Seminal Papers Flashcards

1
Q

In Bergman et al 2006 on xenogenic DNA vaccine:

What AE was encountered?

A

aural depigmentation with muGP75
foot pad vitiligo with muTyr

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2
Q

In Bergman et al 2006 on xenogenic DNA vaccine:
What was the MST for dogs with adequate locoregional control?

A

MST = 569d

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3
Q

In Bergman et al 2006 on xenogenic DNA vaccine:
Which xenogenic DNA had the longest MST?

A

Out of huTyr, muTyr, and muGP75
MST = 389 vs 224d and 153d

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4
Q

In Bergman et al 2006 on xenogenic DNA vaccine:

What kind of study is this?

A

a combination of Phase I and Phase II

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5
Q

In Bergman et al 2006 on xenogenic DNA vaccine:

How does DNA vaccine work?

A

The DNA is inserted into a bacterial plasmid that has promoter that is always “on” to produce the antigen of interest.
The vaccine is given IM for the antigen presenting cells, esp the dendritic cells, to pick and present to the immune system. The bacteria and plasmid itself will also act to help to stimulate the immune system

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6
Q

In Bailey et al 2009 for cat AUC GFR carbo:
What’s the study design?

A

Phase I, 3x3 cohort study
- dose escalate until there is at least 1 toxicity, then expand the same dose with 3 more cat, if >2 toxicities noted, reduce the dose by 0.25
- if no more AE, then continue with the dose escalation
- Max dose = <1 in 6 cats develop unacceptable AE
(non clinical grade IV neutropenia, clinical neutropenia, grade IV thrombocytopenia, >grade III GI, death)

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7
Q

In Bailey et al 2009 for cat AUC GFR carbo:

How was the GFR determined and what was the median GFR?

A

The GFR was determined by 99mTc-DTPA with serial blood draw and the plasma radioactivity measured by sodium iodide well counter
- the median GFR was 1.97
- healthy cats = 2.01; those with renal insufficiency = 1.04.

Interestingly, 34% cats have GFR <1.71 but only 19% of them have clinical azotemia

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8
Q

In Bailey et al 2009 for cat AUC GFR carbo:

What’s the final dose for carboplatin based on GFR?

A

AUC = 2.75

dose = 2.75 x 2.6 x BW x GFR

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9
Q

What are the potential problems with BSA dosing based on Price et al 1998?

A

the formula for BSA = k x BW*a
- the “k” may not be accurate
- the a (2/3), taken from volume calculation, but also not be accurate
- but changing those 2 still doesn’t resolve overdosing smaller dogs
- adding in length ends up underdosing smaller dogs
- BSA also doesn’t take into functional differences (ex. liver mets, renal tumours)
- would be great to have a better BSA, but may need to look into alternative dosing methods (ex. GFR)

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10
Q

When would BSA dosing be appropriate based on Frazier et al 1998?

A
  • elimination intact via glomerular filtration
  • or degraded nonenzymatically with GFR = rate limiting factor for excretion
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11
Q

Based on Frazier et al 1998:

What’s the issue with BSA dosing when examining the PK of chemoetherapy?

A
  1. Absorption. This is not dependent on metabolism (ex. carrier mediated, or passive diffusion)
  2. Distribution.
    BSA independent processes include: carrier mediated transport, protein binding, issues with pathological states (ex. effusion and hydrophilic drugs), hypoalbuminemia, passive diffusion
  3. Excretion.
    - GFR will depend on protein binding of the drug
    - metabolism may be the rate limiting factor, which may have species differences but not within species
  4. Metabolism.
    Not all functions associated with metabolism is due to BSA, may just have species variation
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12
Q

How are the following drugs eliminated:
- doxorubicin
- cisplatin
- mitoxantrone
- 5-FU
- vincristine
- vincristine

A

Biliary: doxorubicin, mitoxantrone, vincristine

Renal: cisplatin, 5-FU

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13
Q

In London et al 2009 on Palldia on recurrent MCT:

How does c-kit influence outcome with Palladia?

A

c-kit is associated RR but not TTP

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14
Q

In London et al 2009 on Palldia on recurrent MCT:

What were the causes of death in 2 dogs that could be due to Palladia?

