula formation -renocolic, renocutanous and renoduodenal

280
Q

List potential complications of hysterectomy in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A
Anaesthetic complications
Bleeding
Ureter, bladder or bowel damage
Infection
DVT
Vaginal problems
281
Q

Which symptoms are seen in post-renal AKI

A

urinary obstruction, flank pain, haematuria

282
Q

Which type of ovarian cyst is always present in pregnancy

A

Luteal

They normally resolve after the first trimester

283
Q

In hydronephrosis you get increased pressure within the renal pelvis, what effects does this have

A

It is transmitted through the collecting ducts into the cortex which will result in renal atrophy

It will also compress the renal vasculature in the medulla which reduces the inner medullary blood flow
These effects are reversible to begin with but eventually will progress to cause medullary functional disturbances

284
Q

What are the histological characteristics of minimal change disease

A

Characterised by diffuse effacement of foot processes podocytes, detectable only by electron microscopy, in glomeruli that appear normal by light microscopy

Absence of immune deposits in glomerulus .

285
Q

What is the latency period between between infection and nephritis onset in post-infectious cases of GN and why does this occur

A

Latency period of around 1-4 weeks
e.g. symptoms appear 1-4 weeks after the infection itself

This is due to time required to produce antibodies and form immune complexes

286
Q

Intrarenal reflux is most common in which part of the kidney

A

The upper and lower poles of the kidney

287
Q

The genetic alterations that are seen in ovarian endometrioid carcinoma are similar to ones seen in endometrial endometrioid carcinoma - true or false

A

True

288
Q

Renal veins are posterior to renal arteries in hilum - true or false

A

False

Renal veins are anterior to renal arteries in hilum

289
Q

Serous ovarian tumours typically affect which age group

A

The benign and borderline tumours are most common between the ages of 20-45 but the carcinomas tend to occur at older ages ( unless familial)

290
Q

Which symptoms of AKI are suggestive of ATN

A

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) should be suspected in any patient presenting after a period of hypotension secondary to cardiac arrest, haemorrhage, sepsis, drug overdose, or surgery.

291
Q

What morphological changes are seen in advanced stage urinary tract obstruction

A

They kidney can become a cystic structure with thin walls and can have a diameter up to 15-20cm.
There will also be severe parenchymal atrophy
The pyramids will be totally obliterated and the cortex will be thinned

292
Q

How does membranous nephropathy present on electron microscopy

A

Electron-dense deposits between the BM and epithelial cells with effacement of podocyte foot processes

BM material is laid down between these deposits forming irregular spikes protruding from GBM

Spikes thicken into dome-like protrusions; eventually, close over the immune deposits + bury them within a markedly thickened, irregular membrane

293
Q

How are the microscopic features of UTI analysed

A

A “colony count” performed using a calibrated loop, with 0.001 mL of the urine sample plated onto culture media & incubated
Various tests can be performed to identify the causative organism

294
Q

How does papillary necrosis (following acute pyelonephritis) present

A

The tips or distal 2/3 of the pyramids have areas of gray-white to yellow necrosis
Necrotic tissue shows characteristic ischemic coagulative necrosis, with preservation of outlines of tubules on microscopic examination

295
Q

What is the purpose of the fenestrations and filtration slits in the capillary epithelium/endothelium

A

Makes it permeable to water and small solutes

The slit diaphragm -> acts assize-selective distal diffusion barrier to filtered proteins.

296
Q

The collecting duct is not part of the nephron - true or false

A

True

297
Q

How may a symptomatic ovarian cyst present

A

Pain – usually a unilateral pain that if felt low in the abdomen. It can either be intermitted or constant and it can also be either sharp or dull
Menstrual Changes – menstrual cycles can become irregular and abnormal vaginal bleeding can occur
Women may present with a feeling of fullness/pressure/ heaviness in the abdomen
Abdominal bloating may occur

298
Q

What causes the HTN in nephritic syndrome

A

It is probably the result of both the fluid retention and renin release from the ischaemic kidneys

299
Q

How does toxic injury cause a decreased urine output in AKI

A

Contributes to tubular injury
This causes tubular back leak which reduced urine output
It also leads to sloughing of cells > obstruction > decreased output

300
Q

What is the glomerulus

A

A tuft of capillaries in the nephron

301
Q

What is pyelonephritis

A

Inflammation affecting the tubules

302
Q

Extrinsic obstruction to the renal/urinary tract is more likely to cause a bilateral obstruction than intrinsic - true or false

A

True

More likely to be bilateral and lower in tract

303
Q

What causes AKI in sepsis cases

A

The underlying cause of AKI in sepsis is not completely understood.

It is likely multi-factorial and includes hemodynamic changes within the kidney, endothelial dysfunction, infiltration of inflammatory cells, intraglomerular thrombosis, and obstruction of tubules with necrotic cells and debris.

Arterial vasodilation with an associated decrease in SVR is a hallmark of sepsis, and until recently, it was believed that sepsis-induced AKI was mainly due to hypoperfusion of kidneys.

However, recent studies have shown that RBF is typically normal or increased in these cases.

304
Q

What treatment is common to all cases of AKI

A

management of fluid balance, hyperkalaemia and acidosis.
Mainly want to restore renal blood flow - restore blood volume, remove obstructions.
May also need to correct blood abnormalities (e.g., anaemia, uremic platelet dysfunction) with measures such as transfusions and administration of desmopressin.
stop any nephrotoxic drugs (NSAIDs, ACEi etc), check dosages are suitable for renal impairment

305
Q

Describe the microscopic features of mucinous carcinomas of the ovary

A

Characteristically demonstrate glandular growth that is confluent - flows together
This is not recognised as a form of ‘expansile’ invasion

306
Q

what is the most common underlying mechanism of AKI

A

Acute tubular necrosis

Responsible for 50% of cases in hospitalized patients

307
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for UTI

A

Presence of a catheter

80% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheterization

308
Q

Urinary tract obstruction can be extrinsic or intrinsic - true or false

A

True

Can either caused by something extrinsic causing compression or by an intrinsic lesion in the urinary tract

309
Q

Acute pyelonephritis is more common in adults of which sex

A

Women

310
Q

What are the main complications of laparoscopy/ laparotomy to remove an ovarian cyst

A
Infection
Bleeding
Cyst recurrence
Infertility - if both ovaries have to be removed
Thrombosis
Damage to surrounding organs 
Anaesthetic complications
311
Q

Damage to endothelial or mesangial cells leads to what clinical picture

A

A proliferative lesion + red cells in urine.

312
Q

How do you diagnose a urine infection

A

Established by quantitative urine culture

313
Q

Low grade serous carcinoma arises in association with which lesions

A

Borderline serous tumours

314
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of bladder papillomas and PUNLMP

A

Small finger-like protrusions which may be indistinguishable from papillary carcinomas at cytoscopy

315
Q

What is the most common histological presentation of Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN

A

The presence of crescents in most of the glomeruli

316
Q

How does minimal change disease present

A

Massive proteinuria
However, renal function remains good
Often no HTN or haematuria
Disease sometimes follows a respiratory infection or routine prophylactic immunisation

Relatively benign condition

317
Q

What is urosepsis

A

Urosepsis is just the development of sepsis from a UTI

318
Q

How do angiomyolipomas present

A

Most are asymptomatic and found incidentally, but may present as fatal spontaneous retroperitoneal haemorrhage

319
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian cyst

A

Most ovarian cysts are functional cysts ( Follicular and Luteal) and other forms of cysts are much less common

320
Q

What are the pros and cons of the kidneys being near the ribs

A

The ribs offer some protection to the kidneys against penetrating trauma
“floating” ribs 11 and 12 are posteriorly related to the kidneys

However, if the ribs fracture the sharp displaced ends may bruise or lacerate the kidney.

321
Q

Which organism is the most common cause of UTI

A

E. coli

70-95% of both upper and lower UTIs

322
Q

List common clinical features of pyelonephritis

A

Fever
Tachycardia
Flank pain/costovertebral angle tenderness
Abdominal tenderness in suprapubic area
Often indications of bladder & urethral irritation e.g. dysuria, frequency and urgency

323
Q

Describe the epidemiology of PCOS

A

It is a common condition effecting 6-10% of women of a reproductive age worldwide

324
Q

Type one MPGN can be treated with steroids and immunosuppressants - true or false

A

False

Treatment with steroids, immunosuppressives, and antiplatelets have no proven benefit

325
Q

How can intrarenal reflux be diagnosed

A

It can be demonstrated by voiding cystourethrography, in which the bladder is filled with a radiopaque dye and images are taken during micturition

326
Q

How do you diagnose bladder cancer

A

Cystoscopy is gold standard for papillary tumours
CIS and invasive carcinomas may be more difficult to identify via cystoscopy – endoscopic resection may be an option here

Urine cytology can be a useful diagnostic tool, w/ up to 90% sensitivity

327
Q

Membranous nephropathy can be associated with which other conditions (i.e. what are the secondary causes)

A

Underlying malignant tumours – esp. carcinoma of lung & colon
SLE
Infections (chronic hep B, hep C, syphilis, schistosomiasis, malaria)
Other autoimmune disorders e.g., thyroiditis.
Drugs (penicillamine, captopril, gold, NSAIDs)

328
Q

What is the characteristic clinical feature of minimal change disease

A

A dramatic response to corticosteroid therapy.

