Seminar 5 - Smoking Associated Lung Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and 2 respiratory failure

A

Type 1 has just hypoxia with low or normal CO2

Type 2 has hypoxia with hypercapnia

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2
Q

Describe the course of subacute fibrotic lung diseases

A

Have a resolving, remitting, relapsing or progressive course

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3
Q

In which lung disease would you see increased serum ACE and Ca2

A

Sarcoidosis

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4
Q

How does CTEPH present on V/Q scan

A

Will have one or more segmental or larger unmatched perfusion defects

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5
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Group 3 PH

A

Lung disease leads to hypoxia
Pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs in response to this.
This process is normally reversible but sustained hypoxia activates further mediators which leads to remodelling and increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.
As a result, the pressure in the vessels rises and you get PH

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6
Q

What is anthracnosis

A

Form of pneumoconiosis
Most innocuous coal-induced lesion
Seen to some extent in city living & smokers)
Usually doesn’t cause fibrosis but can if severe

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7
Q

What causes the diaphragm paralysis seen in lung cancer

A

Phrenic nerve invasion

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8
Q

What proportion of COPD patients have PH

A

10-30%

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9
Q

List the symptoms of Horner’s syndrome

A

Unilateral ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis and enophthalmos

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10
Q

How do you differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung disease

A

History and examination can help but often considerable symptom overlap
Main way is via pulmonary function tests such as spirometry

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11
Q

What are asbestos bodies

A

Long, thin asbestos fibres with translucent centre and gold-brown colour
Consists of asbestos fibres coated with iron-containing proteinaceous material

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12
Q

How do you name benign tumours of mesenchymal cells

A

Suffix “-oma” is attached to the name of the cell type from which the tumor arises
e.g. lipoma

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13
Q

What determines the outcome of Group 1 PAH

A

The underlying cause, severity and available treatment options
Also a list of prognostic factors (other card)

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14
Q

Describe the prevalence of intrinsic lung diseases

A

Overall prevalence of 3-6 cases/100,000 people (US)

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) prevalence in UK is 50/100,000

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of cor pulmonale

A

COPD

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16
Q

List examples of chest wall disorders

A

Severe obesity

Pleural diseases (e.g. trapped lung, scarring, large pleural effusions, chronic empyema)

Kyphoscoliosis

Neuromuscular diseases (e.g. MG, ALS, myopathy)

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17
Q

What can decrease mortality in COPD

A

Smoking cessation has been shown to decrease mortality

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18
Q

Which pneumoconiosis is not associated with an increased risk of TB or cancer development?

A

Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis
(when considering disease on its own – non-smokers)

Indoor smoky coal can increase risk but rare in western world

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19
Q

Which HLA genotypes are associated with sarcoidosis

A

HLA-A1 and HLA-B8

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20
Q

In which lung disease would you see

ground-glass opacities on CXR

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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21
Q

Describe the prevalence of sarcoidosis

A

in US: 10-40/100,000people.
Prevalenceof this disease is hard to determine as hard to diagnose
10x more common in African Americans than Caucasians

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22
Q

How does Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease present

A

Patients will have significant pulmonary symptoms, abnormal lung function and imaging abnormalities

Term reserved for these patients

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23
Q

What are the 2 main components of every tumour

A

Neoplastic cells that constitute the tumor parenchyma

Reactive stroma made up of connective tissue, blood vessels and cells of the adaptive and innate immune system

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24
Q

Describe V/Q mismatch

A

It is the most common cause of hypoxemia
The levels ventilation and blood flow do not match - not sufficient gas exchange

Caused by reduced ventilation from airway, interstitial lung disease or reduced perfusion in PE (blood cannot reach ventilated alveoli)

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25
Q

What environmental factors increase you risk of COPD

A
Long term pollution exposure 
Cigarettes - biggest cause
Airway hyper-reactivity
IV drug use - pulmonary vascular damage 
Immunodeficiency e.g. HIV
Vasculitis - HVUS
Connective tissue disorders e.g. Marfans, Ehler's Danlos
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26
Q

What is the typical mechanism of death in COPD

A

Fatal due to heart failure or of respiratory failure due to superimposed infection

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27
Q

What signs may be found on examination of a patient with CTEPH

A

may hear reduced or fixed splitting of the second heart sound, louder pulmonary valve closure or feel a right ventricular heave.

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28
Q

Which diseases affecting the lung parenchyma can cause cor pulmonale

A
COPD 
Bronchiectasis 
Pulmonary Fibrosis
Severe, chronic asthma 
Lung resection
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29
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of atopic asthma

A

Following exposure to allergen, Th2 cells producecytokines (interleukins 5, 4 and 13) which activate leukocytes such as eosinophils and stimulate production of IgE
The T cells and epithelial cells recruit more eosinophils, perpetuating this reaction

The IgE produced by B cells binds to FC receptors on mast cells
Repeated exposure to the allergen causes mast cells to degranulate

The early phase hypersentivity reaction kicks in followed by the late phase

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30
Q

How can infections contribute to asthma

A

Children with LRTI have a 10-30 fold increased risk of developing persistent or severe asthma
Infections also exacerbate asthma

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31
Q

How does chromatin appear in the nuclei of malignant cells

A

Coarsely clumped and distributed along the nuclear membrane

More darkly stained than normal (hyperchromatic)

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32
Q

Which of the components of COPD causes reversible damage

A

Bronchoconstriction due to inflammation accounts for some reversibility
Airflow obstruction in emphysema is often irreversible

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33
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as T4

A

Tumour > 7cm
OR
Involvement of the mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve, vertebral body or carina OR
Separate tumour nodules in a different ipsilateral lobe

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34
Q

How does silicosis present on CXR

A

Fine nodularity in upper zones
Eggshell calcification (Ca surrounding zone lacking calcification)
Seen as thin sheets of calcification in lymph nodes.

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35
Q

In which lung disease would you see polyploid plugs of loose connective tissue called Masson bodies

A

Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia

Also called Bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)

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36
Q

What causes Group 2 PAH

A

Left sided heart disease

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37
Q

How do you diagnose pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Bloods - FBC, coagulation studies, serology
Bronchoscopy - assess bleeding site
Lung biopsy - carried out if the less invasive tests cannot find a cause

Further tests may be carried out if a specific cause is suspected

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38
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as N3

A

Metastasis to contralateral mediastinal or hilar lymph nodes, ipsilateral or contralateral scalene, or supraclavicular lymph nodes

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39
Q

Why is asthma a disease of industrialized/urban environments (describe the 2 main theories)

A

Cities contain many allergens that can initiate a Th2 response such as airborne pollutants

Hygiene hypothesis - City life tends to limit children’s exposure to antigens which could provide a protective effect against atopy

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40
Q

List the subtypes of non-small cell lung cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma - most common
Squamous cell
Large cell undifferentiated
Others such as carcinoid

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41
Q

Describe the progression of Group 1 PAH

A

Progressive and sustained rise in pulmonary vascular pressure.

Typically caused by vasoconstriction, remodelling and thrombosis in the small pulmonary arteries and arterioles.

Can progress to right heart failure

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42
Q

For a coagulation disorder to lead to pulmonary haemorrhage, what else is typically needed

A

Often need a precipitant like infection

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43
Q

What are the clinical features of pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Classic symptoms: dyspnoea, haemoptysis and iron deficiency anaemia
Exact clinical presentation varies depending on the underlying cause (will have symptoms of that disease
Chronic bleeding may cause fever, cough, weight loss and tiredness

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44
Q

List the main signs of asthma

A

Diurnal variability
Triggers – exercise, allergens, infection, cold weather, drugs (NSAIDS)
Associated atopy (eczema, hayfever etc) - due to increased IgE levels
Blood eosinophilia > 3%
Responsive to steroids or beta-agonists
FMHx of asthma

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45
Q

Which people get respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease

A

Typically current smokers with >30 pack year history in 40/50s

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46
Q

What types of radiation can increase risk of lung cancer

A

Uranium – 4x risk in non-smoking Uranium miners
Radon gas – Increased risk of exposure in underground workers and places with high soil concentration
Ionising radiation – Increased incidence in atomic bomb survivors, as well as those involved in the Chernobyl clean-up

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47
Q

What is chronic bronchitis

A

Defined clinically as the presence of a chronic productive cough for 3 months during each of 2 consecutive years with other causes of cough being excluded

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48
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Group 4 PH (basically CTEPH)

A

3-5 cases per 100,000 in the US and Europe.
Exact incidence after PE is uncertain though 75% of CTEPH patients had a previous PE.

Often underdiagnosed
No sex difference

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49
Q

What may you see on chest examination of a patient with COPD

A

Hyperinflation (barrel chest)
Wheezing – Frequently heard on forced and unforced expiration
Diffusely decreased breath sounds
Hyperresonance on percussion
Prolonged expiration
Coarse crackles beginning with inspiration in some cases

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50
Q

Discuss the mortality rates in COPD

A

Globally, it is estimated that 3.17 million deaths were caused by the disease in 2015 (that is, 5% of all deaths globally in that year

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51
Q

List the macroscopic features of complex coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

A

Causes progressive massive fibrosis

Intensely blackened scars 1cm+; usually multiple

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52
Q

Is is chronic bronchitis or emphysema that affects the elastic recoil of the lungs

A

Emphysema - reduces it

Normal in CB

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53
Q

Describe the prognosis of respiratory failure

A

Respiratory failure itself doesn’t have an exact prognosis because it is determined by the underlying cause

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54
Q

What is asbestos

A

A family of crystalline hydrated silicates
Different forms such as serpentine chrysotile form (90% of asbestos in industry) and amphiboles form (less prevalent, more pathogenic)
Associated lung disease

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55
Q

How does asbestosis present on CXR

A

Circumscribed densities

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56
Q

List common asthma co-morbidities

A
Rhinitisandrhinosinusitis
Obesity 
Obstructive sleep apnoea 
GORD 
May overlap with COPD 
Mental health disorders (anxiety/depression)
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57
Q

How do you measure pulmonary arterial pressure

A

Cardiac catherisation

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58
Q

Describe the characteristics of usual interstitial pneumonia

A

Fibrosis seen on histology

Non-uniform (patchy), variegated lung injury
Alternating areas of healthy lung, interstitial inflammation, fibrosis and honeycomb change

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59
Q

Discuss the common mechanism of death in COPD

A

Airflow obstruction is associated with increased mortality, even with mild impairment
In mild to moderate COPD, majority of deaths are due to cardiovascular disease or lung cancer,
As COPD severity increases, respiratory deaths are increasingly common

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60
Q

How do you name a cancer if the cells are of unknown origin

A

Designated merely as undifferentiated malignant tumors

Only occurs in around 2% of cases

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61
Q

What are some of the possible carcinogens in tobacco

A

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Phenol derivatives
Nitrosamines
Radioactive elements

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62
Q

Describe the early phase reaction of atopic asthma

A

Consists of:
Bronchoconstriction - triggered by direct stimulation of parasympathetic receptors through reflexes triggered by mediators produced by mast cells

Increased mucus production
Variable degrees of vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability

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63
Q

What are the characteristics of Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP) and Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease

A

Large collections of macrophages in airspaces of a current or previous smoker
Called smokers macrophages
Some macrophages have lamellar bodies (contain surfactant) within phagocytic vacuoles.
Alveolar septa thickened by sparse inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes, plasma cells and some eosinophils

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64
Q

List the macroscopic features of Group 1 PAH

A

Hypertrophy of intima, media and adventitia of pulmonary arteries

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65
Q

What are the two aetiological categories of restrictive lung disease

A

Chest wall disorders

Chronic infiltrative and interstitial disease

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66
Q

Where are you most likely to find pleural plaques in asbestosis

A

Found on anterior and posterior-lateral aspects of parietal pleura and over diaphragm domes

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67
Q

Group 1 PAH is a diagnosis of exclusion - true or false

A

True

You must differentiate it from the other WHO groups

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68
Q

List some of the common medication side effects seen in the treatment of asthma

A
Rapid heartbeat
Hoarseness
Throat irritation (ICS)
Oral yeast infections (ICS)
Insomnia (theophylline)
Gastroesophageal reflux (theophylline)
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69
Q

Describe the typical course of silicosis

A

Follows a slow & insidious course (10-30y after exposure)

However it can be accelerated (<10y) or rapid (weeks-months after intense exposure to fine dust high in silica).

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70
Q

Describe the structure of the pleural plaques seen in asbestosis

A

Well-circumscribed plaques of dense collagen
Often calcified
Don’t contain asbestos bodies but rarely occur w/o exposure to asbestos.

