Miscellaneous Tumours Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the prevalence of thymoma in cats and dogs?

A
  • uncommon
  • but it’s the 2nd most common tumour in the cranial mediastinum
  • usually in older patients (9,10 years old)
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2
Q

What’s the most common type of thymoma in the cat?

A

cystic thymoma

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3
Q

What’s the metastatic rate of thymoma in general?

A

low

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4
Q

What’s the metastatic rate feline cystic thymoma?

A

up to 20%

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5
Q

What are some differentials for cranial mediastinal mass?

A
  • lymphoma
  • thymoma
  • ectopic thyroid
  • brachial cysts
  • rarely, sarcoma or metastatic disease
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6
Q

Are thymomas benign of malignant?

A

they are considered carcinomas

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7
Q

What are the most common signs of thymoma?

A
  • regurgitation
  • vomiting
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • cough
  • dyspnea
  • tachypnea
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8
Q

What are the most common paraneoplastic syndromes for thymoma in dogs? in cats?

A

Overall prevalence is up to 67% of dogs and cats.

Dogs:
- myasthenia gravis (40%)
- not as commonly found in cats
- up to 40% will have megaesophagus with concurrent aspiration pneumonia

Cats:
- exfoliative dermatitis

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9
Q

When can paraneoplastic signs be present for thymoma?

A
  • at the time of diagnosis
  • some time later in the course of disease progression
  • after tumour removal
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10
Q

What % of dogs with thymoma will have a concurrent 2nd tumour?

A

up to 27%

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11
Q

How common is hypercalcemia in patients with thymoma?

A

34% of dogs, and it’s also common in cats
- ddx: lymphoma

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12
Q

How does thymoma cause hypercalcemia?

A

via PTHrP

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13
Q

What ultrasound appearance would make thymoma significantly more likely?

A

cystic, heterogenous echogenicity

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14
Q

What other cell types are commonly found in FNA of thymoma?

A

small mature lymphocytes
mast cells

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15
Q

How often is neoplastic cells present on thymoma FNAs?

A

only in 61% of the time

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16
Q

What’s an unique cytological features of thymoma?

A

Hassal’s corpuscles, but they are not usually seen with Wright’s Giemsa compare to biopsy samples

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17
Q

How does flow cytometry help with thymoma diagnosis?

A

> 10% of cells will be CD4/CD8 double positive
(vs <2% for lymphoma)

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18
Q

What’s the outcome of thymoma treated with surgery alone in dogs? in cats?

A

Dogs, MST = 635 - 790d (1.7-2.1y)
Cats, MST = 1825d (5y)

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19
Q

What’s the outcome of canine thymoma without surgery/ treatment?

A

76 days

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20
Q

What’s the outcome of dogs with thymoma treated with weekly hypofractionated RT?

A

RR = 50%
1y survival rate = 75%

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21
Q

What’s the general outcome of RT for dogs and cats with thymoma?

A

RR = 75% (11/20 PR, 4/20 CR)
MST: dogs = 248d (8m)
MST: cats = 720d (~2y)

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22
Q

What’s the role of chemotherapy in thymoma?

A

undefined
may end up targeting the non-neoplastic lymphocytes…

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23
Q

What’s the general outcome of thymoma?

A

Good if non-invasive/ amendable for surgery

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24
Q

What’s the mortality rate in dogs and cats undergoing surgical removal of the thymoma?

A

Dogs: 20-27%
Cats: 11-22%

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25
Q

What are some prognostic factors for thymoma?

A
  • Amount of lymphocyte infiltration (higher = longer ST)
  • dogs with Masaoka-koga stage I or II = significantly longer MST compared to >II
  • age, invasiveness, and MC = NOT prognostic for ST
  • in cats, cystic thymoma = better prognosis
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26
Q

Describe the Masaoka staging system.

A

Stage I: Tumor is grossly encapsulated and no capsular invasion is noted microscopically.
Stage II: Gross invasion occurs to surrounding fatty tissue or mediastinal pleura. Microscopic invasion of the capsule is noted.
Stage III: Gross invasion into neighboring organs (pericardium, great vessels, lungs)
Stage IVa: Pleural or pericardial dissemination
Stage IVb: Lymphatic or hematogenous metastasis

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27
Q

What’s the natural behavioral of TVT?