329
Q

How can the kidneys be used to identify someone at autopsy

A

Anatomical variation in the renal system can be used to identify someone if their abnormality is known
A solitary kidney might suggest agenesis or nephrectomy (pathology or donation).
A bifid renal pelvis is seen in 1 in 10 people and a bifid ureter and unilateral duplicated ureter can be seen in 1:25

330
Q

Describe the clinical course of acute pyelonephritis in the presence of unrelieved urinary obstruction, diabetes mellitus, or immunodeficiency

A

Acute pyelonephritis may be more serious and can lead to repeated septicemic episodes

331
Q

Secondary MPGN arises in which clinical settings

A

Chronic immune complex disorders (SLE, HBV, HCV, cryoglobulinemia, endocarditis, infected ventriculo-atrial shunts, chronic visceral abscesses, HIB, schistosomiasis.

Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

Malignant diseases, esp. lymphoid tumours such as CLL which are commonly complicated by autoantibody development.

332
Q

How does cell-mediated injury occur in glomerulonephritis

A

Activation of alterative complement pathway.

Essentially, patients have persistent C3 activation and hypo-complementaemia

333
Q

List the different terms used to classify urinary tract obstruction

A

sudden or insidious
partial or complete
unilateral or bilateral

334
Q

What is the function of the loop of Henle

A

Creates a hyperosmotic environment in the medulla

335
Q

How is sepsis identified

A

Identified by the NEWS score or SOFA/qSOFA criteria

SOFA = Sepsis-related Organ Failure Assessment

336
Q

List symptoms of renal cell carcinoma

A

Often associated with systemic symptoms at presentation– fever, malaise, weight loss, weakness

Classic features are haematuria, costovertebral pain and palpable mass

All three are only seen in around 10%

337
Q

Describe the normal histology of the prostate

A

Composed of roughly equal parts glands and fibromuscular stroma.
Concretions are normal and appear with increasing age

338
Q

In type 1 membranoproliferative GN what are the deposits made of

A

Deposits made of immune complexes containing IgG and complement.

339
Q

Mucinous carcinomas of the ovary rarely involve the surface of the ovary - true or false

A

True

340
Q

How common are mucinous ovarian tumours

A

Collectively this group of tumours make up 20-25% of all ovarian tumours

Primary ovarian mucinous carcinoma is uncommon and only accounts for 3% of all ovarian cancers - most are instead benign

341
Q

How common is bladder cancer

A

Ninth most common cancer worldwide

Incidence in the EU of around 20/ 100,000/ year

342
Q

What are the two main forms of pyelonephritis

A

Acute and Chronic

343
Q

What causes post-infectious GN

A

Exogenous antigens

Most commonly from a strep infection

344
Q

Describe the pathological features of luteal cysts

A

A layer of bright yellow tissue that contains luteinized granulosa cells will line the rim of these cysts
It is common that they rupture which will then cause a peritoneal reaction
They may have old haemorrhage and fibrosis within them which makes it difficult to differentiate them from endometriomas

345
Q

Renal cell carcinoma is more prevalent in which sex

A

Men

Male:female ratio is approx. 2:1

346
Q

What is sepsis

A

Sepsis is defined as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection

Basically, it’s the body having a massive overreaction to infection

347
Q

Sepsis is more common in which sex

A

Males

348
Q

What is the precursor lesion to prostatic carcinoma

A

Prostatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PIN)

Can be a significant predictor of the development of prostatic cancer, but this exact process has yet to be determined

349
Q

List the features of nephritic syndrome

A
Acute renal failure
Oliguria
Mild-mod proteinuria ± oedema 
HTN
Active urinary sediment (RBCs, red cell + granular casts)
350
Q

Which mutations are seen in high grade serous carcinoma

A

A high frequency of TP53 mutations are seen in high grade serous carcinomas.

These tumours also lack either KRAS or BRAF mutations.

It is also common to see genomic imbalances in these tumours which may include amplifications of a number of oncogenes and deletions of tumour suppressor genes

351
Q

List the potential complications of renal replacement therapy

A

RRT comes with the risk of catheter insertion, procedural hypotension, bleeding (raised by use of anticoagulants) and many more

352
Q

By the time of presentation however the high grade serous carcinomas of the ovaries tends to have metastasised - true or false

A

True

Will usually have metastasized widely throughout the abdomen and causes rapid clinical deterioration

353
Q

Why are tubular epithelial cells so vulnerable to ischaemia and toxins

A

large surface area, presence of active transport systems for ions and acids, high metabolism rate, high O2 consumption and the capability to resorb and concentrate toxins

all vital for their usual function of resorption but make them vulnerable

354
Q

Most ovarian cysts will require some form of management - true or false

A

False

Most resolve themselves within a few months

355
Q

Which physical findings of UTI may be seen in males

A

Scrotal hematoma, hydrocele, masses or tenderness
Meatal discharge
Prostatic tenderness
Inguinal adenopathy

356
Q

What can cause streptococcal (group A) toxic shock syndrome

A

Deep seated infections
Necrotising fasciitis
Surgical operation sites
Puerperal sepsis

357
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

A

Minimal change disease

358
Q

List the different classifications of FSGS

A

1 = Primary (idiopathic)

2 = Cases associated with other conditions e.g., HIV infection, heroin addiction, sickle cell, morbid obesity.

3= Secondary event reflecting scarring of previous active necrotising lesions (IgA nephropathy).

4 = Part of adaptive response to loss of renal tissue (congenital or acquired) or in advanced stages of other renal disorders.

5 = Uncommon inherited forms of nephrotic syndrome due to mutations in proteins found in slit diaphragm

359
Q

Describe vesicoureteral reflux and how it causes pyelonephritis

A

Incompetence of vesicoureteral valve allows reflux of bladder urine into ureters
This allows bacteria to ascend the ureter into the renal pelvis

360
Q

Describe the macroscopic and microscopic features of renal papillary adenomas

A

They are <15 mm discrete lesions arising from tubular epithelium
Histologically similar to low-grade RCC

361
Q

Describe the classic pattern of ovarian cancer spread

A

First they seed into the peritoneum after breaking through their capsule
The serosa of the peritoneum becomes seeded with 0.1-0.5cm tumour nodules that do not, in most cases, invade deeply into the underlying parenchyma
After the peritoneum has been affected by the tumour ascites discussed will form

Metastasis will also travel to the regional lymph nodes, lungs, liver, Gi tract and elsewhere
Half of ovarian carcinomas will also spread to the other ovary.

362
Q

List risk factors for bladder cancers

A

Tobacco smoking – Associated w/ 50-80% of bladder cancers in men

Workplace exposure – Aryl amines in rubber and dye industries, aromatic hydrocarbons in mining

Pelvic radiation and chemotherapy, particularly in relation to prostate cancer

363
Q

Describe the appearance of FSGS as it progresses

A

An increased no. of glomeruli will be involved,
The sclerosis spreads within each glomerulus until there is total (global) sclerosis of glomeruli, with pronounced tubular atrophy + interstitial fibrosis

364
Q

Describe the structure of the renal medulla

A

It is divided into pyramids (8-18/kidney) with apices pointing toward the hilum (papillae), ending on minor calyces
Each pyramid contains ~50,000 nephrons running axially towards the apex of each pyramid - looks striped
The stripes are called medullary rays and are composed of collecting ducts and straight segments of proximal and distal tubules

365
Q

The superantigen response is much less specific than a normal antigen-specific immune response - true or false

A

True

They are not processed by the immune system as normal antigens are

366
Q

List some of the complications of urinary tract obstruction

A

Obstruction increases risk of urinary tract infection and stone formation

If an obstruction is not fixed it will almost always result in permanent renal atrophy which is given the name hydronephrosis

An interstitial inflammatory reaction can also be caused by an obstruction which will eventually lead to interstitial fibrosis

367
Q

The superimposition of papillary necrosis in cases of acute pyelonephritis can have what outcome

A

May lead to acute renal failure and then death

368
Q

More than 50% of renal masses are identified incidentally - true or false

A

True

369
Q

List the layers of the glomerular capillary wall

A

A thin layer of fenestrated endothelium
A GBM
The visceral epithelium (podocytes)
The entire glomerular tuft supported by mesangium.