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71
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Group 2 PAH

A

Around 6.5 million people in Europe have heart failure

Of those with a reduced ejection fraction, 60% have this PH on presentation

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72
Q

Neoplasms are typically soft and fleshy

A

True

Connective tissue is usually scant

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73
Q

What proportion of patients with sleep disordered breathing have PH

A

In obstructive sleep apnoea it is roughly 15-20%

If other sleep-related breathing disorders are included this rises to 17-53%

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74
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndromes may be caused by squamous cell lung cancer

A

PTH/ PTHRP/ prostaglandin E production can lead to hypercalcaemia

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75
Q

How might diffuse alveolar haemorrhage appear on CT 2-3 days after the haemorrhage

A

In between chronic bleeds
Centrilobar nodules that are diffusely distributed

Repeated haemorrhage may progress to fibrosis

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76
Q

What causes Group 4 PH

A

Obstruction in the pulmonary arteries

Major cause is Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH

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77
Q

Is there a gender difference in COPD

A

Previously more common in men
However, more women in high income countries smoke and in low income women are at higher risk of indoor pollutants (cooking) so now equal amongst prevalence the sexes

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78
Q

Which parts of the lung are most commonly affected by asbestosis

A

Begins in lower lobes & sub-pleura

Middle and upper become affected as it progresses

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79
Q

How do you treat bronchiectasis

A
Antibiotics 
Mucus thinners - often nebulized 
Airway Clearance Devices
Chest physio 
O2 therapy 
Quit smokingand avoid secondhand smoke
Healthy lifestyle
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80
Q

List the types of granulomatous diffuse parenchymal lung disease

A

Sarcoidosis

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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81
Q

What is the definition of pneumoconiosis

A

Non-neoplastic lung reaction to inhalation of dusts encountered in the workplace; now includes chemical fumes & vapour inhalation too.

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82
Q

How does asbestos cause asbestosis

A

Inhaled fibres settle at alveolar duct bifurcations Phagocytosis by macrophages triggers cytokine release Begins process of fibrosis

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83
Q

In COPD, when the emphysema is mild, what is the main mechanism of airflow limitation

A

Bronchiolar abnormalities are most responsible for the majority of the deficit in lung function.

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84
Q

The drugs given to treat the heart failure in cor pulmonale can have what complications

A

Diuretics – hypokaleamia and arrhythmia

Ace inhibitor – angioneurotic oedema

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85
Q

When does CTEPH typically present

A

Typical age of onset is 60s.

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86
Q

Describe the late phase reaction of atopic asthma

A

Consists of the recruitment of leukocytes (eosinophils, neutrophils and more T cells)

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87
Q

What environmental factors can cause lung cancer

A

Tobacco
Asbestos
Radiation

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88
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of bronchiectasis

A

Obstruction or infection result from a defect in airway clearance
Specific causes - Primary ciliary dyskinesia and allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

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89
Q

In COPD what are the main clinical differences that will be seen in history and examination

A

COPD patient will typically have:
Smoking history, older age, cough with sputum, slowly progressive exertional dyspnoea with less day-to-day variability; examination not usually abnormal until airflow limitation is severe

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90
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of non-eosinophilic asthma

A

Mechanism is poorly understood

Some patients exhibit neutrophil-predominant disease with release of cytokines fromT helper 1 cells,

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91
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as M1

A

M1a – Separate tumour nodule in contralateral lobe OR pleural nodules OR malignant or pericardial effusion

M1b – Single extra-thoracic metastasis in a single organ

M1c – Multiple extra-thoracic metastases

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92
Q

Which population group is commonly affected by pulmonary haemorrhage?

A

Children, particularly premature or low weight infants

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93
Q

List the symptoms of cor pulmonale

A
Dyspnea on exertion 
Fatigue
Lethargy
Exertional syncope and chest pain 
Abdominal distension 
Lower extremity swelling
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94
Q

Which part of the lung is most commonly affected by idiopathic interstitial pneumonia

A

Lower zone, subpleural, and para-septal

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95
Q

How does interstitial lung disease typically present on spirometry

A

Classical restrictive functional abnormalities

Reduction in diffusion capacity, lung volume and lung compliance.

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96
Q

What is anaplasia

A

A lack of differentiation

Considered a hallmark of malignancy - they are highly anaplastic

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97
Q

What is the most prevalent occupational disease in the world

A

Silicosis

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98
Q

Describe the general pathogenesis behind diffuse parenchymal lung disease

A

Thought to begin with an acute injury to the pulmonary parenchyma
This leads to chronic interstitial inflammation
This results in -> fibroblast activation and proliferation with eventual pulmonary fibrosis + tissue destruction

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99
Q

Describe the pathological features of subacute phase hypersentivity pneumonitis

A

Interstitial pneumonitis and non-caseating granulomas

Characteristically centred on bronchioles.

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100
Q

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is associated with what clinical sign

A

Finger clubbing

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101
Q

What is the difference between tumour giant cells and inflammatory/foreign body giant cells

A

The inflammatory/foreign body giant cells are derived from macrophages and contain many small, normal-appearing nuclei

The tumour giant cells have either a single huge polymorphic nucleus/two or more large hyperchromatic nuclei

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102
Q

What is the underlying pathology in COPD

A

Chronic bronchitis and emphysema

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103
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma is seen in non-smokers - true or false

A

False

99% of cases occur in smokers

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104
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndromes may be caused by small cell lung cancer

A

SIADH - leads to hyponatraemia

Ectopic ACTH production leads to cushing syndrome

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105
Q

How do you treat squamous cell lung cancer

A

Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy

Research ongoing into immunotherapy and angiogenesis inhibitors

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106
Q

Which diseases affecting the lung vasculature can cause cor pulmonale

A
PE - large or recurrent 
Vasculitis 
Primary pulmonary hypertension 
ARDS 
Sickle cell disease
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107
Q

Why does pulmonary vasoconstriction occur in response to hypoxia

A

Aims to increase ventilation/perfusion matching by diverting blood away from hypoxic areas
Usually reverses when lung disease resolves - e.g. infection
However, if hypoxia is chronic it can lead to PH

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108
Q

How do you diagnose CTEPH

A

Chest radiography
Echo - used to exclude other heart diseases
V/Q scan - recommended first line if CTEPH suspected (can also exclude CTEPH)
CT or MRI
Catheter used to confirm PH

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109
Q

What is emphysema

A

Defined pathologically as an abnormal, permanent enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by destruction of their walls and without obvious fibrosis

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110
Q

When does non-allergic asthma present

A

Can present at any age
including during viral respiratory infections
In children it is more likely to resolve in adolescence
More common in adult women - especially if obese

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111
Q

In which lung disease would you see bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fatigue and weight loss

A

Sarcoidosis

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112
Q

List the pathological changes seen in the acute exudative phase of ARDS

A

Lungs are heavy, boggy, firm and red in colour
There is oedema in the interstitium and alveoli alongside inflammation, deposition of fibrin and diffuse alveolar damage
There are waxy hyaline membranes made from oedema fluid full of fibrin and parts of necrotic epithelial cells lining the alveoli

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113
Q

What is desmoplasia

A

Growth of fibrous or connective tissues

Parenchymal cells of tumours can stimulate the formation of abundant collagenous stroma

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114
Q

List the cytologic features of a malignant neoplasia

A

High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
Pleomorphisms - variation in nuclear or cell size
Hyperchromatic nuclei
Mitoses present - especially irregular or bizarre
Marked architectural disturbance and a loss of polarity

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115
Q

What is the most common non-cutaneous cancer worldwide

A

Lung cancer

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116
Q

List the microscopic features of Group 3 PH

A

Again depends on underlying lung disease
Will also have the plexiform lesions seen in other PH groups
Similar appearance to group 1 or ‘primary’ PAH

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117
Q

What can cause diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Pulmonary vasculitis’s (e.g. GPA, microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss and SLE)
Goodpasture syndrome - non-ANCA vasculitis
Can occur following a bone marrow transplantation
All-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) syndrome
Pulmonary hemosiderosis – iron deposition in the lung
Coagulative disorders
Widespread metastasis – rare cause
May be idiopathic

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118
Q

What causes the pneumonia, abscess and/or lobar collapse seen in lung cancer

A

Airway obstruction

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119
Q

What are the common symptoms of COPD

A

Cough, usually worse in the mornings and productive with a small amount of colourless sputum

Breathlessness - most significant symptom, but usually does not occur until later on in disease

Wheezing: particularly during exertion and exacerbations

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120
Q

What do smokers macrophages look like

A

Abundant cytoplasm containing dusty brown pigment

Some macrophages have lamellar bodies (contain surfactant) within phagocytic vacuoles

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121
Q

List the macroscopic features of Group 4 PH (CTEPH)

A

Yellow clots that contain collagen, fibroblasts, elastin, inflammatory cells and recanalization vessels.
Stenosis and occlusion where the original PE was, usually with webs and bands.
Vascular remodelling including hypertrophy and intimal thickening.

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122
Q

How does activation of the inflammatory response affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

Innate immune response increases intensity & duration of local reaction
It is triggered by the phagocytosis of certain particles by macrophages

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123
Q

Describe the differentiation of malignant neoplasia’s

A

Poorly-differentiated

Exhibiting little or no evidence of differentiation

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124
Q

Describe the blood supply to growing tumour cells

A

They must have a supply in order to grow
However there is insufficient vascular stroma
The tumour can develop areas of ischemia necrosis as a result

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125
Q

Describe the trends in asthma mortality

A

There has been worldwide reduction in asthma mortality in adults and children over the past 25 years due to introduction of effective treatment (particualrly inhaled steroids)
However, there is major disparity between countries
Still causes may deaths - 417,918 deaths globally in 2016

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126
Q

What is the survival rate in Group 1 PAH

A

Life threatening if not treated
5-year survival rate of 57% without treatment
This drops to 1 year if they have right sided heart failure

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127
Q

What are asbestos bodies

A

Long, thin asbestos fibres with translucent centre and gold-brown colour

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128
Q

Describe the loss of polarity seen in malignant tumours

A

The orientation of anaplastic cells with respect to each other or to supporting structures like basement membranes (their polarity) is markedly disturbed
Sheets or large masses of tumor cells grow in a disorganized fashion

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129
Q

List potential complications of respiratory failure which are seen in the kidneys

A

Acute renal failure which can cause electrolyte and acid base disturbance

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130
Q

What is dysplasia

A

Disordered growth

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131
Q

Where does small cell lung carcinoma typically occur

A

Most commonly occur centrally in major bronchi, but can also be more peripheral

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132
Q

Describe the presentation of subacute fibrotic lung diseases

A

Have a resolving, remitting, relapsing or progressive course

Presentations with a variable course are typified by COP (weeks/months of prodromal flu symptoms; SOB + exercise intolerance).

Can recur when steroids are withdrawn/tapered

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133
Q

In situ epithelial cancers display all the cytologic features of malignancy - true or false

A

True

If not treated they have a high probability of progressing to invasive cancer

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134
Q

How might diffuse alveolar haemorrhage appear on CXR

A

May vary based on underlying cause
Diffuse infiltrative opacification pattern
Typically in the mid zones with apical sparing

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135
Q

Define each M stage in the TMN staging system (general cancer)

A

M0- no distant metastasis

M1 - metastases present

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136
Q

Define type 1 respiratory failure

A

PaO2 < 8kPa

Normal or low CO2

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137
Q

What causes honeycomb fibrosis

A

Seen in IPF
Destruction of the alveolar architecture
This leads to the formation of cystic spaces lined by hyperplastic type II pneumocyte or bronchiolar epithelium

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138
Q

Describe the differentiation of benign neoplasia’s

A

They are well-differentiated
Rare mitoses, of normal configuration
e.g. lipoma only the growth is abnormal

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139
Q

What is the most common type of pulmonary hypertension?