A
  • develop within 2-6m of mating
  • can be grow slowly and unpredictably for years, or
  • grow invasively and become malignant and metastasize
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28
Q

What’s the metastatic rate of TVT?

A

5-17%

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29
Q

What’s a unique arrangement of TVT that’s used as a primer for PCR?

A

LINE-c-myc gene sequence

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30
Q

What are the 3 phases of TVT?

A
  1. progressive: grow for the first 3-6m
  2. stationary phase: last months to years!
  3. regression phase: usually starts within 3m, but rarely if the tumour is present for >9m –> need immunocompetent host
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31
Q

What does TVT do in the progressive phase to allow for growth?

A

mostly due to immunoavoidance
- down regulates MHC class I and II expression –> evade T cell cytotoxicity
- secretion TGF-beta –> inhibits MHC antigen expression and NK cell activity (inhibits IFN-gamma)
- can also target and damage dendritic cells

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32
Q

What’s a major determine factor for a switch into the regression phase?

A

IL-6 concentration
- IL-6 = pro-inflammatory
- acts synergestic with host IFN-gamma, and will overcome the tumour TGF-beta effects, and restores NK cell activity and MHC expression up to 40% of tumour cells

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33
Q

What other hose immune defense is available for TVT?

A

humoral immune response –> antibody production

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34
Q

What’s the treatment of choice for TVT?

A

chemotherapy
- vincristine single agent weekly for 3-6 treatments = 90-95% CR
- combination protocol not as good
- can use doxorubicin in vincristine resistant cases

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35
Q

What’s the outcome of TVT treated with RT?

A

can have up to 100% durable CR

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36
Q

What’s the outcome of TVT treated with surgery?

A

recurrence rate is 30-75%

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37
Q

What’s the overall general prognosis of TVT?

A

very good to excellent

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38
Q

What are the 2 most common primary cardiac tumour in the dog?

A
  1. hemangiosarcoma
  2. aortic body tumour (chemodectomas, paragangliomas)
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39
Q

What’s the most common cardiac tumour in the cat?

A
  • Lymphoma (both primary and metastatic)
  • aortic body tumour can occur, with hemangiosarcoma = rare
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40
Q

How common is cardiac tumour in dogs and cats?

A

rare

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41
Q

What’s the predominant location for malignant cardiac tumours in the dog?

A

Right auricle/ right atrium

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42
Q

What’s are clinical signs of cats with cardiac tumours?

A
  • tachypnea
  • dyspnea
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • lethargy
  • acute collapse = less common than dogs
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43
Q

How good is chest radiographs at identifying cardiac tumours?

A

Sensitivity = 47% (of cardiac hemangiosarcoma)
- but can often see the secondary changes such as cardiac tamponade and effusions

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44
Q

What’s the sensitivity/ specificity of diagnosing cardiac tumours with echocardiogram?

A

Specificity = 100%
Sensitivity = 82%
- higher for right atrium/auricle masses (99% spec, 82% sensitivity) vs
- heart base tumours (98% spec, 74% sensitivity)

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45
Q

How common is pericardial effusion in dogs with echo diagnosed cardiac tumours?

A

42%
(it’s 84% for those with hemangiosarcoma)

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46
Q

What’s the diagnostic yield of cytology of the pericardial effusion?

A

8%, it’s better (~20%) if the PCV is < 10%

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47
Q

How is cardiac troponin I used in diagnosis of cardiac tumours in dogs?

A

It can help with hemnagiosarcoma diagnosis.
- can use the pericardial effusion (>0.25ng/mL) or peripheral blood (2.45 ng/mL)
- can help with false-positive on echocardiogram

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48
Q

What’s the % of dogs with cardiac hemangiosarcoma having splenic involvement?
What’s the % of dogs with splenic hemangiosarcoma with cardiac involvment?

A
  • 29% of cardiac hemangiosarcoma has splenic involvement,
  • but only 8% of splenic hemangiosarcoma has cardiac involvement (older literature = 24%)
  • 42% of cardiac hemangiosarcoma has metastasis elsewhere than spleen
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49
Q

What’s the benefit of pericardial window in the treatment of cardiac tumours?

A
  • can improve survival time in aortic body tumours and mesothelioma
  • didn’t show to improve outcome in dogs with hemangiosarcoma
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50
Q

What chemotherapy can be considered with cardiac tumours?