370
Q

When would an ovarian cyst be removed surgically

A

If it is large, symptomatic, persistent or there is concerns it either may become or already is cancerous

371
Q

Why do you check U&Es in a septic patient

A

To evaluate the patient forrenal dysfunction-

Patients with acute kidney injury due to sepsis have a worse prognosis than those with non-septic acute kidney injury.

Determines whether the patient would benefit fromhaemofiltration or intermittent haemodialysis

372
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of high-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma

A

Nuclei may be hyperchromatic with prominent nucleoli

Cells will be dyscohesive with architectural disruption

373
Q

List potential treatment options for pre-renal AKI

A

Correct the volume depletion and/or increase renal perfusion by circulatory or cardiac support
Treat hypovolaemia if present with fluid bolus (renal perfusion will improve as volume is replaced)

374
Q

Describe the infectious complications of AKI

A

33% will develop infections, mostly pulmonary and urinary.

Infectious complications may have mortality of 11-72%.

375
Q

What is the normal prognosis for an ovarian cysts

A

Most ovarian cysts are benign and will resolve spontaneously resulting in a very good prognosis and no requirement for surgical intervention
70-80% of functional cysts resolve spontaneously

However, if they malignantly transform (only occurs in certain types) the prognosis is poor as ovarian cancer presents late

376
Q

List potential complications of acute pyelonephritis

A

Papillary necrosis – usually bilateral
Pyonephrosis
Perinephric abscess

377
Q

What are three sub-groups of crescentic GN (RPGN)

A

Anti GBM antibody mediated - 1/5
Immune complex deposition - 1/4
Pauci-immune crescentic GN - the rest

378
Q

Sepsis is very prevalent - true or false

A

True

379
Q

Which types of renal dysfunction are common in septic patients

A

Transient oliguria (small output) is common - due to hypotension
Rarely, anuria occurs
AKI relatively common

380
Q

Normal glomeruli are permeable to which molecules

A

highly permeable to water and small solutes - due to fenestrations

impermeable to proteins of the size of albumin or larger

381
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of clear cell carcinoma in relation to the VHL genne

A

In 98% of clear cell carcinomas, there is loss of sequencing in the area of chromosome 3 which encodes the VHL gene (acts as tumour suppressor)

VHL protein is part of a ubiquitin ligase targeting HIF-1, a transcription factor which promotes expression of genes that trigger angiogenesis and cell growth

VHL gene becomes inactive which leads to high levels of HIF-1
This causes inappropriate expression of angiogenic and oncogenic genes which leads to tumour formation

382
Q

Brenner tumours are usually an incidental finding in the ovary - true or false

A

True

Even if it is a large carcinoma they tend to behave in a benign way

383
Q

Describe type 1 endometriomas

A

Type 1 are primary endometriomas.

They are small and develop from surface endometrial implants

384
Q

What is the characteristic histological feature of collapsing glomerulopathy

A

Retraction and collapse of the entire glomerular tuft with or without additional FSGS lesions

Proliferation + hypertrophy of glomerular visceral epithelial cells is another characteristic

385
Q

PSA can be used to diagnose prostate cancer - true or false

A

False - ish
It can be useful where there is high clinical suspicion but has limited use as a screening tool as sensitivity and specificity are suboptimal

386
Q

List clinical differences between minimal change disease and FSGS

A

FSGS has a higher incidence of haematuria, reduced GFR, and HTN

Proteinuria is more often non-selective in FSGS

FSGS has a poor response to corticosteroid therapy;

There is progression to CKD in FSGS with at least 50% developing ESRD in 10yrs.

387
Q

List different types of renal cancer

A
Renal cell carcinoma 
Rare ones: 
Papillary carcinomas
Chromophobe renal carcinomas 
Collecting duct carcinomas
388
Q

List potential treatment options for post-renal AKI

A

may need catheterisation, nephrostomy or urological intervention

389
Q

What are the characteristics of the sclerosis seen in glomerular injury

A

Characterised by deposition of extracellular collagenous matrix.
May be confined to mesangial areas, involve the capillary loops, or both.
May also result in obliteration of some or all of the capillary lumens in affected glomeruli.

390
Q

List the characteristic features of FSGS

A

Degeneration & focal disruption of podocytes with foot process effacement

391
Q

List the features of post-strep GN

A

Pyogenic exotoxin B (SpeB) = principal antigenic determinant in most cases of post-strep GN.

Elevated antibody titres against 1 or more strep antigens is seen in majority of patients.

Serum complement levels are low - reflects activation of complement system + consumption of its components

392
Q

List the potential complications of AKI treatment

A

Fluid overload - monitor fluid levels

Correction of acidosis with sodium bicarbonate can generate CO2 so ventilation may be required
Also comes with Na+ and a volume load which can precipitate fluid overload in vulnerable patients

Risks of RRT

393
Q

Cystadenofibromas can form borderline tumours in the ovary - true or false

A

True

They can form borderline tumours with nuclear atypia

394
Q

What are the initial morphological changes seen in urinary tract obstruction

A

The first features that are seen are simple dilatation of the pelvis and calyces.
There often is also significant interstitial inflammation even if no infection is present

395
Q

What causes serous inclusion cysts of the ovary

A

The cause is unknown but may either arise due to invagination of the surface epithelium of the ovary followed by serous metaplasia or because of implantation of detached fallopian tube epithelium at areas where the ovaries surface has been disrupted by ovulation

396
Q

Why are UTIs more common in females

A

Females have a shorter urethra
They lack the antibacterial properties in prostatic fluid
Hormonal changes affect bacterial adherence to the mucosa
Urethral trauma during sexual intercourse

397
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of pyon ephrosis

A

Normally bacteria are cleared from the bladder due to voiding and antibacterial mechanisms.

If there is obstruction however incomplete bladder emptying occurs and residual urine is left where bacteria can multiply leading to infection which can effect the kidney - pyelonephritis

The pyelonephritis can then progress onto a pyonephrosis
Perirenal abscesses can then subsequently form

398
Q

What happens to the injured tubular cells in ATN

A

With time they detach from the basement membrane and form casts which cause luminal obstruction, increased pressure within the tubules and a further decrease in GFR

399
Q

What happens if RPGN is left untreated

A

Patients will die from renal failure within weeks to months

400
Q

What are the most common sites of infection in sepsis cases

A

Lungs: 64%
Abdomen: 20%
Bloodstream: 15%
Renal or genitourinary tract: 14%

401
Q

How does FSGS present on electron microscopy

A

Both sclerotic and non-Sclerotic areas show diffuse effacement of foot processes (resembling MCD)
May also be focal detachment of epithelial cells & denudation of the underlying GBM

402
Q

How is radiotherapy used in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A

It is not often used in the management but can be used adjuvantly in early stage cancer or palliatively

403
Q

When might fluid resuscitation be required in acute pyelonephritis cases

A

Fluid resuscitation is important if blood pressure is unstable or if the patient is very old

404
Q

Which medical interventions increase the risk of UUTI

A

Catheterisation
Routine pelvic examinations - an increased risk of a UTI for 7 weeks post procedure
Renal transplantation - High susceptibility in the first 2 months following transplantation

405
Q

What is Membrano-proliferative GN

A

Considered a pattern of immune-mediated injury rather than a specific disease

406
Q

How can acute pyelonephritis recur

A

Bacteria may persist in the urine or there may be recurrence of infection with new serologic types of E. coli or other organisms
This infection can either disappear or may persist, sometimes for years

407
Q

What are the 3 different forms of ovarian carcinoma

A

Serous, mucinous and endometroid carcinomas

Within each of these three groups it is also possible to get benign and borderline tumours

408
Q

Describe the natural history and progression of urothelial bladder cancer

A

Most patients present with low-grade, non-invasive bladder cancers
These have a high risk of recurrence but low risk for disease progression and death

Once invasion has occurred, overall survival drops to around 50%

Up to a quarter of high risk patients will develop urothelial carcinoma of the prostate, which has >40% mortality rate

409
Q

What is Bowman’s capsule

A

A cusp of simple squamous where the capillaries of the glomerulus invaginate into

410
Q

Why might you need an amputation following sepsis

A

Sepsis can cause blood clots leading to limb ischaemia and amputation’s

411
Q

How do podocytes respond to injury

A

They atrophy

Loss of size/charge specific barrier

412
Q

Local invasion from prostate cancer typically affects which areas

A

The seminal vesicles, periprostatic tissues and base of the bladder

413
Q

What’s the prognosis if ovarian cancer spreads’ to the second ovary

A

If this occurs most patients will only survive for a few months to a few years

414
Q

Should you be concerned if an AKI patient’s creatine levels don’t drop in the first 24hrs of treatment

A

Not necessarily

Creatine will lag 24hrs behind the clinical response so give it time to drop

415
Q

Which organ signs are sometimes used to identify sepsis at autopsy

A

Historical ‘diffluent’ or ‘septic’ spleen i- however this s a debatable gross entity so not used

‘Shock lung’ and ‘acute tubular necrosis’ are difficult to diagnose on gross examination alone

416
Q

What are the primary causes of pyelonephritis in older men

A

Prostate enlargement along with delayed presentation

417
Q

Thrombocytopenia may occur in patients who are severely ill with sepsis - true or false

A

Will be of non-haemorrhagic origin
Persistent thrombocytopenia is associated with an increased risk of mortality.