A

Group 2 PH caused by left-sided heart failure

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140
Q

What are the 3 main mechanisms behind respiratory failure (generally)

A

V/Q mismatch
Hypoventilation
Shunting

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141
Q

A person with CTEPH will likely have what in their clinical history

A

History of PE and/or the relevant risk factors for both PE and CTEPH

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142
Q

Describe lepidic lung adenocarcinoma

A

Pneumocyte type neoplastic cells track along normal alveolar structure

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143
Q

Why are patients with emphysema called pink puffers

A

Patients develop muscle wasting and weight loss
Due to low cardiac output and hypoxia
Will be breathing fast

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144
Q

What is the most common form of asthma

A

Atopic or allergic asthma

Presen

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145
Q

List the macroscopic features of asthma

A

Oedema
Congestion
Bronchial stenosis
Mucus hypersecretion

Seen in peripheral airways via scope

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146
Q

How can you group fibrotic lung diseases

A

Chronic
Subacute
Acute

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147
Q

List examples of chest wall disorders

A

Severe obesity

Pleural diseases (e.g. trapped lung, scarring, large pleural effusions, chronic empyema)

Kyphoscoliosis

Neuromuscular diseases (e.g. MG, ALS, myopathy)

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148
Q

How can COPD lead to Group 3 PH

A

Causes prolonged hypoxic vasoconstriction, mechanical stress, inflammation and endothelial dysfunction
All contribute to increased pressure

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149
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as T4

A

Tumour > 7cm
OR
Involvement of the mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, oesophagus, recurrent laryngeal nerve, vertebral body or carina OR
Separate tumour nodules in a different ipsilateral lobe

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150
Q

What is meant by the terms: tumour, mass or lesion

A

A growth or enlargement which may not be neoplastic (e.g. a granuloma)

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151
Q

Do benign neoplasms spread

A

No

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152
Q

Who is most affected by pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Children more than adults
Appears to affect children of all ages
Particualrly dangerous in premature babies or those with a low birth weight (high mortality in this group)

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153
Q

How do you treat pulmonary haemorrhage

A

It depends on the exact underlying cause and the severity.
Very premature babies or critically ill patients may require ventilation.
Blood transfusion if the bleed is severe.
Underlying disease managed as per individual guidelines. (e.g. steroids for CTD, Goodpasture’s etc)
If bleeding is coming from one site, it may be surgically embolised (blocked).

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154
Q

How do you manage the heart failure in cor pulmonale

A
Salt restriction 
Diuretics
Positive inotropes
Ace inhibitors 
Cardiac resynchronisation therapy and mechanical ventricular assist devices
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155
Q

Describe the general pathogenesis of COPD

A

Pathologic mechanisms not clear cut – few hypotheses

Abnormal inflammatory response to inhaled particles
Changes occur in central and peripheral airways and parenchyma
This leads to airflow limitation

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156
Q

List factors which increases your risk of developing CTEPH following a PE

A

Recurrent PE, large perfusion defects, high PA pressure at time of PE or an idiopathic PE

Non-O blood group - 77% of CTEPH patients

Splenectomy
Hypothyroidism
Both activate platelets

Ventriculoarterial shunt
Infected intravenous catheters/devices
Chronic inflammatory disorders
Malignancy
Abnormalities in blood components
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157
Q

Is there a gender difference in asthma

A

YES
Among children, asthma prevalence is higher in boys (due to smaller airways relative to lung size)
However, it switches during adolescence with prevalence being around 20% higher in women than men (same reason reverses)

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158
Q

How are tumours classified

A

Based primarily on the parenchymal component of the tumour itself

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159
Q

List ‘other’ diseases that can cause cor pulmonale (i.e. not lung pathology)

A
Cerebrovascular diseases 
Obstructive sleep apnoea 
Scleroderma 
CF 
Obesity associated hypoventilation
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160
Q

List potential complications of respiratory failure which are seen in the lungs

A
Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pneumothorax
Nosocomial pneumonia
Ventilator dependency
PE - due to acute RF
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161
Q

How do you perform a pulmonary thromboarterectomy

A

Median sternotomy is performed
Patient is put into hypothermic circulatory arrest for the surgery
The thrombi are then dissected out of the vessels.

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162
Q

What is pleomorphism

A

Variation in cell size and shape

Ranges from small cells within an undifferentiated appearance to tumor giant cells

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163
Q

What are the 3 main subtypes of pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage - diffuse bleeding into lung

Diffuse alveolar haemorrhage - if the bleeding is into the alveolar spaces

Localised pulmonary haemorrhage - haemorrhage is restricted to a focal region of the lung
This can range from a small focus to a whole lobe

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164
Q

Which features of respiratory failure suggest a poor prognosis

A

ARDS or COPD being the underlying cause

Type 2 respiratory failure as patients tends to have chronic lung disease and renal, hepatic, neurological and cardiopulmonary co morbidities

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165
Q

How many groups of pulmonary hypertension are there (as defined by the WHO)?

A

5

6 if you include the paediatric subtype but not an official group

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166
Q

What increases risk of parenchymal lung disease

A

Exposure to dust, metals, organic solvents, and agricultural jobs.

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167
Q

List the microscopic features of emphysema

A

Abnormal large alveoli separated by thin septa with focal centriacinar fibrosis
Loss of alveolar walls and dilatation of airspaces

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168
Q

What features may be seen in dysplastic epithelial surfaces

A

Architectural disarray

A loss of orderly differentiation

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169
Q

List the macroscopic features of Group 3 PH

A

Depends on the underlying lung disease

E.g., hyperplasia of mucus glands and emphysema seen in COPD

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170
Q

What causes non-atopic asthma

A

Triggers are less clear

Possibly viral infection or air pollutants

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171
Q

What causes the haemoptysis seen in lung cancer

A

Haemorrhage into the airways

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172
Q

What factors suggest a poor prognosis in Group 1 PAH

A

Male sex
Age over 50
Right ventricle dysfunction
Poor functional status (as defined by WHO)

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173
Q

Describe the structure of the granulomas that occur in sarcoidosis

A

They are well-formed non-necrotising granulomas containing aggregates of tightly clustered epithelioid macrophages (often with giant cells)
In chronic cases the granulomas become enclosed within fibrous rims or may eventually be replaced by hyaline fibrous scars.

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174
Q

What is the typical survival rate in IPF

A

Median survival 3.8 years after diagnosis

Diseases most similar to IPF have a mortality rate of approx. 50% at 5 years

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175
Q

How might diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage appear on CT

A

Ground glass opacification
+/- crazy paving pattern (ground-glass opacity with superimposed interlobular septal thickening and intralobular septal thickening)
May have areas of consolidation
Diffuse nodular densities on HRCT in the subacute phase

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176
Q

How does CTEPH present on CT/MRI

A

Presence of thrombi and occlusion

Enlarged vessels

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177
Q

List the characteristics of a benign tumour

A

Not harmful and not cancer - rarely fatal
Localized at their site of origin
Does not invade nearby tissue or spread to other parts of body (no mets)
Slow growing
Well differentiated - often resemble origin tissue
Well circumscribed and encapsulated
Generally amenable to surgical removal

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178
Q

What causes the dyspnoea seen in respiratory failure

A

The excessive respiratory effort, hypoxia and hypercapnia affect the vagal receptors

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179
Q

What is the common mechanism of death from asthma

A

Asthmatics are at increased risk of respiratory failure - occurs when not enough oxygen is transferred to blood
Seen after life-threatening asthma attacks
If respiratory failure isn’t treated immediately, it can lead to death

Asthma patients might be at a greater risk of suffering cardiovascular and cerebrovascular diseases

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180
Q

How does hypersensitivity pneumonitis present on pulmonary function tests

A

Acute restrictive pattern of lung function tests
Symptoms occur 4-6hrs after exposure, can last 12hrs-several days.
Will happen again re-exposure to antigen

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181
Q

List the common inhaler therapies used in COPD

A

Start with a short acting bronchodilator as required

Double therapy refers to a combination of LAMA, LABA and ICS (LAMA/LABA for those without asthmatic features and LABA/ICS for those with)

Then move to triple therapy - LAMA/LABA/ICS

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182
Q

What microscopic feature may be seen in acute exacerbations of IPF

A

Diffuse alveolar damage

May be super-imposed on the chronic changes

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183
Q

Which PAH patients are treated with vasodilators

A

Group 1 PAH

Given to those who respond to the vasodilator reactivity tests

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184
Q

Why must a pathologist be informed of the location of a biopsy sample

A

So that they can ensure it is the correct cell type for that location
E.g. A sample of gastric mucosa is normal for the stomach but if it’s from the bottom of the oesophagus its suggestive of metaplasia and comes with risks

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185
Q

List the pathological changes seen in the proliferative phase of ARDS

A

Granulation tissue will form in the alveoli and their walls
Type 2 pneumocytes will proliferate
The granulation tissue can then either resolve causing little functional issues or it can cause fibrotic scarring in the alveolar septae
This becomes the late fibrotic stage of ARDS

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186
Q

What name is given to malignant tumours arising in solid mesenchymal tissues

A

Sarcomas

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187
Q

The pathological findings of cor pulmonale are the same as which other condition

A

Right heart failure caused by left heart failure

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188
Q

In which disease would you see Schaumann bodies

A

Sarcoidosis - characteristic

Also seen in other granulomatous diseases like TB

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189
Q

How does smoking affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

It worsens effects of all inhaled mineral dusts, but particularly those due to asbestos

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190
Q

If the pulmonary artery becomes enlarged due to PAH what symptom can it cause

A

It can cause hoarseness if it compresses the laryngeal nerve

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191
Q

List the macroscopic features of emphysema

A

Voluminous lungs - overlap the heart
Upper 2/3 of lung most affected
Alveoli can be seen on the cut surface of lung
Apical blebs and bullae are indicative of severe disease

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192
Q

List some potential complications of lung cancer

A

SVC syndrome
Horner’s syndrome
Paraneoplastic syndromes
Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

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193
Q

What is the main cause of Group 1 PAH

A

Worldwide it is schistosomiasis - around 7% of sufferers develop it
In Europe most cases are idiopathic as Schis not endemic there

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194
Q

Which CTEPH patients are most likely to get surgery

A

It is based on underlying disease and where their clots are
Larger proximal clots are ideal as easier to remove so more likely to get operated on
Lots of small, distal clots may not get as much benefit from surgery

Also depends on patient fitness

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195
Q

List the microscopic features of asthma

A

Airway remodelling (detail in another card)
Curschman spirals in sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage specimens
Numerous eosinophils and Charcot-Leyden crystals- look like growing crystals

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196
Q

Discuss the prevalence of COPD

A

The Global Burden of Disease Study reports a prevalence of 251 million cases globally in 2016.

COPD is likely to increase in coming years due to higher smoking prevalence and aging populations in many countries

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197
Q

List the causes of non-idiopathic interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A
Occupational exposure (asbestosis, silicosis, etc.)
Environmental antigens (farmer’s and pigeon-fancier lung, etc.)
Drugs ± radiation
Systemic illness (Hep C, HIV, IBD)
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198
Q

What is hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

A spectrum of immunologically mediated, mostly interstitial lung disorders, caused by intense, often prolonged, exposure to inhaled organic antigens

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199
Q

What is CTEPH

A

Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension
This is PH with organized, nonacute, thromboembolic material and altered vascular remodeling in the pulmonary vasculature
It is a rare but dangerous complication of PE

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200
Q

How does particle uptake by EC and travel across linings affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

This allows direct interactions with fibroblasts & interstitial macrophages which can trigger immune responses
Some particles may reach lymph nodes via lymphatic drainage directly or migrating macrophages triggering the adaptive immune response

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201
Q

List some of the cause specific treatments used in respiratory failure

A

Bronchodilators in asthma
Corticosteroids if airway swelling and inflammation
Physical therapy and pulmonary rehab after the event especially if were on ventilator
NG/parenteral feeding if ventilated

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202
Q

How do lung diseases cause increased pulmonary hypertension

A

Most commonly cause hypoxemia chronically which leads to vasoconstriction and smooth muscle hypertrophy in the lungs vasculature as well as reduced NO

Diseases of the pulmonary vasculature will cause PH

COPD, bullous disease and PE’s will destroy capillary beds raising pressure

COPD and mechanical ventilation will increase alveolar pressure causing PH

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203
Q

Describe the histological signs of progressive silicosis

A

the early nodules coalesce into hard, collagenous scars (some soften and cavitate centrally due to superimposed TB or ischaemia)
Hallmark histologically = central area of whorled collagen fibres w/ peripheral zone of dust laden macrophages.
Nodules show weakly birefringent silicate particles on polarised microscopy

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204
Q

List potential complications of non-invasive ventilation

A

Gastric aspiration can cause a pneumonia on top of an already diseased and struggling lung

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205
Q

What are the characteristic features of asthma

A

Reversible airflow obstruction caused by bronchial hyperresponsiveness to a variety of stimuli as well as airway inflammation
Chronic inflammation can lead to airway remodelling which is irreversible and causes permanent damage
Variable and recurring symptoms