A

pancreatitis
gastric ulcer

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15
Q

What’s the RR of the following chemo for canine MCT?
- lomustine
- vincristine/ vinblastine
- vinblastine with pred
- prednisone only

A

Lomustine = 42%
Vincas = 7039%
VINB + pred = 27-64%
Prednisone = 20-70%

but all of short duration

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16
Q

According to London et al 2009 on Palldia on recurrent MCT:

What’s the significance of the c-kit mutation in canine MCT

A
  • c-kit mutation is more likely to be found in high grade tumour (grade 3 vs 2: 16.4% vs 31.6%)
  • it is associated with improved RR (60% vs 31.3%)
  • but no association with TTP or duration of resposne
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17
Q

In London et al 2009 on Palldia on recurrent MCT:

What’s the overall RR for Palladia in dogs with MCT?

A

42.8%

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18
Q

What type of study is London et al 2009 on Palldia on recurrent MCT?

A

Prospective, double blinded, centrally randomized, multi-centre sequential clinical trial with a blinded and open label phase

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19
Q

In Vail et al 2009 on Tanovea:

Duration of first remission:
B vs T cell
Naive vs relapsed

A

Overall median duration of first remission = 128d (4m)

B cell = 132d (4m)
T cell = 14d

Naive = 142d (~5m)
Pre-treatment = 99d (3m)

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20
Q

In Vail et al 2009 on Tanovea:

What were the DLT AE observed? Which groups had the most AE?

A

DLT = dermatologic, GI and neutropenia.
- mostly in the daily x 5d group
- no derm toxicity in the 21-day group
- Derm = superficial erythematous lesions, pruritic, mostly in the ear canal and/or small foci on the back or inguinal area
- resolved within 2-3 weeks with drug holiday
- 2 dogs had respiratory signs

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21
Q

What’s the MOA of Tanovea?

A

it’s a double pro-drug of PMEG.
- PMEG itself has poor permeability and nonspecific toxicity
- but has activity against leukemia and melanoma
- as a double pro-drug, it will be hydrolyzed in lymphocytes, and then deaminated to PMEG
- then phosphorylated to its active form, PMEG diphosphate

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22
Q

In Vail et al 2009 on Tanovea:

What’s the ORR and RR based on naive/ pre-treated and immunophenotype?

A

ORR = 79% (61% CR, 18% PR)

Naive: 100% (76% CR)
Pre-treated: 62% (48% CR)

B-cell = 86%
T-cell = 56%

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23
Q

According to the VCOG consensus on LN measurements (Vail et al 2015):

What’s the definition of target disease?

A
  • a pathological lesion should be >10mm
  • a target lesion should be >20mm
  • record min 1, max 5
  • if becomes non-palpable or WNL –> default to 5mm
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24
Q

According to the VCOG consensus on LN measurements (Vail et al 2015):

What’s a new lesion?