Lymphocytopenia is increasingly recognised as a useful sign in a patient with sepsis.

418
Q

How does renal transplant increase risk of UTI

A

Triggering factors include vesicoureteral reflux and immunosuppression

419
Q

List organisms which commonly cause UTIs

A

E.colii
S. saprophyticus
Proteus species, Klebsiella species, Enterococcus faecalis, other Enterobacteriaceae and Yeast
Candida - usually albicans
Mycobacterial & fungal organisms induce caseating & non-caseating granulomatous inflammation

420
Q

Identifying prostate cancer by gross inspection alone can lead to false positives - true or false

A

True
They can be hard to accurately identify
Gross identification is only around 65% accurate with a 20% false positive rate

421
Q

How is chemotherapy used in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A

Most women will have chemotherapy as well as surgery
Chemotherapy is used both neoadjuvatly and adjuvantly and is used for recurrence
Most people will have 6 cycles lasting 3 weeks each
Radiotherapy

422
Q

Which gene is thought to be behind both familial and sporadic cases of clear cell carcioma

A

VHL gene

Acts as a tumour supressor

423
Q

List the features of Pauci-immune crescentic GN

A

Defined by a lack of detectable anti-GBM antibodies or immune complexes by IF & EM

Most patients have circulating ANCAs - c-ANCA or p-ANCA staining pattern (thought to be related to vasculitis or polyangiitis)

424
Q

Prognosis for patients with local or regional stage prostatic cancer at diagnosis is generally very good - true or false

A

True

Has an almost 100% 5-year survival rate in the US, but the treatment may cause significant morbidity

425
Q

What is the main cause of acute pyelonephritis in the first year of life

A

Congenital abnormalities

426
Q

Which part of the nephron is most vulnerable to necrosis

A

Straight portion of proximal tubule and ascending limb are very vulnerable
Proximal tubules most commonly affected by necrosis

427
Q

If there has been malignant change in a dermoid cyst or endometrioma the prognosis is poor - true or false

A

True

This due to the fact that ovarian cancer tends to present in advanced stages

428
Q

How does a reduced GFR manifest clinically

A

Oliguria
Fluid retention
Azotaemia - increased creatine and BUN

429
Q

What are the risks of developing AKI after sepsis

A

It increases mortality and can lead to multi-organ effects.

430
Q

Mucinous carcinomas of the ovary must be differentiated from which other cancer

A

Metastatic mucinous adenocarcinoma

Especially if they are bilateral as this is less common in the primary ovarian type

431
Q

What is pyonephrosis

A

The infection is termed pyonephrosis when there is a suppurative exudate that is unable to drain so has filled the renal pelvis, calyces and ureters
Occurs due to superimposed infection on top of urinary tract obstruction

432
Q

Bladder cancer is more common in which sex

A

Men

Male:female ratio is around 3:1

433
Q

What is thought to cause prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

The exact pathogenesis is unknown
Thought to be a combination of inherited genetic factors, exposure to external carcinogens, and mutations within the androgen receptor gene

434
Q

In type 2 membranoproliferative GN what are the deposits made of

A

Deposits made of unknown material

435
Q

List the histological characteristics of membranoproliferative GN

A
Shows alterations in GBM
Accumulation of mesangial matrix
Proliferation of glomerular cells
Leukocytic infiltration 
Deposits in mesangial regions and glomerular capillary walls. 
Crescents are present in many cases
436
Q

What can cause vesicoureteral reflux

A

Most often due to a congenital absence or shortening of the intravesical portion of the ureter, such that the ureter is not compressed during micturition

It can be acquired from the infection itself or from persistent bladder atony caused by spinal cord injury

437
Q

Biopsy in FSGS may miss the diagnosis - true or false

A

True
Focal and segmental lesions may involve only a minority of the glomeruli and therefore if a biopsy specimen doesn’t contain enough glomeruli, it can be missed

438
Q

What are the 2 routes by which bacteria can reach the kidneys

A

Through the bloodstream (hematogenous infection) - less common

From the lower urinary tract (ascending infection) - more common

439
Q

Why is it hard to identify sepsis at autopsy

A

There are no specific morbid anatomical features of ‘septicaemia’
The interpretation of pre-mortem, let alone post-mortem, blood cultures is not easy
There are no standard histopathological features that reliably point to ‘septicaemia’
There is no agreed case definition of ‘septicaemia’. It is more logical to consider ‘sepsis’: its local origins, systemic consequences and degrees of severity

440
Q

The majority of angiomyolipomas occur spontaneously - true or false

A

True

Spontaneous in 80% of cases

441
Q

What is asymptomatic bacteriuria

A

Bacterial infections of the lower urinary tract that are asymptomatic

442
Q

IS ATN reversible

A

Yes

If detected and treated promptly

443
Q

Why is little known about the prevalence of sepsis

A

there is a lack of reliable sepsis incidence and prevalence data due to the absence of a consistent definition for sepsis and differences in coding practices amongst professionals and organisations and different countries.

444
Q

How can prostate cancer be managed

A

Radiotherapy can be given via external-beam or brachytherapy (a small radioactive source is implanted into the prostate)

Androgen deprivation therapy is increasingly being used at many grades

Radical prostatectomy +/- pelvic lymph node dissection is the first line treatment for high-risk disease, almost always in combination with radiotherapy

445
Q

Foot process effacement is only a feature of minimal change disease - true or false

A

False

It is also seen in other protein-uric states such as membranous nephropathy and diabetic nephropathy

446
Q

The symptoms of ovarian cancer tend to present early - true or false

A

False
Unfortunately they tend not to occur until later stages of disease meaning women don’t present until later stages of the disease

447
Q

List treatment options for ovarian carcinoma

A

Surgery
Chemo
Radiotherapy
Targeted therapy

448
Q

Ovarian endometriomas occur in which condition

A

They occur in endometriosis due to ectopic growth of endometrial tissue

449
Q

List the characteristics of PCOS

A

Menstrual abnormalities
Decreased fertility
Chronic anovulation
Polycystic ovaries Hyperandrogenism.

450
Q

List the potential outcomes of AKI

A

One outcome is that cells are repaired and function returns.
May see very mild renal impairment for some time after but most will recover with time.

However, those surviving severe AKI often have a worse health related QoL (worse with age and renal function).
May be left with impaired kidney function, CKD or requiring dialysis.

451
Q

What glomerular changes may be seen in chronic pyelonephritis

A

Glomeruli may appear normal except for a variety of ischemic changes, including periglomerular fibrosis, fibrous obliteration and secondary changes related to hypertension

452
Q

Which immune complexes, formed in situ, can lead to glomerulonephritis

A

Intrinsic tissue antigens, e.g., NCI domain of type IV collagen, PLA2R antigen, mesangial antigens, others.

Extrinsic antigens, including DNA/nucleosomes/other nuclear proteins, bacterial products, large aggregated proteins, and immunoglobulins themselves

453
Q

What can determine the causative organism in sepsis

A

Causative agents vary significantly with region, hospital size, season and type of unit

454
Q

What causes collapsing glomerulopathy

A

It is idiopathic but it has been associated with some drug toxicities (pamidronate) and it is the most characteristic lesion of HIV-associated nephropathy

455
Q

How do men present with pyelonephritis

A

They appear ill and may have hypotension
Also have the fever, chills, flank pain/costovertebral angle tenderness that follow the symptoms of UTI
May also find prostate enlargement in older males with pyelonephritis

Combined with findings of pyuria and bacteriuria

456
Q

What can cause intrarenal reflux

A

Vesicoureteral reflux also affords a mechanism to propel infected bladder urine up to the renal pelvis and deep into the renal parenchyma through open ducts at the tips of the papillae

457
Q

How can diabetes cause acute pyelonephritis

A

Increases susceptibility to infection
Causes neurogenic bladder dysfunction
Undergo more frequent instrumentation

458
Q

List the potential outcomes of a UTI

A

Minor, uncomplicated ones resolve on their own w/o the help of antibiotics

A more severe bladder infection left untreated can spread to kidneys and cause permanent damage

459
Q

What is the function of the renal corpuscle

A

Production and collection of glomerular filtrate.