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206
Q

COPD is most common in which patients

A

Long standing tobacco smokers

Air pollutants may also contribute

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207
Q

Is there geographical variation in COPD

A

More than 90% of COPD deaths occur in low­ and middle­ income countries

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208
Q

List the microscopic features of complex coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

A

Dense collagen and pigment

Has a centre of lesion often necrotic (local ischaemia)

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209
Q

What is an adenoma

A

Benign neoplasm of the epithelial linings of ducts and glands

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210
Q

List potential complications of invasive ventilation

A
Ventilator associated pneumonia 
Ventilator associated  lung injury 
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary oedema
Hypoxemia due to lung damage
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211
Q

There are no specific pathological findings for respiratory failure - true or false

A

True

The pathological findings would be those of the underlying condition causing the respiratory failure

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212
Q

What is the most common primary lung cancer in never-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

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213
Q

Metaplastic epithelium is prone to malignant transformation - true or false

A

True

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214
Q

How does high altitude contribute to Group 3 PH

A

Long exposure causes hypoxia which in turn causes vasoconstriction

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215
Q

How is cardiac catherisation used in PAH

A

Definitive diagnostic test

Also used to perform vasodilator tests

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216
Q

How do you treat the underlying lung pathology in cor pulmonale

A

Each pathology will have its own specific treatment

Any that cause chronic hypoxia will get O2 therapy

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217
Q

List the typical clinical features of Group 1 hypertension

A

Typically symptoms are related to the underlying cause

The PH itself can cause the following non-specific symptoms: 
Dyspnoea on exertion
Fatigue
Syncope (on exertion) 
Chest pain
Anorexia
RUQ pain

If it progresses to RHF you may see the associated congestive symptoms
May also develop murmurs - splitting of second HS or systolic ejection

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218
Q

List disorders affecting the neural drive of respiration that can be the underlying cause of respiratory failure

A

Drugs can depress it - narcotic and sedative overdose
Structural changes - tumours/vascular abnormalities in the brainstem
Metabolic abnormalities - myxoedema and chronic metabolic alkalosis

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219
Q

Why might an occupational lung disease patient get an autopsy

A

They are often reported to fiscal so get one

You can get compensation for certain occupational diseases such as asbestosis

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220
Q

Describe the features of carcinoma in situ

A

Severe dysplasia
Involvement of full thickness of epithelium
No penetration of basement membrane
Irreversible

221
Q

What is the FEV1

A

Forced expiratory volume at one second

How much can you exhale in one second

222
Q

List the macroscopic features of bronchiectasis

A

Affects lower lobes bilaterally

The dilated bronchi appear cystic and are filled with mucopurulent secretions

223
Q

The lung cancer risk from asbestos exposure can be further increased by which other factor

A

Smoking
5x risk in asbestos alone
55x higher risk if they are also a smoker

224
Q

How do you treat Group 2 PAH

A

Optimise blood pressure through medication and lifestyle.
Patients can stay active but should avoid strenuous exercise
Typical heart failure treatment applies such as diuretics (loop), ACE or ARBs and beta-blockers.
Vasodilators haven’t been proven to be effective in this group yet.
If causes by valve disease you can get valve replacement/repair.
Cardiac transplant may be considered if medication is not effective.

225
Q

What are the macroscopic features of IPF

A

Cobblestoned pleural surface due to retraction of scars along interlobular septa

Cut surface will be firm with rubbery white areas of fibrosis
Lower lobes, subpleural regions & interlobular septa, affected preferentially.

226
Q

List the common symptoms of hypersentivity pneumonitis

A

Will have an acute attack following exposure to antigen

Includes fever, SOB, cough, leucocytosis

227
Q

Describe the typical clinical course of chronic respiratory failure

A

Tends to be less evident than the acute form
Lasts a long time
Usually has no cure
Requires lifelong management

228
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cor pulmonale

A

Lung disease cause an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance and arterial pressures - pulmonary hypertension
Afterload increases
Right heart has to work harder to overcome the afterload
This leads to hypertrophy and subsequent dilatation - leads to HF

The strain on the right heart is worsened by chronic hypoxia causing polycythemia which increases the blood viscosity increasing the work of the heart again

229
Q

How might acute phase diffuse alveolar haemorrhage appear on CT

A

The acute phase ranges from lobar areas of ground glass opacification to consolidation.
Dark bronchus sign – bronchi appear darker than the surrounding ground glass opacities

230
Q

What are the common physical signs of COPD

A

Tachypnea and respiratory distress with simple activities
Use of accessory respiratory muscles and paradoxical indrawing of lower intercostal spaces (Hoover sign)
Cyanosis
Elevated jugular venous pulse (JVP)
Peripheral oedema

231
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as N2

A

Metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal or subcarinal lymph nodes

232
Q

What feature of mitoses is suggestive of malignancy

A

Atypical, bizarre, mitotic figures

233
Q

What is Acute interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)

A

It is a viral prodrome syndrome
It’s idiopathic
Excludes those with ARDS which has an identifiable cause and those with underlying fibrotic lung disease or systemic disorders

234
Q

List the different types of diffuse parenchymal lung disease

A
Idiopathic interstitial pneumonias 
Non-idiopathic interstitial pulmonary fibrosis  
Granulomatous disease 
PLCH
Eosinophilic pneumonia
235
Q

How are malignant neoplasms named

A

Same as benign neoplasms + certain additions

Named after cell origin

236
Q

List the features of dysplasia

A

May exhibit considerable pleomorphism
Reversible
Contain large hyperchromatic nuclei with a high N:C ratio
More abundant mitotic figures may be seen

237
Q

Undifferentiated cancers often contain many cells in mitosis - true or false

A

True

They usually have a high rate of proliferation

238
Q

What is the most common malignancy in those exposed to asbestos

A
Lung cancer (5x increased risk) 
Mesothelioma is actually very rare even with exposure
239
Q

What is the major complication of Group 2 PAH

A

The backpressure can lead onto RVF

240
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as T1

A

Tumour ≤ 3cm without pleural or mainstem bronchus involvement

241
Q

What are the general symptoms of interstitial lung disease

A

Dyspnoea, tachypnoea, dry cough, end-inspiratory ‘velcro’ crackles
Hypoxemia, cyanosis and clubbing can occur, but late stage in disease course

242
Q

What is the definition of pulmonary haemorrhage

A

The term can be used for any form of bleeding from the lung, respiratory tract or alveoli

243
Q

Describe shunting

A

Deoxygenated blood passes the alveoli without being oxygenated due to abnormalities in the alveoli
It then mixes with oxygenated blood that’s come through ventilated alveoli which causes the hypoxemia

Occurs when there is a disease of the alveoli themselves that prevents the gas exchange such as pulmonary oedema, pneumonia, pulmonary haemorrhage or atelectasis

244
Q

List the different types of idiopathic interstitial pneumonias

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) - most common

Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)
Cytogenic organising pneumonia (COP)
Acute interstitial pneumonia (AIP)
Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial pneumonia
Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia

245
Q

What causes silicosis

A

Inhalation of the proinflammatory crystalline silicon dioxide
Also called silica

246
Q

How might diffuse alveolar haemorrhage appear on CT in between chronic bleeds

A

Intralobular lines and thickening on top of the ground glass
May have the crazy paving pattern

247
Q

How do you treat Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP) and Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease

A

DIP responds well to steroids

Both are helped by smoking cessation

248
Q

Describe the early histological signs of silicosis

A

Tiny, hardly palpable, discrete pale-black (if coal present) nodules in hilar lymph nodes & upper zones

249
Q

What is the most common symptom of cor pulmonale

A

Exertional dyspnoea

250
Q

How does particle solubility and cytotoxicity affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

Linked to particle size

Small particles made of harmful substances of high solubility = more likely to produce rapid-onset acute lung injury

Larger = more likely to resist dissolution & persist within lung parenchyma for years – tend to evoke fibrosing collagenous pneumoconioses

251
Q

What is the main aim of treatment for cor pulmonale

A

Treat the underlying lung pathology and the heart failure

Variety of drugs used, O2 therapy, salt restriction and some surgical options

252
Q

List the microscopic features of chronic bronchitis

A

Chronic inflammation of airways seen as:
Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages
Thickening of bronchiolar wall due to smooth muscle hypertrophy
Deposition of extracellular matrix in muscle layer
Peribronchial fibrosis
Goblet cell hyperplasia
Enlargement of mucus secreting glands

253
Q

How can you treat Group 1 PAH

A
O2 therapy - can reduce mortality
Diuretics (loop are 1st choice) 
Digoxin 
Anticoagulants 
Vasodilators are given to some 
Lung transplantation is reserved for patients with severe cases
254
Q

What is a meningioma

A

A benign neoplasm of brain coverings

255
Q

List the histological features of Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia (COP)

A

Polyploid plugs of loose organising CT (Masson bodies) within alveolar ducts, alveoli & bronchioles

Connective tissue all the same age and underlying lung normal
No interstitial fibrosis or honeycombing

256
Q

Which part of the lung is most affected in COPD

A

upper two thirds most commonly affected due to smoking (smoke rises)

257
Q

How does particle size affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

Smaller particles can reach terminal small airways, air sacs and deposit in linings
Most dangerous particles are 1-5micrometre in diameter

258
Q

How do you diagnose Group 1 PAH

A

Diagnosis of exclusion
ECG and chest radiographs - may show ventricular dysfunction which suggests PAH
A trans-thoracic echo with Doppler - used to measure PA pressure and assess ventricles.
Definitive test is right-sided cardiac catherisation

Further tests dependent on underlying cause

259
Q

What is the mechanism of death in Group 1 PAH

A

Most common cause of death is RHF (can lead to sudden cardiac death or arrhythmias)
Dilation of the PA can cause dissection/rupture and compression of the left coronary artery.

260
Q

Describe the trend in the prevalence of lung cancer

A

Has been decreasing for both men and women since the 1950s

261
Q

List the different histological subtypes of lung adenocarcinoma

A
Lepidic 
Acinar 
Papillary 
Micropapillary 
Solid
262
Q

Describe an invasive carcinoma

A

Affects the surrounding tissues

Penetrate the basement membrane

263
Q

List the common symptoms of lung cancer

A
Weight loss 
Fever 
Cough 
Haemoptysis 
Chest pain 
Pneumonia, abscess, lobar collapse 
Hoarseness 
Diaphragm  paralysis
264
Q

How can CTEPH cause death

A

If untreated it can progress to right ventricular failure and/or severe hypoxemic respiratory failure.

Respiratory failure may require ventilation.

Can lead to cardiogenic shock and death.

Death due to shock or the other complications of RHF

265
Q

Describe the onset of late-onset asthma

A

Occurs in those aged 12-65
It is more severe, and associated with a faster decline in lung function, particularly in patients with a smoking history
Includes occupational asthma

266
Q

How does COVID-19 interstitial pneumonia affect lung function

A

It makes it abnormal
May see restrictive abnormalities, reduced diffusion capacity, small airways obstruction
The abnormalities seem to be related to acute, severe episodes with high levels of inflammatory markers

267
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind sarcoidosis

A

Includes several immunologic abnormalities suggesting cell-mediated immune response to unidentified antigen
Exact cause unknown

Includes intra-alveolar & interstitial accumulation of CD4+ T cells
Raised levels of T cell-derived Th1 cytokines
High levels of cytokines favour recruitment of more T cells + monocytes which can lead to granuloma formation
Impaired dendritic cell function

268
Q

How does COVID-19 interstitial pneumonia present on imaging

A

Patients who have respiratory deterioration show ground-glass opacities on chest CT
Fibrotic abnormalities

269
Q

Which condition increases your genetic susceptibility to COPD

A

Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
This is a deficiency in an elastase which should protect the lungs from elastic breakdown
Without it you get early onset emphysema

270
Q

How do you treat Group 3 PH

A

Treatment is directed at the underlying lung disease.
Ideally treat this early to prevent progression to or of the pulmonary hypertension.

CPAP can reduce pressures in those with OSA – potentially reverses PH.

Inhaled vasodilators can be used in COPD patients to improve V/Q matching.