A
  • any previously none documented lesion (ie. not a target lesion or non-target lesion)
  • or if unsure, continue to monitor to see if it progresses
  • if it’s a peripheral LN, it must be >15mm
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25
According to the VCOG consensus on LN measurements (Vail et al 2015): What is PD and PR?
PD: - target lesion >20% increase in mean sum of longest diameter, compared to the smallest (nadir) measurements - at least 1 target lesion must increase by 5mm - if previously not measurable, must increase by 15mm - new lesion - unequivocal progression of non-target lesions PR: - target lesion >30% decrease in mean sum of longest diameter compared to baseline - no new lesion - stable non-target lesion
26
Based on Nguyen et al 2013 on solid tumour measurements: What is a measurable lesion?
- can be measurable on PE (Calipers, min 10mm), or imaging - max 5 target lesions - Rads, min 20mm - CT or MRI, min 10mm, max 5mm slices - use the mean sum of longest diameters - LN must be > 15mm - default if target lesion become none measurable = 5mm
27
Based on Nguyen et al 2013 on solid tumour measurements: How is LN measured on CT?
Use the largest thickness or height - do NOT use the length
28
Based on Nguyen et al 2013 on solid tumour measurements: How is PD defined?
- >20% increase in the mean sum of all measurable disease; must also have absolute increase by 5mm - new disease - unequivocal progression of non-target lesions
29
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What can contribute to sustained proliferation?
- producing its own growth signals - stimulate neighbouring normal cells to produce growth signals - increased numbers of receptors (hyperactive) or can be activated without ligand - mutation in growth pathways: Ras/raf; PI3K; - mutation in inhibitory proteins like PTEN
30
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's a paradoxical response of unregulated growth signals?
can enter senescence
30
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are the most important players in resisting growth suppression signals?
- the loss of tumour suppressor cells Rb and p53 - loss of contact inhibition (ex. with NF2) - loss of epithelial integrity (ex. with LBK 1) - corruption of TGF-beta --> EMT
31
Describe the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathway.
32
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: Which are the main pro and anti-apoptotic proteins in the Bcl-2 family?
Proapoptosis: Bax and Bak (also Puma, Bim) Anti-apoptosis: Bcl-2, Bcl-XL, Bcl-w, Mcl-1, A1
33
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are BH3 proteins?
BH3-only proteins act by either interfering with bcl-2 or stimulating the pro-apoptotic family members
34
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What triggers p53 to induce apoptosis? How is it done?
- unrepairable DNA damage - P53 --> release Noxa and Puma BH3-only proteins
35
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: How else can apoptosis be triggered (other than DNA damage)?
- insufficient growth factors ex. lack of IL-3 for lymphocytes or IGF-1/2 for epithelial cells - elicit apoptosis through BH3 only protein called Bim
36
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: Other than DNA damage, or lack of growth signals, what is a 3rd mechanism to trigger apoptosis?
hyperactivation of certain oncoproteins - ex. Myc
37
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's the function of Beclin-1
It's also a BH3-only protein - important in autophagy - it's normally bound to bcl-xl or bcl-2, but released during times of stress - liberated Beclin-1 then can trigger autophagy - other BH3-only proteins (Bid, Bad, Puma, etc)
38
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: How does necrosis promote tumorigenesis?
Necrosis recruits inflammatory cells to the site - angiogenesis - growth factors (IL-1alpha) - facilitates proliferation and invasion
39
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's the main mechanism to have unlimited replication potential?
to have telomerase - to prevent shortening of telomeres, which will end in either senescence and crisis/ apoptosis
40
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's the importance of break-fusion-bridge?
Can occur when there is also a p53 deficiency - allowing chromosomes with deletion or amplification to continue the growth cycle - adds to the mutability of the genome --> accelerating the acquisition of mutant oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes
41
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: Do telomerase have other functions (other than preventing shortening to telomeres)?
Yes, ex. TERT - it's a co-factor in the beta-catenin/ LEF transcription factor complex, which is part of the wnt signaling pathway
42
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are the 2 main opposing players in angiogenesis?
vascular endothelial growth factor -A (VEGF-A) = pro-angiogenesis - VEGF ligand can be sequestered in the ECM, and released by proteases (ex. MMP-9) - VEGF expression is upregulated by hypoxia and tumour thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1) = anti-angiogenesis --> binds to transmembrane receptors on endothelial cells and leads to signals that can counteract pro-agniogenic stimulant
43
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What can trigger the angiogenic switch?
- dominant oncogenes like Myc, Ras - bone marrow derived cells --> ex. from the innate inflammatory system: macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, and myeloid progenitors - they can also protect the vasculature from the effects of drugs targeting endothelial cell signaling
44
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are some other protein that can act like TSP-1?
- plasmin (angiostatin) - type 18 collagen (endostatin)
45
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's the role of pericytes in tumour vasculature?
It was thought that aberrant nature of tumour vasculature = no pericytes, but they are present though loosely associated - can help with maintenance of functional tumour vasculature