460
Q

Which types of glomerulonephritis present with nephritic syndrome

A

Classic presentation of acute post-streptococcal GN

RPGN

461
Q

Describe the recovery phase of AKI

A

Increase in urine output (up to 3L per day) as the damaged tubules lose a lot of water, sodium and K+ via the urine.
For some reason patients become vulnerable to infection in this stage .
With time, tubular function restored, and urine concentration returns to normal.
BUN and creatine return to normal

462
Q

The symptoms will be the same across the different forms of ovarian carcinoma - true or false

A

True

463
Q

Describe the pathological features of an ovarian dermoid cyst

A

They usually appear complex

They have a variety of appearances due to the different tissue types that can arise within them

464
Q

What is meant by the term septicaemia

A

Usually implies that there was bacteraemia associated with one or more organ failures
Often used by pathologists as the final process causing death

465
Q

What supports the glomerular tuft

A

The mesangium

A meshwork that mesangial cells are embedded in

466
Q

Describe the appearance of oncocytomas

A

Well-circumscribed epithelial lesion made up of eosinophilic cells thought to arise from DCT

467
Q

Most causes of urinary tract obstruction can be resolved either with surgery or medical management - true or false

A

True

468
Q

Most ovarian cysts will not be fatal - true or false

A

True

469
Q

Correction of volume depletion and hypotension generally reverses oliguria in sepsis - true or false

A

True

470
Q

Describe how antibodies directed against normal components of the GBM lead to glomerulonephritis

A

You can get anti-GBM antibodies which bind to intrinsic antigens homogenously distributed along the entire length of the GBM
Causes a diffuse linear pattern of staining for the antibodies by IF techniques

Causes <5% of cases of human GN but is the cause of severe necrotising crescentic glomerular damage + clinical syndrome of RPGN

471
Q

Describe the structure of solid clear cell carcinomas of the ovary

A

If they are predominantly solid the clear cells will be arranged in sheets or tubules

472
Q

List risk factors for renal cell carcinoma

A

Tobacco smoking – smokers have 2x incidence of RCC
Obesity
HTN
Pre-existing renal disease, particularly CKD and some cystic disease
A strong family history of renal cancer – some autosomal dominant syndromes, particularly VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome)

473
Q

How is sepsis typically diagnosed at autopsy

A

In most cases, microbiology is used to diagnose

474
Q

How would acute proliferative GN present on IF microscopy

A

Granular deposits of IgG and C3 (sometimes IgM) in the mesangium and along the GBM

475
Q

What is the function of the distal convoluted tubule

A

Creates acid-base and water balance

Absorption of water, Na+ and bicarbonate, excretion of K+ and H+

476
Q

What is the most common benign lesions of the ovary

A

Functional ovarian cysts

477
Q

What is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

478
Q

What is thought to cause Pauci-immune crescentic GN

A

Thought to be a manifestation of small-vessel vasculitis or polyangiitis, which is limited to the glomerular and (possibly) peritubular capillaries.

479
Q

List the parts of the nephron

A

Renal corpuscle
Proximal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule

480
Q

What causes hypovolaemia in sepsis

A

Vasodilation + increased capillary permeability result in low circulating volume
Hypovolaemia is compounded by reduced LV contractility

This results in hypotension

481
Q

How do you diagnose prostate cancer

A

Transrectal biopsy is needed to confirm diagnosis

482
Q

List the common symptoms of ovarian cancer

A

Abdominal pain and distension - most common symptoms
Pelvic pressure
Vaginal bleeding
Urinary and GI tract symptoms due to compression or invasion by the tumour - urinary symptoms can include frequency and dysuria
Feeling full quickly

Progressive weakness, weight loss and cachexia can also occur

483
Q

How do mesangial cells respond to injury

A

They proliferate

Releases angiotensin II, chemokines, attract inflammatory cells

484
Q

List clinical features of prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

Localised disease is often asymptomatic
May be found on digital rectal exam - abnormal nodules felt
Urinary obstruction - may present in more advanced disease
Elevated PSA

485
Q

What is the most common sites of infection in sepsis cases in those over 65

A

Genitourinary tract

486
Q

Describe the structure of a angiomyolipoma

A

Neoplasm comprised of vessels, fat and smooth muscle

487
Q

What is chronic pyelonephritis

A

A more complex condition that is a complication if UTIs

It can affect the bladder (cystitis), the kidneys and their collecting systems (pyelonephritis), or both

488
Q

Which operations may be used in the treatment of ovarian cancer

A

A hysterectomy, salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy can all be carried out together

If the women is premenopausal and the carcinoma is confined to one ovary or both then the aim will be to only remove the effected ovaries and leave the uterus in place so they can still carry a pregnancy

489
Q

How does immune complex mediated GN present in IF microscopy

A

granular deposits

490
Q

Describe the pathological features of an ovarian endometrioma

A

They contain thick, gelatinous, dark, aged blood products and are therefore referred to as chocolate cysts

491
Q

What form the renal corpuscle

A

The glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

492
Q

Which types of glomerular injury are caused by damage to podocytes and nephrotic syndrome

A

Overall causes non-proliferative glomerular injury which includes

Primary glomerular injuries such as: 
Membranous nephropathy 
Minimal change disease 
Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
Membrano-proliferative GN (MPGN)
IgA nephropathy

Also the cause in cases secondary to systemic diseases such as diabetes and SLE

493
Q

What are the morphological hallmarks of acute pyelonephritis

A

Patchy interstitial suppurative inflammation
Intratubular aggregates of neutrophils
Neutrophilic tubulitis
Tubular injury

494
Q

How can acute pyelonephritis lead to pyonephrosis

A

Seen in those with total or almost complete obstruction - particularly when it is high in the urinary tract
Suppurative exudate is unable to drain and fills the renal pelvis, calyces and ureter with pus

495
Q

What is the function of the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Reabsorption of water, proteins, amino acids, carbohydrates & glucose

496
Q

Sepsis is common in which patient groups

A

Those with cancer or underlying immunosuppression

497
Q

What is urosepsis

A

Sepsis caused by UTI

This can possibly lead to death

498
Q

What causes type 1 MPGN

A

Immune complexes in glomerular and activation of both classical + alternative complement pathways
Indicative of an immune complex pathogenesis.

499
Q

Sepsis is more common in which age groups

A

People over 65 years old are particularly susceptible

500
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

Can be difficult to identify Typically solid, white-grey lesion with gritty appearance
Poorly defined
Lesions may be easier to feel than see – will be gritty and firm compared to spongey feeling of normal prostatic tissue

501
Q

What is the other name for type 2 MPGN

A

Dense Deposit Disease

502
Q

What can the pattern of necrosis and casts in ATN tell you

A

Specific patterns are associated with each subtype - ischaemic and toxic
Tubular injury can have specific appearance in certain types of poisoning such as mercuric chloride or ethylene glycol

503
Q

What is the most common treatment regime used for ovarian cancer

A

Most cases are managed with a combination of chemotherapy and surgery
Surgery is the main treatment

504
Q

What is the main underlying cause of the symptoms of AKI

A

Electrolyte and fluid imbalances

505
Q

How do you treat hyperkalaemia

A

Calcium chloride or gluconate for cardio protection
Insulin to trigger K+ uptake
Salbutamol again for K+ shift
Definitive is K+ removal by treating the underlying cause, if not quick may require renal replacement

506
Q

What is acute proliferative glomerulonephritis

A

Cluster of diseases characterised histologically by diffuse proliferation of glomerular cells and associated with influx of leukocytes

Typically caused by immune complexes

507
Q

Describe the epidemiology of AKI

A

Occurs in up to 18% of hospital patients and around 50% of ICU patients.
Post-op AKI develops in around 1% of general surgery cases.
Around 21% of solitary kidney recipients will develop AKI within 6 months.
A study in Wales found the incidence to be 577 per 100,000 population.