271
Q

In which lung disease would you see eggshell calcification

A

Silicosis

272
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma is highly malignant - true or false

A

True
There is virtually no pre-invasive phase
2/3 present with distant metastases – median survival of 10 months

273
Q

How do you manage asthma

A

Start with SABA alone
Then offer a low dose ICS as maintenance
Then introduce a LTRA in addition to ICS and review response
If asthma is uncontrolled on this then offer aLABAin combination with the ICS, and review LTRA treatment

Some more targeted treatments are available for specific types of asthma such as monoclonal antibodies

274
Q

How does environment affect the prevalence of asthma

A

Has been shown to alter prevalence
Migrants from low prevalence areas to high areas will initially have the lower prevalence compared to native people but the incidence rises to a similar proportion with increasing length of stay

275
Q

What pathological features may you find in the liver and portal system of someone with cor pulmonale

A

Congestive hepatomegaly
Nutmeg liver – pericentrally red and congested, periportally normal and tan
Splenomegaly and platelet sequestration
GI tract congestion and oedema

276
Q

Squamous cell lung carcinoma metastasizes late - true or false

A

True

Can be associated with better outcomes as a result

277
Q

Describe the histological appearance of squamous cell lung cancer

A

‘Cobblestone’ appearance of polygonal cells
Tumours may have central cavitation
May see keratinisation with a central pearl

278
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis

A

Initiated by exposure to noxious chemicals which leads on to:
Mucus hypersecretion
CFTR dysfunction- acquired by smoking, abnormal dehydrated mucus
Chronic inflammation
Infection

279
Q

What name is given to a malignant neoplasm of the blood vessels

A

Angiosarcoma

280
Q

What is implied by the use of the term cancer

A

This implies malignancy

281
Q

What is anthracnosis

A

Form of pneumoconiosis
Most innocuous coal-induced lesion
Seen to some extent in city living & smokers)

282
Q

List the microscopic features of Group 1 PAH

A

Endothelial dysfunction.
Decreased vasodilator production (prostacyclin, NO) and an increase in vasoconstrictors (endothelin).
Plexiform lesions

283
Q

What causes the Curschman spirals seen in asthma

A

They occur due to extrusion of mucus plugs from sub-epithelial mucous gland ducts or bronchioles
Will be seen in sputum of bronchoalveolar lavage specimens - look like long thing spirals (string?)

284
Q

In which tissues/organs are carcinomas in situ commonly seen

A

Skin
Breast
Bladder
Uterine cervix

285
Q

Through what mechanisms can respiratory failure be fatal

A
Multiorgan failure (heart, brain, kidneys)  due to inadequate O2
Sepsis
Pulmonary dysfunction can be enough on its own
Due to complications of respiratory failure (arrhythmia, MI, heart failure, GI haemorrhage, AKI, brain injury and death, heart failure, endocarditis)
286
Q

Typically what colour is lung cancer

A

Yellowish/grey

287
Q

Describe the progression of asbestosis

A

It is rare <10y from exposure
More common presents after 20-30y
Disease can remain static or progressive to respiratory failure etc

288
Q

When does metaplasia occur

A

Always found in association with tissue damage, repair and regeneration
The tissue type can change to one better suited to the local environment - e.g. Barret’s oesophagus

289
Q

What is the TNM staging system

A

The system used to stage all cancers
T refers to the tumour itself and ranges from Tis-T4
N refers to nodes and ranges from N0-N3
M refers to metastasis and ranges from M0-M1

290
Q

In which lung disease would you see whorled collagen fibres with peripheral zone of dust-laden macrophages

A

Silicosis

291
Q

What causes respiratory failure

A

It happens when gas exchange within the lungs is inefficient
This causes hypoxia and potentially hypercapnia

292
Q

What proportion of IPF patients have PH

A

28-46%

293
Q

What are the 3 main categories of lung cancers

A

Small cell - 15% of cases
Non-small cell
Metastases

294
Q

How does the prevalence of asthma vary geographically

A

The prevalence is highest in developed countries and lowest in developing countries
However, rates in developing countries may be underestimated and is increasing rapidly in as lifestyles become westernized and more urbanized
Stable or decreasing rates in developed countries

295
Q

What is cor pulmonale

A

Right heart failure that is caused by a lung pathology

not left heart failure

296
Q

What are the 4 main subtypes of asthma

A

Atopic
Non-atopic
Drug induced
Occupational

297
Q

How can you differentiate between an old and recent fibrotic lesion in IPF

A

Earliest lesions identified by exuberant proliferation of fibroblasts (foci)
As time goes on these become more fibrotic and less cellular

298
Q

List the microscopic features of Group 2 PAH

A

Intimal fibrosis and myofibroblast proliferation

Increased pressure and endothelial changes cause a release of growth factors which increase elastin production

299
Q

When does allergic asthma usually present

A

Usually presents in childhood
Commonly associated with eczema, rhinitis, orfood allergy, a family history of asthma (atopy)
Presents with wheezing and coughing with and between viral infections

300
Q

Which blood abnormalities increase your risk of developing CTEPH

A

Abnormal fibrinogen structure
Elevated factor VIII, von Willebrand factor, or type 1 plasminogen activator inhibitor
Elevated lipoproteins

301
Q

What pathological features may you find in the body cavity of someone with cor pulmonale

A

Pericardial and pleural effusions
Ascites

Caused by the increased pressure

302
Q

What is senescence

A

Deterioration with age / loss of a cell’s power of division and growth
Linked to telomere loss

303
Q

What results would be expected on the spirometry of a patient with restrictive lung disease

A
Normal FEV1:FVC ratio - >70% expected 
Variable FEV1 
Reduced FVC 
Total lung capacity is reduced 
Reduced residual volume
Normal airway resistance
304
Q

What name is given to a malignant neoplasm of the brain coverings

A

Invasive Meningioma

305
Q

How does hypersensitivity pneumonitis present on CXR

A

Multinodular interstitial infiltrates

306
Q

Describe SVC syndrome

A

Obstruction of the superior vena cava leads to facial swelling, dyspnoea, cough and orthopnoea

307
Q

Describe the general pathogenesis behind diffuse parenchymal lung disease

A

Thought to begin with an acute injury to the pulmonary parenchyma
This leads to chronic interstitial inflammation
This results in -> fibroblast activation and proliferation with eventual pulmonary fibrosis + tissue destruction

308
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Pulmonary vasculitis

309
Q

Describe the epidemiology of group 1 PAH

A

Estimated 6.6-26 cases per million adults in Europe
Women are more likely to be affected (65-80% predominance)
Average age at diagnosis is 50s
No clear race predominance

310
Q

How does CTEPH present on chest radiography

A

May be normal until disease progresses
Right ventricular enlargement
Areas of lung hypoperfusion or infarction (Westmark sign and Hampton hump)

311
Q

In which part of the lung does adenocarcinoma typically occur

A

Tend to occur peripherally

312
Q

What are the main mechanisms behind type 1 respiratory failure

A

Type 1 is caused by V/Q mismatch, hypoventilation and shunting

313
Q

What causes the hoarseness seen in lung cancer

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve invasion

314
Q

List the common oral therapies used in COPD

A

Prophylactic antibiotics
Theophylline
Corticosteroids - keep dose as low as possible and long term use not usually recommended
Mucolytics - if chronic sputum production
Roflumilast - long-acting inhibitor of the enzyme phosphodiesterase-4.

315
Q

What causes Horner’s syndrome

A

Caused by pancoast tumours at lung apices infiltrating the sympathetic ganglia

316
Q

Which occupational lung disease features pleural plaques

A

Asbestosis

317
Q

How do you name benign tumours of epithelial cells

A

Some based on the cell of origin

Others are based on their microscopic appearance/macroscopic architecture

318
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of emphysema

A

Patients may be very thin with a barrel chest
Patients typically have little or no cough or expectoration
Severe dyspnoea from early on
Breathing may be assisted by pursed lips and use of accessory respiratory muscles; patients may adopt the tripod sitting position
The chest may be hyper resonant, and wheezing may be heard
Heart sounds are very distant

319
Q

Describe the epidemiology

A

The prevalence can’t be known because it is a syndrome not its own disease

320
Q

List the pathological changes seen in the late fibrtoic phase of ARDS

A

Fibrotic scarring in the alveolar septae

321
Q

List the types of granulomatous diffuse parenchymal lung disease

A

Sarcoidosis

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

322
Q

What is obstructive lung disease

A

Refers to a group of diseases characterized by an increase in resistance to airflow due to diffuse, widespread airway disease
Can affect any level of the respiratory tract

323
Q

What name is given to a benign neoplasm of the connective tissues (fibrous tissues)

A

Fibroma

324
Q

What are the histological features of Acute interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)

A

Diffuse alveolar damage with subsequent fibrosis

DAD cause lung to be firm and rubbery

325
Q

List potential complications and subsequent cause of death in diffuse parenchymal lung diseases (DPLDs)

A
Progressive respiratory failure
Cor pulmonale 
Pulmonary embolism
Pneumothorax
Super-imposed infections, e.g. pneumonia, TB 
Bronchogenic carcinoma
326
Q

What are the 5 WHO groups of pulmonary hypertension

A

Group 1 - Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
Group 2 - Pulmonary hypertension due to left-sided heart disease
Group 3 - Pulmonary hypertension due to lung diseases and/or hypoxia
Group 4 - Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH)
Group 5 - Pulmonary hypertension with unclear or multifactorial aetiologies
There is also a paediatric-specific category which includes persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn.

327
Q

What are the principles of management of respiratory failure

A

Treat the underlying condition
AND
Correct the hypoxaemia with O2 management

However, care needs to be taken with O2 management in type 2 respiratory failure - reduces hypoxic drive

328
Q

What results would be expected on the spirometry of a patient with obstructive lung disease

A
Reduced FEV1:FVC ratio - <70% expected 
Reduced FEV1 
Normal FVC 
Total lung capacity normal or increased 
Normal or increased residual volume
329
Q

Which conditions can cause subgroup 4 in Group 1 PAH (e.g. conditions which cause localised lesion in the arterioles)

A

CREST, congenital L-R shunts, portopulmonary hypertension, HIV associated PAH and schistosomiasis

330
Q

What are the most common causes of management complications in the treatment of respiratory failure

A

O2 therapy

Invasive ventilation

331
Q

Which diffuse alveolar lung diseases are associated with smoking?

A

DIP and RB-ILD

Both respond to cessation

332
Q

What is a squamous cell carcinoma

A

Malignant neoplasm of stratified squamous epithelium

333
Q

Which areas of the body most commonly present with sarcoidosis

A

Most common clinical presentation is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy or parenchymal lung involvement.
2nd most common – eye and skin lesions.

334
Q

List the microscopic features of Group 4 PH (CTEPH)

A

Microthrombi

Plexiform lesions

335
Q

In which cells is dysplasia principally found

A

Epithelial cells

336
Q

Describe the structure of Schaumann bodies

A

Laminated concretions of Ca & proteins
Asteroid bodies = stellate inclusions

Both found within giant cells in 60% of non-necrotising granulomas

337
Q

List potential complications of respiratory failure which are seen in the heart

A

Heart failure
Arrhythmia
MI

In acute RF particularly: 
Reduced CO
Hypotension
Arrhythmia
Endocarditis
MI
338
Q

Give an example of a marker of disease activity in sarcoidosis

A

High levels of TNF in the bronchoalveolar fluid

It is releases at increased levels by activated alveolar macrophages

339
Q

How does squamous cell lung cancer form

A

Starts as squamous metaplasia in bronchial epithelium

This leads to carcinoma in situ

340
Q

Give examples of obstructive lung diseases

A
Cystic Fibrosis 
Bronchiectasis 
Asthma 
Bronchitis (chronic) 
Emphysema 

Last 2 combine for COPD

341
Q

Describe the features of asbestosis

A

Get fibrosis around respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts (adjacent alveolar sacs + alveoli can be affected)
Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
Causes distorted architecture - enlarged airspaces enclosed by thick fibrous walls
Eventually honeycombing occurs
Similar pattern of fibrosis as UIP
Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis with asbestos bodies

342
Q

Which disease presents with patchy submucosal infiltrate of lymphocytes & histocytes

A

Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease

343
Q

List the main symptoms of asthma

A

Wheezing
Shortness of breath
Chest tightness and non-productive cough

All episodic

344
Q

How do you treat CTEPH

A

Pulmonary thromboarterectomy is the definitive surgical treatment
If ineligible for the thromboarterectomy, then balloon angioplasty can be performed to improve flow and perfusion
It is recommended that patients go on lifelong anticoagulation (warfarin is typical choice)

345
Q

What causes Group 3 PH

A

Other lung disease or hypoxia. This includes:

  • COPD
  • Interstitial Lung Disease (ILD) such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
  • Sleep-disordered breathing disorders like obstructive sleep apnoea.
  • Alveolar hypoventilation disorders
  • Long exposure to high altitude
346
Q

List common signs of cor pulmonale

A
Cyanosis
Tachycardia
Raised JVP 
Loud pan systolic murmur
Ascites
Peripheral oedema
Hepatosplenomegaly
347
Q

What is the prevalence of asthma

A

It is one of the most common chronic,non-communicable diseases worldwide
4% of global adult population diagnosed

348
Q

List potential complications of respiratory failure which are seen in the brain

A

Irreversible brain damage and brain death

349
Q

Which neuromuscular diseases can cause cor pulmonale

A

Myasthenia gravis
Poliomyelitis
MND

350
Q

List the types of inflammation that asthma can be divided into

A

eosinophilic(allergic and non-allergic)

Non-eosinophilic (neutrophilic type 1 and type 17 and paucigranulocytic)

Mixed granulocytic inflammation

351
Q

What is the normal nucleus:cytoplasm ratio

A

Between 1:4 and 1:6

352
Q

List genetic changes that make you more susceptible to asthma

A

Chromosome 5q locus – near genes for IL-4, IL-5, IL-9, IL-13 and receptor for IL-4
Class 2 HLA alleles linked to production of IgE against some allergens
Mutations of genes encoding IL-33 and its receptor result in production of TH2 cytokines
Mutations of gene encoding TSLP which is a cytokine with a role in initiating allergic reactions

353
Q

What are the 2 main subgroups of group 4 PH

A

Cases caused by chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTEPH)

Cases caused by other obstructive causes (e.g. tumours, congenital stenosis).