46
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: Which protein plays a major role in invasion of epithelial cells?
E-cadherin
47
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are the steps involved in the metastatic cascade?
- location invasion - intravasation - transit - extravasation - micrometastasis - colonization
48
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are some other key transcription factors that contribute to invasion?
Snail Slug Twist Zeb 1/ 2 - down regulation of E-cadherin gene expression - EMT - matrix proteases expression - increased motility - heightened resistance to apoptosis
49
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: How does tumour associated macrophage play a role in invasion and metstasis?
TAM can produce epidermal growth factor (EGF) to the cancer cells, while cancer cells produce CSF-1 to stimulate the TAMs
50
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are 2 other types of invasion (other than EMT)?
- collective: cancer cells move together en mass (ex. SCC) - amoeboid: each cancer cell can change their morphology and slither through the matrix
51
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are some reasons micrometastasses may not lead to colonization?
- suppressive signals sent by the primary tumour - lacking hallmark capability - lacking nutrients
52
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are some functions of "caretaker" gene products?
1. detect DNA damage and activate repair mechanism 2. Directly repair damaged DNA 3. inactivating/ intercepting mutagenic molecules before they have damaged the DNA
53
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's aerobic glycolysis and what's the advantage to cancer cells?
Glycolysis is typically utilized under anaerobic situations as oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria can produce more ATPs - however, tumour cells use aerobic glycolysis - they upregulate GLUT-1 to get more glucose - the intermediates can then be diverted into biosynthetic pathways for growth and proliferation
54
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What can trigger aerobic glycolysis?
- oncogenes like Ras, Myc - hypoxia - HIF-alpha and HIF-beta can upregulate glycolysis
55
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's a byproduct of aerobic glycolysis that can be useful for other tumour cells?
lactate! there are 2 subpopulations in the tumour cells: one = dependent on glucose (aerobic glycolysis), and another dependent on lactate (citric acid cycle)
56
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are some immunosuppressive immune cells that can be recruited by tumour cells?
- regulatory T cells - myeloid derived suppressor cells can be part of the inflammatory process - tumour cells can also secrete TGF-beta to dampen the immune response
57
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What's the function of myeloid progenitor cells?
they are major sources of - angiogenic, epithelial, and stromal growth factors - and matrix remodeling enzymes needed for wound healing
58
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2011: What are the 2 distinct types of cancer associated fibroblasts?
1. Cells similar to fibroblast that creates the structural support 2. cells similar to myofibroblasts - typically involved in wound healing, but at sites of chronic inflammation, can contribute to fibrosis
59
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2022: What are the 8 hallmarks of cancer and the 4 emerging/ enabling characteristics?
1. sustainable proliferation 2. evading anti-growth signaling 3. unlimited replicative potential 4. create/ access to vasculature 5. evade apoptosis 6. invasion and metastasis 7. evade immune system 8. cellular energy dysregulation 9. phenotypic plasticity 10. non-mutagenic epigenetic changes' 11. microbiome 12. senescent cells
60
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2022: What does "phenotypic plasticity" mean? Give examples.
the cancer cells can revert back to less differentiated (ie. de-differentiation) state. 3 different ways: 1. de-differentiation. Ex. loss of differentiation signals --> BRAF induced melanoma 2. block differentiation. Ex. fusion/ translocation in acute promyelocytic leukemia 3. Transformation. Ex. Barret's esophagus
61
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2022: What is "nonmutational epigenetic reprograming"? Give examples.
Changes to gene expression that does not come from changes in DNA, rather it's due to epigenetic changes. Example: - changes in methylation, acetylation - intratumoral heterogeneity in epigenetic regulation --> ex. at the leading edge of EMT/ partial EMT- state - epigenetic changes to cancer stromal cells
62
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2022: What is "polymorphic gut biomes"? Give examples.
the microbiome, especially in the guts, have shown to be able to modulate the susceptibility to cancer 1. bacteria can lead to direct damage to the epithelium via toxin secretion and can stimulate cell proliferation. Bacterial produced butyrate can also induce senescence in epithelial and fibroblast cells. Dysbiosis can contribute to the hallmark of cancer 2. bacterial can also lead to stimulation of both innate and adaptive immune system. Some can be good for enhancing immune function (ex. bacterial produced inosine can enhance T cell function), but others can cause immune tolerance (ex. recruitment of myeloid derived suppressor cells)
63
According to Hallmarks of Cancer 2022: How does cellular senescence enable cancer?
- can be a reservoir/ dormancy state that can enable the cancer cells to survive during stress and proliferate later on when the conditions become more favorable - the senescence-associated secretory phenotype (SASP) -- paracrine signaling of neighbouring cells that can contribute to the hallmark of cancer --> proliferation, avoiding apoptosis, inducing angiogenesis, stimulating invasion and metastasis, and evading the immune system