508
Q

Describe the macroscopic appearance of serous ovarian carcinoma

A

Can either be a mass that project from the ovarian surface
OR
they can be a multicystic lesion where papillary epithelium is contained within fibrous walled cysts ( the latter being termed intracystic)

509
Q

What symptoms can be caused by uraemia

A

neurological symptoms such as lethargy, reversal of the sleep-wake cycle, cognitive and memory issues
nausea, vomiting and anorexia

510
Q

What is the prognosis for prostate cancer that has metastasized

A

survival rates drop to as low as 30%

511
Q

List the main tests run in a patient with suspected sepsis

A
Blood culture - before antibiotics
Serum lactate
Hourly urine output
Urea and electrolytes
Serum glucose 
Clotting screen 
Liver Function Tests 
C-reactive protein
Serum procalcitonin (new)
Blood gas
ECG
512
Q

What are the complications of transrectal biopsy for prostate cancer

A

Can lead to infection and a raised PSA

May not correctly identify malignancy due to small tissue samples

513
Q

How does dense deposit disease (T2 MPGN) present

A

Nephritic syndrome w/ haematuria ± nephrotic syndrome w/ proteinuria

Overlaps with that of MPGN

514
Q

What causes pre-renal AKI

A

Due to decreased perfusion or volume depletion

Hypovolaemia – haemorrhage, diarrhoea and vomiting, burns and pancreatitis
Decreased cardiac output - shock, MI, heart failure
Systemic vasodilation - sepsis, drugs
Renal vasoconstriction - NSAID, ACEi, ARB, hepatorenal syndrome

515
Q

What forms a lobe of the kidney

A

Each medullary pyramid + its associated cortical tissue

516
Q

What is the definition of anuria

A

less than 100ml of urine per day

517
Q

What causes follicular ovarian cysts

A

These occur either because the follicle has failed to rupture allowing ovulation or because the follicle has ruptured and then sealed immediately

518
Q

What is the median age of diagnosis for prostate cancer

A

66

519
Q

Which surgical techniques are used for ovarian cyst removal

A

Most are done laparoscopically but of the cyst is particularly large or there is chance that it is cancerous it will be removed via a laparotomy

520
Q

Which types of glomerulonephritis cause nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal change disease
Membranous nephropathy
FSGS.

521
Q

What morphological changes are seen in chronic urinary tract obstruction

A

Cortical tubular atrophy with marked diffuse interstitial fibrosis.
Following this you will see progressive blunting of the apices of the pyramids which ultimately results in the pyramids becoming cupped

522
Q

How common is prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

Seen in 20% of over 50s and 70% of over 70s

523
Q

Which areas of the renal pelvis are affected by urothelial cancer?

A

When in renal pelvis, may be confined to the calyces or may begin to invade renal parenchyma

524
Q

BRACA 1 or 2 mutations cause which type of ovarian carcinoma

A

It will almost always be a high grade serous carcinoma with TP53 mutations.

It is rare however to find BRACA 1 and 2 mutations in sporadic high grade serous carcinoma

525
Q

How does AKI present

A

A rapid decline in GFR, raised serum creatine and/or decreased urine output

526
Q

What causes acute pyelonephritis

A

Generally caused by bacterial infection
Associated with urinary tract infection
The infection can reach the kidney via hematogenous spread or through ureters in association with vesicoureteral reflux

527
Q

What is the most common form of primary ovarian neoplasm

A

Ovarian carcinoma

528
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic regime for acute pyelonephritis

A

Primary Care: Co-trimoxazole 960 mg bd or Co-amoxiclav 625mg tds (7 days)

Secondary Care: Amoxicillin IV 1g tds + Gentamicin IV (Total IV/PO 7 days)

If penicillin allergic: Co-trimoxazole IV 960mg bd + Gentamicin IV

Step down for all patients: Co-trimoxazole PO 960mg bd or as per sensitives

529
Q

Where are the kidneys found

A

Upper retroperitoneal area

Right lies slightly inferior (L1-L3) to left (T12-L2) due to the liver

530
Q

What are the most common malignant ovarian tumours

A

Serous carcinoma

531
Q

List the pathological features of ATN

A

Membrane proteins redistributed from the basolateral to luminal surface of the tubular epithelial cells.
Patchy necrosis throughout the tubules - seen at multiple sites along the tubule with large skip areas in between.
Get a loss of brush border, flattening of the cells due to dilatation, detachment of cells and cast formation.
May be associated with rupture of the basement membrane and occlusion of the tubular lumen by casts.
May also see interstitial oedema and accumulations of leukocytes within dilate vasa recta

532
Q

List the most common causes of urinary tract obstruction

A
Congenital anomalies
Urinary Calculi 
Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
Tumours 
 Sloughed papillae or blood clots 
Pregnancy 
Uterine Prolapse and Cystocele 
Functional Disorders
533
Q

What is PUNLMP

A

Papillary urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential

534
Q

What happens to glomerular filtrate in ATN

A

It can leak into the interstitium - due to disruption of the tight junctions between cells

This causes oedema, increased pressure and further tubular damage
This contributes to the overall decrease in GFR

535
Q

How would acute proliferative GN present on electron microscopy

A

Discrete, amorphous, electron-dense deposits on the epithelial side of the membrane, often having the appearance of “humps” - potentially Ag-Ab complexes at subepithelial cell surface
This is characteristic

Subendothelial deposits also commonly seen, typically early in disease course, and mesangial and intramembranous deposits may be present

536
Q

List bacteria that commonly cause pyonephrosis

A
Escherichia coli
Enterococcusspecies
Candidaspecies and other fungi
Enterobacterspecies
Klebsiellaspecies
Proteusspecies
Pseudomonasspecies
Bacteroidesspecies
Staphylococcusspecies
Salmonellaspecies
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
537
Q

What causes renal AKI

A

Intrinsic renal disease

Glomerular causes: glomerulonephritis and ATN (prolonged hypoperfusion causing intrinsic damage)

Interstitial causes: drug reactions, infections, infiltration from systemic diseases (e.g., sarcoidosis)

Vascular causes: renal artery or vein obstruction, vasculitis, HUS, TTP, DIC, transplant rejection

538
Q

How does BPH present

A

Urinary symptoms – both storing and voiding

539
Q

List risk factors for ovarian cysts

A

Infertility treatment
Tamoxifen therapy
Pregnancy – usually the cysts will form in the second trimester as this is when the HCG levels peak
Maternal Gonadotrophins – these lead to foetal ovarian cysts
Smoking
Tubal ligation – this leads to functional cysts
Endometriosis
Severe pelvic infection – if it spreads to the ovaries it can result in cyst formation
A previous ovarian cyst

540
Q

How do you treat sepsis

A

Begin treatment as soon as sepsis has been verified (NEWS2 of 5 or>5 in a patient with likely infection) by a senior clinician (ST3 or above)
Start the Sepsis 6 aka BUFALO

541
Q

What is the definition of oliguria

A

daily urine volume of less than 400mL

542
Q

Which mutations are seen in low grade serous carcinoma

A

Mutations in KRAS, BRAF and EGFR2 oncogenes along with wild type TP53 genes are found

543
Q

What determines the clinical course of sepsis

A

Depends on many factors like the type and resistance profile of infectious organism + the site and size of the infecting insult and the genetically determined or acquired properties of the host’s immune system

544
Q

Why do you get a retention of waste products in AKI

A

Waste products normally excreted by the kidney but due to lack/loss of function they build up instead

545
Q

What is the most common renal cancer

A

Renal cell carcinoma

Makes up 80-90%

546
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of low-grade papillary urothelial carcinoma

A

Orderly, cohesive cells w/ scattered nucleic changes and mitotic figures

547
Q

What causes nephrotoxic ATN

A

caused by drugs, radiocontrast, heavy metals, poisoning etc.

548
Q

Why is recovery from AKI thought to be possible

A

Because the necrosis is patchy and the basement membrane is usually maintained in other segments.
Therefore can be reversed if cause is removed/treated
cause is removed/treated Depends on the capacity of the injured epithelial cells to proliferate and differentiate

549
Q

Describe the GI complications of AKI

A

GI complications such as nausea, vomiting and anorexia are very common (sign of uraemia).
1/3 of patients will have some form of GI bleed.
Also get pancreatitis ( AKI causes increased amylase) and jaundice (hepatic congestion and sepsis).