354
Q

Describe the appearance of nutmeg liver

A

Pericentrally red and congested

Periportally normal and tan

355
Q

What is squamous cell lung cancer associated with

A

Smoking

356
Q

What is another name for small cell lung carcinoma

A

oat cell carcinoma

357
Q

Describe the general prognosis for lung cancer

A

Generally poor as disease tends to be advanced when it presents
Overall 5-year survival rate of 18.7%

358
Q

List potential complications of O2 therapy in respiratory failure

A

Patients with type 2 respiratory failure may use a hypoxic drive to drive their breathing (an effect of chronic hypercapnia)
O2 therapy can reduce this hypoxia and therefore reduce their breathing drive

359
Q

What is the definition of differentiation (in regards to neoplasia)

A

The extent to which neoplastic parenchymal cells resemble the corresponding normal parenchymal cells morphologically and functionally

360
Q

How does interstitial lung disease typically present on CXR

A

Bilateral small nodules

Irregular lines or ground-glass shadows all corresponding to areas of interstitial fibrosis.

361
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as M0

A

Those with no distant metastases

362
Q

What pathological features may you find in the heart of someone with cor pulmonale

A

Right heart hypertrophy and dilatation

Left heart will be unaffected

363
Q

Which intrinsic lung disease present in the younger age groups (20-40)

A

Sarcoidosis
Collagen-vascular-associated diseases
Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis

364
Q

Describe the mortality trends in Group 2 PAH

A

Group 2 has a reduced survival compared to other types of PH.

Presence of PH in those with LHD leads to greater mortality.

365
Q

What are the main pathological findings of cor pulmonale

A
Pericardial and pleural effusions
Ascites
Hepatosplenomegaly
Nutmeg liver
Pretibial pedal and presacral oedema
GI tract oedema
Pathological findings of underlying cause
Hypertrophy and dilatation confined to the right side of the heart
366
Q

Symptoms develop quickly in lung cancer - true or false

A

False

Usually insidious and non-specific leading to late diagnosis

367
Q

How may PAH appear on a CXR

A

Enlarged pulmonary arteries
Reduction in blood vessels across the lung fields (oligemic)
May have right heart dilatation

368
Q

What causes occupational asthma

A

Exposure to occupational antigens such as:
Fumes (resins)
Dusts (cotton)
Gases (toluene), chemicals (formaldehyde)

369
Q

List the microscopic features of airway remodelling seen in asthma

A

Airway remodelling:
Thickening of the airway wall
Subbasement membrane fibrosis (deposition of type 1 and 3 collagen)
Increased vascularity, Increase in the size of goblet cells
Hypertrophy and/or hyperplasia of bronchial wall muscle
Increased extracellular matrix

370
Q

What name is given to malignant tumours arising in epithelial cells

A

Carcinomas

371
Q

List potential nutritional complications of respiratory failure

A

Malnutrition
Diarrhoea due to NG feeding
Hypoglycaemia and electrolyte disturbance due to parenteral feeding

372
Q

List the common features of hypoxia

A
Dyspnea 
Restlessness 
Agitation 
Confusion 
Central cyanosis 
Tachycardia and arrhythmia 
Myoclonus 
Seizures
373
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cor pulmonale

A

It’s exact prevalence is unknown
In the U.S. 6-7% of adult heart disease is CP
Countries with lots of smoking and air pollution will have higher prevalence’s as they will have higher rates of lung disease

374
Q

Describe hypoventilation

A

The lungs are not being ventilated properly
Gradients of PaO2, PaCO2 and intra alveolar O2 remain normal
Instead caused by CNS damage and depression, chest wall and muscular issues

375
Q

Patients with Group 2 PAH may have a history of what other conditions

A

MI, cardiomyopathy, hypertension or pericarditis

376
Q

Explain how malignant neoplasms spread

A
Either by: 
Direct invasion of surrounding tissues 
Via the lymphatic system 
Via haematogenous spread 
Or by seeding
377
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is rare in children - true or false

A

True

Most patients with IPF are >50 y/o

378
Q

How does Group 3 PH progress

A

Increase in pulmonary pressure will eventually lead to heart failure

379
Q

What complications can arise when treating COPD patients with O2

A

COPD patients may have chronic hypercapnia and therefore use hypoxia for respiratory drive
By giving them O2 you can remove this drive

If its home O2 therapy need to ensure they don’t smoke to avoid explosion

380
Q

What is a haemangioma

A

A benign neoplasm of the blood vessels

381
Q

Describe the pathology behind hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

There is an abnormal sensitivity/heightened reactivity to antigen which leads to pathological changes involving alveolar walls
2/3 develop non-necrotising granulomas which suggest T-cell mediated (IV) hypersensitivity reaction
Can progress to severe chronic fibrotic lung disease if not addressed

382
Q

Is is chronic bronchitis or emphysema that is associated with infection

A

Chronic bronchitis

Infections occur occasionally in emphysema but much more common in CB

383
Q

List the potential pharmalogical treatments for diffuse parenchymal lung diseases (DPLDs)

A

Prednisolone ± cytotoxic agents (potential steroid-sparing effect) in some diagnoses.
Antifibrotic mediations, e.g., colchicine, cyclosporine, may reduce the rate of decline in FVC in patents with IPF.
In general, NSIP, DIP, & COP are more responsive to corticosteroids and immunosuppressives. UIP generally unresponsive to these.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors and TGF-b antagonists have been shown to slow progression of IPF and are the only targeted therapy so far.

384
Q

How does lung cancer incidence change with age

A

Incidence increases as age does
Peaks for both men an women in 70s
Starts decreasing for 80+

385
Q

What causes the airway remodelling seen in asthma

A

Repeated inflammation due to allergen exposure

This leads to irreversible damage

386
Q

Which is the most common idiopathic interstitial pneumonia?

A

IPF

387
Q

What is metaplasia

A

Replacement of one type of cell with another type

388
Q

What external pathological findings may be seen in a person with cor pulmonale

A

Pretibial and pedal oedema
Presacral oedema in bed ridden patients
Ansarca rarely (general swelling of whole body)

389
Q

How can you differentiate between asthma and COPD if history and exam leaves uncertainty

A

Asthma will have a large response (over 400ml) to bronchodilators and oral steroids (COPD wont)

Serial peak flow measurements showing 20% or greater diurnal or day-to-day variability suggest asthma

Clinically significant COPD is not present if theFEV1and FEV1/FVCratio return to normal with drug therapy.

390
Q

What are the clinical characteristics of chronic bronchitis

A

Patients may be obese
Frequent cough and spitting are typical
Use of accessory muscles of respiration is common though dyspnoea is milder
Coarse rhonchi and wheezing may be heard on auscultation
Patients may have signs of right heart failure (i.e. cor pulmonale), such as edema and cyanosis
Infections are common

391
Q

What causes atopic asthma

A

Caused by a Th2 and IgE mediated response to environmental allergens
Characterized by an immediate phase and a late phase reaction

392
Q

If the cor pulmonale is caused by CTEPH or PE what other treatment may be required

A

Anticoagulation

393
Q

How might localised pulmonary haemorrhage appear on CXR/CT

A

hazy consolidation or ground glass infiltrates

394
Q

What causes bronchiectasis

A

Congenital and hereditary conditions
Severe necrotizing pneumonia
Immune disorders
Bronchial obstruction Idiopathic - 50% of cases

395
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of emphysema

A

Toxic injury and inflammation
Protease-antiprotease imbalance (e.g. increase in protease = more breakdown)
Oxidative stress - may enhance inflammatory response

396
Q

List the causes of non-idiopathic interstitial pulmonary fibrosis

A
Occupational exposure (asbestosis, silicosis, etc.)
Environmental antigens (farmer’s and pigeon-fancier lung, etc.)
Drugs ± radiation
Systemic illness (Hep C, HIV, IBD)
397
Q

What is the aim of treatment in Group 2 PAH

A

Mainly involves treating the left-sided heart failure.

398
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as N0

A

Those with no metastasis to regional lymph nodes

399
Q

The presence of mitoses means it is a malignancy - true or false

A

False

Can be seen in normal cells - e.g. dividing or hyperplastic

400
Q

How might diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage appear on CXR

A

Often non-specific

May see bilateral air-space consolidation with apical sparing

401
Q

What is the definition of neoplasia

A

New, uncontrolled growth of cells that is not under physiologic control

402
Q

Describe the characteristics of non-specific interstitial pneumonia

A

Cellular and fibrosing pattern.
Fibrosis: diffuse/patchy interstitial fibrotic lesions of roughly the same age (important distinction from UIP)
No fibroblastic foci, honeycombing, hyaline membranes or granulomas

403
Q

List the different types of idiopathic interstitial pneumonias

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) - most common

Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)
Cytogenic organising pneumonia (COP)
Acute interstitial pneumonia (AIP)
Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial pneumonia
Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia

404
Q

Which factors affect the development of dust-borne diseases

A

Dust retention - how much stays in lungs
Particle size
Particle solubility and cytotoxicity
Particle uptake by EC or travel across the linings
Activation of the inflammatory system
Tobacco smoking

405
Q

List potential complications of respiratory failure which are seen in the GI tract

A

Stress ulcers
Ileus
Haemorrhage
Gastric distension

406
Q

Define type 2 respiratory failure

A

PaO2 < 8 kPa
PaCO2 > 6kPa
High CO2

407
Q

List the potential mechanisms of death in cor pulmonale

A

CP can decompensate
Rarely can progress to LHF
Massive peripheral oedema can cause hypovolemic shock
Hypertrophied cardiac tissue may become ischemic which can lead to arrhythmias
Renal congestion can lead to azotemia (excess N)
CP can cause venous congestion and hypoxia in the CNS
Venous congestion and hypoxia in the CNS caused by CP can also be fatal
Massive PE that caused the CP can lead to obstructive shock
Complications of the underlying cause of CP can be fatal

All of the above can be fatal

408
Q

Which fibrotic lung diseases come under the chronic category

A

Those resembling IPF and usually share a common pathology, e.g. UIP.
Many of the rheumatologic/CTDs, chronic HSP, radiation and drug-related pulmonary fibrosis, occupational exposures.

409
Q

A malignant lesion on the R lung is approximately 4 cm across and is invading the main bronchus. Biopsies show involvement of the left hilar lymph nodes, and metastases have been found in the brain and spine. What is the correct staging using the TNM system?

A

T2 - Tumour 3-5cm and involving main bronchus
N3 - mets to contralateral hilar nodes
M1 - mets present

410
Q

What is a fibrosarcoma

A

Malignant neoplasm of the connective tissues (fibrous tissues)

411
Q

List examples of chronic interstitial and infiltrative disease

A

Pneumoconiosis
Interstitial fibrosis
DALDs

412
Q

What name is given to a malignant neoplasm of the epithelial linings of ducts and glands

A

Adenocarcinoma

413
Q

Give examples of vasodilator drugs

A

Endothelin receptor antagonists - ambrisentan)
PDE-5 inhibitors – tadalafil
Prostacyclin analogues or agonists – beraprost

414
Q

What is restrictive lung disease

A

Refers to diseases which involve reduced expansion of lung parenchyma and result in a decreased lung capacity

415
Q

What are the complications of CTEPH treatment

A

Aside from the typical risks of cardiothoracic surgery, there are 2 main complication that occur during thromboarterectomy:
Pulmonary artery seal – the redistribution of blood flow causes a severe V/Q mismatch
Reperfusion pulmonary oedema- fluid shift occurs in the surgical area

Also have the typical side effects of medications.