550
Q

Lower urinary tract infection can potentially spread to the kidney - true or false

A

True

551
Q

How can an ovarian cyst be fatal

A

If it is a dermoid cyst or endometrioma with malignant transformation it carries a poor prognosis and will likely be fatal due to the cancer

If the cyst causes a haemorrhage this can also be fatal

552
Q

Which structural and functional changes can ischaemia cause in the tubular epithelial cells

A

An early effect is the loss of cell polarity due to redistribution of membrane proteins such as the sodium potassium pump

553
Q

When might pyelonephritis present with a negative urine culture

A

When an obstruction of the upper urinary tract is present e.g. due to stone disease

554
Q

List risk factors for death from AKI

A
Pulmonary complications 
Older age
Multiorgan failure
Oliguria
Hypotension
Number of transfusions 
AKI occurring alone
555
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of urothelial cancer

A

Cells lining the urinary tract are exposed to carcinogens as they are concentrated and excreted in urine
This leads to a field effect’ with high proportion of multifocal or synchronous tumours
Tumours will develop following either a papillary or a CIS pattern

556
Q

What causes PCOS

A

The aetiology is incompletely understood

They do however have excessive androgen production (central feature) and dysregulation of enzymes involved in androgen biosynthesis

557
Q

Clear cell carcinoma of the ovary is thought to be a variant of endometrioid adenocarcinoma - true or false

A

True
This is due to the fact they sometimes occur alongside endometriosis or endometrioid ovarian carcinoma and look like clear cell carcinoma of the endometrium

558
Q

Long-term catheterization carries a risk of urinary tract infection - true or false

A

True

559
Q

Endometriomas have some risk of malignant transformation - true or false

A

True

There is a low risk of malignant transformation but they do increase the chances of malignancy in endometriosis

560
Q

Describe lipiduria

A

Seen in nephrotic syndrome

The lipoproteins are resorbed by tubular epithelial cells and then shed along with injured tubular cells that have detached from the BM

Appears in the urine either as free fat or oval fat bodies

561
Q

Dense deposit disease (T2 MPGN) has a good prognosis - true or false

A

False

Poor prognosis with >50% progressing to ESRD

562
Q

Describe the clinical course of uncomplicated acute pyelonephritis

A

Usually follows a benign course and symptoms disappear within a few days after the institution of appropriate antibiotic therapy

563
Q

What forms the crescents seen in glomerular injury

A

These are accumulations of cells composed of proliferating glomerular epithelial cells and infiltrating leukocytes

The proliferation occurs following an immune/inflammatory injury involving the capillary walls. This causes plasma proteins to leak into the urinary space where exposure to procoagulants is thought to cause fibrin deposition and triggers the crescents to form

564
Q

List potential complications of omentectomy in the treatment of ovarian cancer - removal of part of the omentum

A

Pain
Lymphoedema
Potentially permanent nerve damage

565
Q

List the different histological classifications of glomerulopathies

A

Focal - involves only a fraction of the glomeruli in the kidney

Diffuse - involving all of the glomeruli in the kidney

Global - involving the entirety of individual glomeruli

Segmental - affecting a part of each glomerulus

Crescentic - presence of crescents

Proliferative
Non-proliferative
- Usually refers to presence / absence of proliferation of mesangial cells

Capillary loop - predominately affects capillary regions

Mesangial - predominately affects mesangial regions

566
Q

Describe the rate progression of low grade serous carcinomas of the ovary

A

The low grade forms of this tumours will often progress slowly even once they have spread outwith the ovary meaning that these patients can survive for long periods

567
Q

List common sites of metastases in ovarian cancer

A
Regional lymph nodes
Lungs
Liver
GI tract
and elsewhere....
568
Q

List the 4 main responses of the glomerulus to injury

A

Hypercellularity
Basement membrane thickening
Hyalinosis
Sclerosis

569
Q

Which features of minimal change disease suggest an immunological basis to the condition

A

The clinical association with respiratory infections & prophylactic immunisation.

The response to corticosteroids ± other immunosuppressive therapy.

The association with other atopic disorders (e.g., eczema, rhinitis)

The increased prevalence of certain HLA halotypes in cases associated with atopy (suggesting genetic predisposition)

Increased incidence of minimal change disease in patients with Hodgkin lymphoma, in whom defects in & cell-mediated immunity are well recognised

However, the absence of immune deposits in glomerulus excludes immune complex-mediated injury

570
Q

How do catheters cause UTIs

A

Catheters inoculate organisms into the bladder & promote colonization by providing a surface for bacterial adhesion and causing mucosal irritation

571
Q

List the features of Anti GBM antibody mediated GN

A

Characterised by linear deposits of IgG and (in many) C3 in the GBM

The anti-GBM antibodies cross-react with pulmonary alveolar BMs in some patients
This leads to pulmonary haemorrhage associated with renal failure (Goodpasture syndrome).

572
Q

What is the most common primary prostate neoplasm

A

Adenocarcinoma

Almost always the case

573
Q

List the clinical features of AKI

A

High serum creatine
Rise in blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Decreased urine output - in severe cases you get oliguria or anuria (gives worse prognosis)

574
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of mucinous carcinomas of the ovary

A

Produce cystic masses
These masses are larger than the ones produced by serous tumours. Mucinous tumours have been know to form cystic masses up to 25Kg in weight
These tumours are multiloculated and are full of gelatinous fluid that is rich in glycoprotiens and is sticky

575
Q

How does membranous nephropathy present on light microscopy

A

Glomeruli appear normal in early stages or show uniform, diffuse thickening of the glomerular capillary wall.

576
Q

Immediately after the injury BUN and creatine can be normal - true or false

A

True

577
Q

If you have a patient with a NEWS2 score of 5 or more how should you escalate

A
Arrange urgent assessment by a senior clinical decision-maker - CT3/ST3 or higher in the UK, or a trained nurse with prescribing rights in acute care
If necessary (e.g. NEWS2 score of 7 or more) arrange an emergency assessment by a critical care specialist
578
Q

List the main scoring systems for AKI

A

Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes (KDIGO)
Acute Kidney Injury Network (AKIN) classification
RIFLE (risk, injury, failure, loss, end stage renal disease) system
Also have pRIFLE which is the paeds version

579
Q

What is acute pyelonephritis

A

A suppurative inflammation of kidneys caused by bacterial and sometimes viral (polyomavirus) infection

580
Q

List possible causes of the high rates of UTIs in post-menopausal women

A

Bladder or uterine prolapse causing incomplete bladder emptying

Loss of estrogen with attendant changes in vaginal flora - e.g. more gram-negative aerobes like E Coli

Higher likelihood of concomitant medical illness e.g. diabetes

581
Q

How does hydronephrosis present clinically

A

Can remain clinically silent for long periods of time even when it is caused by complete obstruction if it is unilateral as the unaffected kidney can maintain adequate renal function
If the obstruction is relived within the first few weeks of hydronephrosis forming then the kidney function can return to normal

582
Q

What is RPGN

A

A clinical syndrome assoc. with severe glomerular injury
However, does not denote a specific aetiology.

You get a relatively rapid + progressive loss of renal function - rapid decline in GFR (hrs-days)

Associated with severe oliguria and signs of nephritic syndrome.

583
Q

How do the kidneys appear in Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN

A

They are enlarged + pale

Often have petechial haemorrhages on cortical surface

584
Q

How can bladder infection cause acquired vesicoureteral reflux

A

It is postulated that bacteria themselves or the associated inflammation can promote reflux by affecting ureteral contractility, particularly in children

585
Q

Which congenital abnormalities can cause urinary tract obstruction

A
Posterior urethral valves
Urethral strictures
Severe vesicolurectal reflux
Meatal stenosis
Bladder neck obstruction - caused by ureteropelvic junction narrowing or obstruction
586
Q

Which tumours can cause urinary tract obstruction

A

Bladder tumours
Prostatic carcinoma
Carcinoma of the cervix or uterus
Contiguous malignant disease -retroperitoneal lymphoma

587
Q

What is the other name for acute tubular necrosis

A

acute tubular injury

588
Q

List the clinical features of meningococcal (Neisseria meningitidis) bacteraemic shock

A

DIC is prominent

Haemorrhagic rash

589
Q

Anuria in AKI is suggestive for what

A

bilateral obstruction or catastrophic damage

590
Q

Describe the structure of the proximal convoluted tubules

A
Has very highly specialised cells
Cuboidal epithelium
Brush border - gives fuzzy border 
Microvillous apical surface
Mitochondria are abundant
Larger than the DCT
591
Q

Podocyte changes are completely reversible after corticosteroid therapy - true or false

A

True

This is concomitant w/ remission of proteinuria

592
Q

Describe the structure of cystic clear cell carcinomas of the ovary

A

If they are predominantly cystic the neoplastic cells will line the cystic spaces

593
Q

Describe the role of the activated endothelium in the pathophysiology of sepsis

A

Activated endothelium allows adhesion and migration of stimulated immune cells & becomes porous to large molecules such as proteins, resulting in tissue oedema

594
Q

List the histological features of type 2 MPGN

A

Many have a mesangial proliferative pattern of injury, in some, dense deposits can be seen permeating GBM
Permeation of lamina dense of GBM by ribbon-like, homogenous, extremely electron-dense material of unknown composition.