416
Q

In COPD, when the emphysema is moderate or severe, what is the main mechanism of airflow limitation

A

The loss of elastic recoil caused by emphysema

Rather than the bronchiolar disease

417
Q

Describe the macroscopic features of sarcoidosis seen in the lungs

A

No macroscopic changes except in advanced cases where granulomas join to form small nodules
These are palpable or visible as 1-2cm non-caseating, non-cavitated consolidations and are primarily distributed along lymphatics and around bronchi and blood vessels.

418
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as T2

A
Tumour 3-5cm 
OR 
Involvement of the visceral pleura or mainstem bronchus but not the carina 
OR 
Lobar atelectasis
419
Q

Silicosis is rapidly fatal - true or false

A

False

It is a slow killer but significantly impaired lung function impacts QoL

420
Q

What is the most common form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia

A

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

421
Q

How do you manage Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia (COP)

A

Some recover spontaneously
Most need oral steroids for 6m+ for complete recovery
Long-term prognosis depends on underlying disorder

422
Q

Describe the typical clinical course of acute respiratory failure

A

Comes on quickly
Much more serious and life threatening than the chronic course
Can be managed at the time and resolve or leaves long term complications

423
Q

List the potential surgical treatments for cor pulmonale

A

Venesection if hematocrit >65% in polycythemia
Pulmonary embolectomy in PE that’s haemodynamically unstable
Single/double lung and heart transplants in terminal stages in young patients

424
Q

What happens when mast cells degranulate in atopic asthma

A

They produce cytokines and other mediators which induce induce the early phase hypersensitivity reaction and then eventually the late phase reaction
The mediators trigger the bronchoconstriction by stimulating the parasympathetic system

425
Q

What determines the rate of growth of a tumour

A

Doubling time of tumor cells
Fraction of cells that have the ability to replicate
The rate at which tumor cells die and shed

426
Q

Describe the histological features of small cell lung carcinoma

A

Poorly differentiated cells with little cytoplasm and ill-defined borders

427
Q

What is the most common cause of acute onset cor pulmonale

A

Massive PE

428
Q

What is the prognosis of cor pulmonale

A

50% deceased within 5 years

Prognosis depends on underlying cause with lung parenchymal disease having a worse prognosis

429
Q

Describe the appearance of the plexiform lesions seen in pulmonary hypertension

A

Lesions have medial hypertrophy, eccentric or concentric laminar intimal proliferation and fibrosis, fibrinoid degeneration, and thrombotic lesions

430
Q

List potential complications of tracheotomy

A

Haemorrhage
Recurrent laryngeal and vagus nerve damage
Pneumothorax
Obstruction of the airway from mucus and secretions or from scarring in healing
Collapse of the trachea

431
Q

Which drugs can induce PAH in Group 1

e.g. subgroup 3

A

Aminorex, fenfluramine derivatives, and toxic rapeseed oil

Other risks included amphetamine, cocaine, St John’s wort

432
Q

Which other diagnoses must be excluded when considering sarcoidosis

A

TB, fungal infections and berylliosis

All can also cause non-caseating granulomas

433
Q

List the subdivisions of group 1 PAH

A

Group 1 - Pulmonary arterial hypertension - idiopathic
Group 2 - heritable PAH - caused by gene mutations included in BMPR2 and ALK2
Group 3 - drug or toxin induced
Group 4 - due to conditions which cause localised lesion in the arterioles

434
Q

List the microscopic features of IPF

A

Patchy interstitial fibrosis which varies in intensity and age
Typical to see both early and late lesions at same time
Honeycomb fibrosis
Mild to moderate inflammation in the fibrotic areas - mostly lymphocytes, few plasma cells, neutrophils, eosinophils & mast cells
Foci of squamous metaplasia + SM hyperplasia may be present
May also have pulmonary arterial hypertensive changes
Diffuse alveolar damage in acute exacerbations

435
Q

List some of the effects that asbestos has on the lungs

A
Localised fibrous plaque
Pleural effusions (recurrent)
Parenchymal interstitial fibrosis (asbestosis)
Lung carcinoma
Mesothelioma
436
Q

Which left-sided heart diseases can cause Group 2 PAH

A
Systolic dysfunction
 Diastolic dysfunction
 Valvular defects
 Congenital or acquired inflow/outflow tract obstruction
 Congenital cardiomyopathies.
437
Q

What are the symptoms of Acute interstitial Pneumonia (AIP)

A

Sudden onset dyspnoea
Rapid development of respiratory failure
Non-productive cough

438
Q

Sarcoidosis lesions in the lungs have a tendency to heal - true or false

A

True

Often there is – varying stages of fibrosis and hyalinisation seen

439
Q

Which other diseases does asbestosis increase your risk of

A

5-fold increase in lung cancer - it is a tumour initiator + promoter

If you also smoking = 55-fold increase in lung cancer
Toxic chemicals such as tobacco carcinogens can attach to the asbestos fibres and make them a more potent carcinogen

440
Q

Radiographic imaging in patients with group 2 PAH may show what

A
Enlarged PA
Ventricular dilatation 
Enlarged heart
Oedema
Dilated left atrium is a sign of chronic elevated left sided pressures
441
Q

What percentage of lung cancers are caused by tobacco

A

70%-90% of all cases

442
Q

How do you manage COPD

A

Provide with info and support
Assess and address smoking – nicotine replacement therapy
Vaccinations - Offer pneumococcal vaccination and an annual influenza
Develop an individualized exacerbation action plan
Pulmonary rehabilitation + chest physio
Inhaled and oral therapies

443
Q

Describe the course of acute fibrotic lung diseases

A

Has a fulminant, progressive, remitting, or resolving course

444
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Group 2 PAH

A

Left sided pressures increase and causes backpressure in the pulmonary venous system
Persistent high pressures lead to structural and functional changes in the pulmonary vessels
This includes vasoconstriction which increases the mean pulmonary arterial pressure.
Right ventricular systolic pressure increases in order to maintain CO

445
Q

In patients with type 1 respiratory failure, what concentration of O2 should be given as treatment

A

24-60% O2

446
Q

What type of pleural effusion can be caused by asbestosis

A

Usually serous but can be bloody

447
Q

Describe the pathological features of acute phase hypersentivity pneumonitis

A

Acute alveolar damage (1st hrs-days from exposure)

448
Q

How can pulmonary haemorrhage lead to death

A

Repeated bleeds can lead onto organising pneumonia, collagen deposition in the vessels and eventually pulmonary fibrosis.
All of this disruption can be fatal

Haemorrhage related respiratory failure is a common cause of death

449
Q

How might localised pulmonary haemorrhage appear on CXR/CT

A

hazy consolidation or ground glass infiltrates

450
Q

How does squamous cell lung cancer present on radiographs

A

Asymptomatic and invisible

451
Q

Which part of the tumour determines its growth and spread

A

The stroma

452
Q

What are the main mechanisms behind type 2 respiratory failure

A

Type 2 is caused by alveolar hypoventilation with/without V/Q mismatch

453
Q

Define each T stage in the TMN staging system (general cancer)

A

Tis - carcinoma in situ

T1 - Tumour ≤ 3cm
T1a – ≤ 1cm
T1b – 1-2cm
T1c – 2-3cm

T2 - Tumour 3-5cm
T3 - Tumour 5-7cm
T4 - Tumour > 7cm

454
Q

List the diseases that cause diffuse alveolar filling that can be the underlying cause of respiratory failure

A

Cardiogenic and neurogenic oedema
Pneumonia
Extensive pulmonary haemorrhage

They all lead to inadequate gas exchange

455
Q

List disorders of the peripheral nervous system, respiratory muscles and chest wall that can be the underlying cause of respiratory failure

A
Guilliane Barre syndrome
Myasthenia gravis
Muscular dystrophy
Morbid obesity
Kyphoscoliosis

They all cause inadequate ventilation causing hypoxia and hypercapnia

456
Q

Tobacco smoking accounts for as much as 70% of COPD cases - true or false

A

False

Its as much as 90%

457
Q

What can cause hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Exposure to inhaled organic antigens

Includes: bird fancier’s lung, farmer’s lung, etc.

458
Q

List the macroscopic features of chronic bronchitis

A

Hyperemia
Swelling
Oedema of mucus membranes
Heavy casts of secretions and pus fill the bronchi and bronchioles

459
Q

Which types of cancer can be caused by asbestos exposure

A

Lung carcinoma
Mesothelioma
Extra-pulmonary neoplasms such as laryngeal or ovarian

460
Q

What are the clinical features of respiratory failure

A

They will have clinical features of the underlying cause (e.g. pneumonia > fever, cough, sputum etc.)

Dyspnoea is the common symptom
Will have features of hypoxia and hypercapnia (other card)

461
Q

List diseases that can lead to Type 1 respiratory failure

A
COPD 
Pneumonia 
Asthma 
Pulmonary oedema 
Pulmonary fibrosis 
PE 
Pulmonary Hypertension 
ARDS 

Many more

462
Q

Describe the pathological features of chronic phase hypersentivity pneumonitis

A

Interstitial fibrosis with fibrocytic foci
Honeycombing
Obliterative bronchitis
Loosely-formed granulomas

463
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind IPF

A

It appears to be a primary disorder of fibroblast activation + proliferation in response to an unknown trigger

Genetic analyses point towards roles of deterioration of the alveolar epithelium due to telomere shortening, altered mucin production, and abnormal signaling in alveolar fibroblasts

Injury to alveolar epithelial cells triggers increased local production of fibrogenic cytokines

464
Q

In which lung disease would you see weakly birefringent silicate particles

A

Silicosis

465
Q

What is the most common type of PAH

A

Group 2

That caused by left heart disease

466
Q

What are the clinical features of Group 3 PH

A

Patient will have the symptoms of the underlying lung disease alongside the typical PH symptoms
Again can go on to develop right-heart failure or cor-pulmonale and their associated symptoms

467
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as T3

A

Tumour 5-7cm
OR
Involvement of the parietal pleura, chest wall, diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura or parietal pericardium OR
Separate tumour nodules in the same lobe

468
Q

How does silicosis present

A

SOB only when progressive massive fibrosis

469
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind occupational lung diseases

A

Environmental trigger from occupational dusts etc.

However, only a small % of those exposed will develop the disease which implies there is also a genetic predisposition

470
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Affects only 1 in 1000 live births

More common in premature or low birth weight babies

471
Q

Describe the presentation of subacute fibrotic lung diseases

A

Presentations with a variable course are typified by COP (weeks/months of prodromal flu symptoms; SOB + exercise intolerance).

Can recur when steroids are withdrawn/tapered

472
Q

What is the definition of pulmonary hypertension

A

Mean pulmonary arterial pressure of over 25mmHg at rest or over 30mmHg during exercise.

Will also have a capillary wedge pressure of <15mmHg.

473
Q

Where are normal mitoses seen in the body

A

Seen in normal tissues exhibiting rapid turnover e.g. epithelial lining of gut

Also seen in non-neoplastic proliferations like hyperplasia’s

474
Q

How does ILD lead to Group 3 PH

A

Chronic injury to the alveolar membranes and fibrosis with vascular remodelling

475
Q

What are the clinical features of Group 2 PAH

A

Symptoms can be non-specific but are usually progressive
Similar symptoms to group 1 but group 2 patients generally have increased dyspnea, lower exercise tolerance and shorter survival
Again, it can progress to RHF (and therefore develop the common symptoms)

476
Q

What is lepidic adenocarcinoma also known as

A

Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

That’s the old name

477
Q

How do you treat small cell lung carcinoma

A

Limited disease is sensitive to chemotherapy and radiotherapy but 5-year survival is only 10%

478
Q

List common symptoms of sarcoidosis

A
Insidious SOB
Cough
Chest pain
Haemoptysis Constitutional symptoms
Skin changes e.g., erythema nodosum, or uveitis might also suggest sarcoid
479
Q

What causes the pathological findings in cor pulmonale

A

The right-heart failure
Systemic and portal venous congestion due to backpressure
May have some findings from the underlying lung disease

480
Q

What is the only definitive therapy for IPF

A

Lung transplantation

481
Q

List the microscopic features of bronchiectasis

A

Inflammatory exudation within bronchi and bronchiole wall associated with desquamation of lining epithelium and extensive ulceration, bacteria found too

482
Q

List the macroscopic features of Group 2 PAH

A

Thickening of the capillary endothelial basement membrane
Narrowing of the pulmonary arteries
Smooth muscle hypertrophy (as a result of elastin production)
Stiffening of the pulmonary vessels

483
Q

Define each T stage in the TMN staging system (general cancer)

A

Tis - carcinoma in situ

T1 - Tumour ≤ 3cm
T1a – ≤ 1cm
T1b – 1-2cm
T1c – 2-3cm

T2 - Tumour 3-5cm
T3 - Tumour 5-7cm
T4 - Tumour > 7cm

484
Q

List diseases that can lead to Type 2 respiratory failure

A
COPD 
Severe asthma 
Drug overdose 
Poisoning 
Myasthenia gravis 
Polyneuropathy 

Many more

485
Q

Describe the presentation of acute fibrotic lung diseases

A

Can present without PMH of lung disease or be part of an accelerated phase of underlying interstitial disease; most rapidly progress to respiratory failure.