C3 in irregular granular or linear foci in BMs on either side of, but not within, dense deposits.
Also seen in mesangium in circular aggregates (mesangial rings).

595
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of acute pyelonephritis

A

Will see suppuration – discrete focal abscesses or large wedge-like areas
Can involve one or both kidneys
Cortical surface shows grayish white areas of inflammation and abscess formation

596
Q

List the histological features of acute proliferative GN

A

Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli

Global, diffuse proliferation and leukocyte infiltration (i.e. involves all lobules of glomeruli).

Also swelling, which coupled with proliferation and leukocyte infiltration obliterates capillary lumens.

Crescents if severe

597
Q

Which women are at higher risk of UTI

A

The elderly
Pregnant
Have pre-existing urinary tract structural abnormalities or obstruction

598
Q

List causes of secondary glomerulonephritis

A

Infections or drugs associated with malignancies

Part of systemic disease (ANCA-associated vasculitis, SLE, Goodpasture’s, HSP).

599
Q

Squamous cell bladder cancer is associated with exposure to what

A

Schistosomiasis

A history of chronic infection or irritation e.g. in frequent catheter use

600
Q

What is the most characteristic lesion of HIV-associated nephropathy

A

collapsing glomerulopathy

601
Q

How does FSGS present on light microscopy

A

In sclerotic segments you see collapse of capillary loops, increase in matrix & segmental deposition of plasma proteins along capillary wall (hyalinosis), which may occlude capillary lumens.
Lipid droplets and foam cells are often present.

However, the focal & segmental lesions may be missed on biopsy so may not be seen

602
Q

Which other conditions are associated with PCOS

A

It is also associated with obesity, premature atherosclerosis and type 2 diabetes

603
Q

How might the bladder appear macroscopically in UTI

A

There is no specific macroscopic appearance for UTIs.
However if UTI is due to chronic urinary tract obstruction, we can see the bladder become enlarged and hypertrophied and bladder wall thickened

604
Q

What is the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma

A

Clear cell carcinoma

Makes up 70-80% of newly diagnosed cases

605
Q

Damage to the podocytes leads to what clinical picture

A

Non-proliferative lesion + protein in urine

606
Q

What are the complications of androgen deprivation therapy in prostate cancer

A

Cognitive impairment
Gynecomastia
Metabolic disturbances
Erectile dysfunction

607
Q

What is the leading cause of AKI

A

Septic shock

Even those with more minor infection are at higher risk of AKI.

608
Q

High grade serous carcinoma arises in association with which lesions

A

In situ lesions on the fallopian tube fimbriae - serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma
OR
Serous inclusion cysts in the ovary

609
Q

Are most UTIs complicated or uncomplicated

A

Uncomplicated

610
Q

In glomerular injury how does the basement membrane thickening appear on light microscopy

A

It appears as thickening of the capillary walls

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain is best.

611
Q

Renal papillary adenomas are precursors to renal cell carcinoma - true or false

A

True - ish

Histologically similar to low-grade RCC but most do not appear to progress - potentially some act as a precursor

612
Q

Bilateral endometrioid ovarian carcinoma suggests what

A

If the carcinoma is bilateral it suggests that the carcinoma has spread outwith the genital tract

613
Q

What is septic shock

A

It is a subset of sepsis - indicates profound circulatory, cellular, and metabolic deterioration

614
Q

List risk factors for candiduric UTIs

A

DM, indwelling urinary catheters and antibiotic use

615
Q

Describe ovarian cystadenomas

A

Develops on the surface of the ovary
Can be serous or mucinous - filled with either watery or mucous material
Can become very large and increase the risk of ovarian torsion

616
Q

List the most common causes of AKI

A
Sepsis
Major surgery
Cardiogenic shock
Other hypovolaemia
Drugs
Hepatorenal syndrome
Obstruction

In that order

617
Q

Which part of the nephron is most vulnerable to apoptosis

A

Apoptosis more commonly seen in distal parts of the nephron

618
Q

Normal human bladder & bladder urine are sterile - true or false

A

True

619
Q

What is the function of the collecting tubules and ducts

A

Reabsorption of water under the control of ADH.

620
Q

Describe how blood flow is disrupted in ATN

A

Intrarenal vasoconstriction leads to reduced glomerular blood flow and reduced oxygen delivery to the functionally important tubules.
The blood flow is the driving force behind renal filtration so if it reduces so does GFR.
This is caused by a variety of pathways including activation of RAAS by decreased Na due to lower pressure and endothelial injury

621
Q

Which biochemical factors are monitored in AKI patients

A

Regular monitoring of fluid balance, K+, lactate if septic and creatine are important

622
Q

How is a candiduric UTI defined

A

more than 1000 CFU/mL of yeast from 2 cultures

623
Q

List the features of nephrotic syndrome

A
Proteinuria >3.5g/day (mostly albumin)
Hypoalbuminemia (<3g/dL)
Generalised oedema (most common PC)
Hyperlipidaemia + lipiduria 
Usually normal renal function
624
Q

Which AKI cases typically require renal replacement therapy

A

Fluid overload unresponsive to medical treatment
Severe or prolonged acidosis
Recurrent or persistent hyperkalaemia despite treatment
Uraemia
Pulmonary oedema

625
Q

How is GFR affected in hydronephrosis

A

It is usually unaffected at the beginning but can fall later in the disease process

This is because the initial changes in hydronephrosis are mainly tubular not vascular
However, with time medullary functional disturbances occur due to reduced blood flow

626
Q

Malignant Brenner tumours are the equivalent to which type of ovarian carcinoma

A
low grade ( type 1 ) ovarian carcinomas 
The Brenner tumours are usually in stage one when they present
627
Q

Describe the role of the coagulation system in the pathophysiology of sepsis

A

Alterations in the coagulation systems include an increase in pro-coagulant factors and reduced levels of circulating natural anticoagulants (which also carry anti-inflammatory and modulatory roles)

628
Q

Describe the pathological features of cystadenofibromas

A

These have pronounced proliferation of fibrous stroma that lies under the columnar lining epithelium

They tend to be small and multilocular with simple papillary processes that aren’t as complicated and branching as those in normal cystadenoma

629
Q

How does advanced membranous nephropathy present histologically

A

With segmental sclerosis that can progress to total glomerular sclerosis

630
Q

How does urinary tract obstruction predispose to the movement of microbes from bladder to kidneys

A

Causes incomplete emptying and stasis of residual urine

This stasis allows bacteria in the bladder to multiply unhindered

631
Q

What pathological features may you see in healing ATN

A

May see signs of epithelial regeneration - flattened cells with hyperchromatic nuclei and mitotic figures
With time no evidence of damage is seen

632
Q

What proportion of nephrotoxic AKI cases will recover

A
With treatment (removal of toxic cause) 95% will recover
Nephrotoxic cases are likely to recover if the toxin has not damaged other organs.
633
Q

Describe the microscopic appearance of prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

Form glands with a specific, defined pattern
Typically glands are smaller than benign glands without stroma/ epithelial infoldings/ outer basal cell layer
Will correspond to a Gleeson grade

634
Q

Endometrioid ovarian carcinomas are low grade tumours - true or false

A

True

635
Q

List the layers which separate the blood from the glomerular filtrate

A

capillary endothelium - simple squamous which is fenestrated

Capillary epithelium - made of podocytes (specialised visceral epithelium)

636
Q

List histological features of Crescentic (Rapidly Progressive) GN

A

Presence of crescents in Most of the glomeruli

often show focal and segmental necrosis, and variably, endothelial proliferation, and mesangial proliferation

637
Q

Prostatic Adenocarcinoma typically occurs in which part of the prostate

A

The peripheral zone

638
Q

Papillary necrosis following acute pyelonephritis is usually seen in which patients

A

Seen in diabetes, sickle cell disease and those with urinary tract obstruction

639
Q

What is the 5-year survival for clear cell carcinoma of the ovary

A

Although in advanced stages clear cell carcinoma has a poor prognosis, when it is confined to the ovary its 5yr survival is around 90%

640
Q

What determines the prognosis of AKI

A

Dependent on the magnitude and duration of the AKI and the underlying cause

641
Q

Clear cell carcinomas may not produce any identifiable symptoms until they are quite large - true or false

A

True
May not have symptoms until they are over 10cm
15% of newly diagnosed cases will already have mets

642
Q

List some of the most common benign renal tumours

A

Renal papillary adenomas
Angiomyolipoma
Oncocytoma

643
Q

Once mucinous carcinomas have spread outside the ovary they are usually fatal - true or false

A

True

However, they are uncommon tumours