486
Q

List the common complications of COPD

A

Respiratory infections - higher risk of catching them and also more vulnerable to further lung damage
Heart problems - increases risk of heart disease, including heart attack
Lung cancer - increased risk
High blood pressure in lung arteries
Depression

487
Q

How can O2 therapy be administered

A
Nasal cannula
Face mask
Non rebreather mask 
BiPAP/CPAP
Intubation
Tracheotomy 

In acute cases it is given at the time, as required but in chronic cases they may have it long term

488
Q

Describe the features of simple coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

A

Coal macules (1-2mm d.) consist of C-laden macrophages scattered throughout lung, upper lobes & upper zones of lower lobes in particular.

Occurs next to respiratory bronchioles since this is site of initial dust accumulation

489
Q

What causes the cough seen in lung cancer

A

Central airway involvement

490
Q

Describe the prevalence of intrinsic lung diseases

A

Overall prevalence of 3-6 cases/100,000 people (US)
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) prevalence in UK is 50/100,000
Highest prevalence in adults >75 years old.
M>F

491
Q

The surgical treatments for cor pulmonale can have what complications

A

Venesection – nerve damage
Pulmonary embolectomy – thrombosis and dissection
Heart transplant – rejection, primary graft failure, cardiac allograft vasculopathy
Lung transplant – rejection, bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome, post transplantation lymphoproliferative disorder

492
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

A

Muscle weakness due to autoimmune targeting of the neuromuscular junction

493
Q

How does cor pulmonale progress

A

It is a chronically progressive condition
Patients have the features of the underlying lung disease before slowly progressing to CP

Some cases such as those due to large PE can be acute and then acutely deteriorate into chronic CP

494
Q

What are the clinical features of bronchiectasis

A

Coughing up yellow or green mucus daily
Shortness of breath that gets worse during flare-ups
Fatigue
Fevers and/or chills,
Wheezing or whistling sound while you breathe
Coughing up blood or mucus mixed with blood
Chest pain from increased effort to breath
Clubbing

495
Q

What are the 3 classic symptoms of pulmonary haemorrhage?

A

Dyspnoea, haemoptysis, iron deficiency anaemia

496
Q

List the characteristics of a malignant tumour

A

Harmful - includes cancer and often fatal
Not localized
Can invade and destroy adjacent structures and spread to distant sites (metastasize)
Tend to adhere to any part that they seize on in an obstinate manner
Typically have poorly defined margins and are less well-differentiated

497
Q

Describe the pathogenesis behind occupational lung diseases

A

Environmental trigger from occupational dusts etc.

However, only a small % of those exposed will develop the disease which implies there is also a genetic predisposition

498
Q

How can you manage hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Antigen avoidance

Recognise the antigen and reduce exposure to it

499
Q

What causes coal workers lung

A

Inhalation of coal particles and other admixed forms of dust

Carbon dust is main culprit

500
Q

How does silicosis appear on polarised microscopy

A

Nodules show weakly birefringent silicate particles

501
Q

What happens to the nucleus:cytoplasm ratio in malignancy

A

It approaches 1:1 instead of 1:4 to 1:6

Nucleus gets larger

502
Q

Describe status asthmaticus

A
  • Persistent asthma attack basically
    It is an exhausting process as huge respiratory effort is required (muscles tire fast)
    Unless you provide treatment (ventilation to reduce effort) it can be quickly fatal
    Quickly become hypoxic and can cause death (also high risk of arrhythmia)
503
Q

What is the function of O2 therapy in respiratory failure

A

To ensure adequate ventilation
To reduce hypoxia
To correct respiratory acidosis

504
Q

In patients with type 2 respiratory failure, what concentration of O2 should be given as treatment

A

Start at 24% and monitor CO2 levels

505
Q

How do you diagnose pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Bloods - FBC, coagulation studies, serology
Radiography
Bronchoscopy - assess bleeding site
Lung biopsy - carried out if the less invasive tests cannot find a cause

Further tests may be carried out if a specific cause is suspected

506
Q

Which other diseases does silicosis increase your risk of

A

TB - inhibits macrophages from killing phagocytised mycobacterium
2-fold increased risk of lung cancer.

507
Q

What is the FVC

A

The total amount of air exhaled forcefully and quickly after inhaling as much as you can

508
Q

Which lung cancers could be classed as N1

A

Those with metastasis to ipsilateral intraparenchymal, parabronchial or hilar lymph nodes

509
Q

Name a drug which can cause drug induced asthma

A

Aspirin

510
Q

The characteristics of usual interstitial pneumonia are seen in which diseases

A

IPF
Connective tissue disorders
Chronic hypersensitivity pneumonia
Asbestosis

Must distinguish from each other with clinical, laboratory and histological findings

511
Q

What does papillary lung adenocarcinoma look like

A

Finger like

512
Q

Describe the abnormal nuclear morphology seen in malignancy

A

Variable and often irregular nuclear shape
Cancer cells: N:C ratio may approach 1:1 instead of 1:4 to 1:6
Chromatin is often seen
Nuclei may be abnormally large

513
Q

What is the other name for Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia (COP)

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans organising pneumonia (BOOP)

514
Q

Is there a genetic component to asthma

A

Yes - many polymorphisms involved

Generally involves mutations in genes for different mediators

515
Q

Can type 1 respiratory failure become type 2

A

Yes
And vice versa
Patients can also move in and out of respiratory failure

516
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Group 4 PH (CTEPH)

A

Clots form where the initial PE was and adhere to the vessel walls (mostly in large or medium arteries).
This causes stenosis and occlusion of the artery.

Blood is diverted through other vessels and as a result their pressure increases.
These vessels may then constrict and end up undergoing remodelling.

Microvascular thrombi may also form.

This all leads to a further increase in pressure and a progression of the disease (RHF).

517
Q

How do you treat lung adenocarcinoma

A

Surgery, radiotherapy, chemotherapy

Responds well to immunological treatment if mutations in EGF-receptors are present

518
Q

How do you diagnose group 3 PH

A

Diagnostic tests are the same as all other groups
Extra tests may be performed to confirm the underlying cause
E.g. Pulmonary function for COPD or ILD and polysomnography for OSA

519
Q

How does coal worker’s pneumoconiosis present

A

Usually benign

Little change to lung function even in severe cases

520
Q

What is a neoplasm

A

The collection of cells and stroma composing new growths

521
Q

What name is given to a benign neoplasm of the stratified squamous epithelium

A

Squamous cell papilloma

522
Q

What is the common outcome of all types of PH? (i.e. what does it progress to?)

A

Right-heart failure

523
Q

What may you find in the sputum sample of a patient with squamous cell lung cancer

A

Atypical cells may be found on sputum cytology

524
Q

How do you manage pulmonary artery seal and reperfusion pulmonary oedema which can be seen after CTEPH treatment

A

Supportive treatment – O2, ventilation and NO

525
Q

Signs and symptoms of cor pulmonale present early in the disease - true or false

A

False
Symptoms of CP tend only to occur in advanced stages

This is an issue if the underlying lung disease also has few symptoms - late diagnosis

526
Q

What can cause Cryptogenic Organising Pneumonia (COP)

A

It is a response to infection/inflammatory injury of lungs

Seen in transplant rejection

527
Q

How does sleep disordered breathing lead to Group 3 PH

A

Multifactorial - includes hypoxic vasoconstriction, hyperinflated lungs
Related to the severity and duration of apnoea’s as these episodes increase PA pressure

528
Q

How does PH affect survival in lung disease patients

A

Having PH alongside the underlying lung disease can reduce survival. For example, 5-year survival COPD patients without pulmonary hypertension is 62%, compared with 36% in those with both

529
Q

List the cytologic features of a benign neoplasia

A
Low nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio 
Contain regular cells 
Normochromatic nuclei 
Absent or scanty mitotic figures 
Only mild architectural disturbance with maintained polarity
530
Q

How can asbestosis cause pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale

A

Scarring can trap & narrow pulmonary arteries and arterioles
Increases pressure

531
Q

List the potential medical treatments for diffuse parenchymal lung diseases (DPLDs)

A

Smoking cessation and good pulmonary hygiene
Supplementary O2 for significant hypoxaemia
Removal of exposure if indicated – e.g., occupational, HSP.
Stop toxic medications
Treat respiratory infections
Pulmonary rehabilitation may improve exercise intolerance and QoL.
Influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations encouraged.

532
Q

List the clinical features of CTEPH

A

Exercise intolerance
Fatigue
Progressive dyspnoea

As pressure increases symptoms progress to:
Chest discomfort
Syncope
Haemoptysis
Oedema (and other symptoms of heart failure )

533
Q

Describe the course of chronic fibrotic lung diseases

A

Insidious and slowly progressive

534
Q

What can cause localised pulmonary haemorrhage

A

Secondary aspiration of blood following infection, tumours, bronchitis or bronchiectasis
Infarction
Infection (pneumonia, TB etc)
Trauma (laceration or contusion)
Pulmonary arteriovenous malformation or other congenital malforamtions
Underlying weakness in the vessels
Iatrogenic – e.g. following biopsy

535
Q

Which has the better prognosis usual interstitial pneumonia or non-specific interstitial pneumonia

A

Non-specific interstitial pneumonia

536
Q

What causes the chest pain seen in lung cancer

A

Extension into other thoracic structures

537
Q

List the diseases that cause severe airway obstruction that can be the underlying cause of respiratory failure

A
Epiglottitis
Tumours of the trachea
COPD
Asthma
CF 

They can all cause hypoxia and hypercapnia

538
Q

Describe the structure of tumour giant cells

A

A single huge polymorphic nucleus/two or more large hyperchromatic nuclei

539
Q

Sarcoidosis is a diagnosis of exclusion - true or false

A

True

Huge variety of symptoms that can mimic other conditions

540
Q

What does acinar lung adenocarcinoma look like

A

Cuboidal or columnar epithelium

541
Q

What is bronchiectasis

A

A disorder where there is destruction of the smooth muscle and elastic tissue by inflammation stemming from persistent or severe infections
This leads to permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles

542
Q

How do you determine if the respiratory failure is acute or chronic

A

Determine the underlying cause and symptom presentation

Not ABGs

543
Q

List the main inflammatory cells involved in atopic asthma

A

Eosinophils
Mast cells
Neutrophils
T lymphocytes

544
Q

List the common features of hypercapnia

A
Headache 
Peripheral vasoconstriction 
Tachycardia 
Bounding pulse 
Tremor/flap 
Papilloedema 
Drowsiness and confusion
545
Q

List the main mediators of atopic asthma

A

Th2 cytokines

IL-4, IL-5 and IL-13

546
Q

Respiratory failure is purely a chronic condition – true or false

A

False
It can have a chronic onset and course but can also have an acute onset and short duration
It all depends on the underlying cause

547
Q

Which diseases (general categories) can cause respiratory failure

A

Diseases that cause diffuse alveolar filling
Severe airway obstruction
Disorders of the peripheral nervous system, respiratory muscles and chest wall - causes inadequate ventilation
Depression of the neural drive of respiration - drugs, structural changes or metabolic abnormalities

548
Q

List common complications of asthma

A
Growth delay and higher risk of learning difficulty in children 
Permanent narrowing of airways 
Medication side effects 
Higher risk of obesity 
Risk of A&E visits - asthma attacks 
Lingering cough 
Frequent sick days 
Higher risk of depression