A
  • doxorubicin based, mono or combination therapy for hemangiosarcoma
  • Palladia for aortic body tumours in dogs (not proven in cats)
  • feline lymphoma = CHOP/ COP
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51
Q

What’s the outcome of RT for aortic body tumours?

A
  • in a small study (8 dogs) using 3D-CRT (weekly), all dogs have gradual reduction of tumour size
  • SRT: (23 dogs) - MST = 404 days (1.1y), with 25% PR and 60% SD for median of 333d (10m)
  • in the SRT study, arrhythmia, clinical signs, locoregional LN enlargement = reduced ST
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52
Q

What’s the outcome of Palladia for canine chemodectoma?

A

RR = 89%
MST = 478 days, which was not significantly different than dogs treated with additional therapy (521 days)

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53
Q

What’s the outcome of IMRT with adjuvant vinblastine and propranolol for canine right atrial tumours?

A
  • MST = 326d (~10m)
  • 1/7 (14%) CR, 4/7 (57%) PR, 2 (28%) SD
  • weekly vinblastine (2.6 mg/m2 IV) and daily propranolol (0.5 mg/kg PO TID, increased to 1 mg/kg PO TID after 1 week).
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54
Q

What’s the outcome of surgery vs surgery + adjuvant doxorubicin for dogs with cardiac hemangiosarcoma?

A

Surgery only: MST = 16d to 4m
With doxorubicin post-op: MST = 175d (~6m)

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55
Q

What’s the outcome of doxorubicin alone for canine cardiac hemangiosarcoma?

A

Response rate = 41%
median PFS = 66 days
MST = 116-140d (3-4.5m)

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56
Q

What’s the outcome of canine aortic body tumour with pericardiectomy vs no pericardiectomy?

A

Pericardiectomy MST = 661 -730d (22-24m)
No pericardiectomy MST = 42-129d (1-4m)

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57
Q

What’s the outcome of cats with cardiac tumours?

A

generally poor

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58
Q

What’s the most common presenting sign of mesothelioma?

A

effusion (pericardial, thoracic, abdominal) due to impaired lymphatic drainage

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59
Q

Vomiting and urinary signs could be a symptoms of which type of tumour?

A

Sclerosing mesothelioma
- more so in males, German Shepherds
- thick fibrous linings
- restrictions around organs

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60
Q

What’s the sensitivity of detecting cardiac mesothelioma with echocardiogram for dogs with pericardial effusion?

61
Q

What tests can be run with effusions to rule out malignancy?

A

fibronectin
- mesothelioma can be ruled out if fibronectin is not increased

62
Q

What’s the MST of cardiac mesothelioma treated with pericardiectomy?

A

MST = 4-9m
if followed up with chemo, MST = 10-27m

63
Q

Is there a difference in out in dogs with pericardial effusion due to mesothelioma treated with pericardial window vs subtotal pericardiectomy?

A

no, MST 3-4m

64
Q

What’s a chemotherapy option for intracavity infusion due to mesothelioma?

A

intracavity chemo! but only penetrates 2-3mm

65
Q

What are histiocytes?

A

They are dendritic or macrophage lineage

66
Q

Which stem cells do histiocyte differentiate from?

67
Q

Define intraepithelial, interstitial, interdigitating, and migratory dendritic cells.

A
  • Intrepithelial = Langerhans cells
  • Interstitial = those in perivascular location. Ex. dermal DCs
  • Interdigitating = found in LNs, spleen
  • migratory = part of interdigitating DCs
68
Q

Which cytokines/ growth factors can influence blood monocyte differentiation into macrophage vs dendritic cells?

A

Monocyte –> macrophage = M-CSF
Monocyte –> DC = granulocyte-macrophage-CSF and IL-4

69
Q

Which cells are the most potent antigen presenting cells?

A

dendritic cells

70
Q

In cutaneous and systemic histiocytosis, which type of dendric cells are predominately responsible?

A

interstitial DCs

71
Q

In histiocytic sarcoma, which type of dendric cells are predominately responsible?

A

it’s due to the migratory potential of the interstitial DCs –> rapidly disseminate

72
Q

Which IHCs are important for differentiating the different dendritic diseases?

A
  • Iba-1: macrophages and dendritic cells
  • CD163 & CD 204: class A scavenger receptors –> expressed on macrophages and normal tissues
  • CD18: CD11/CD18 = beta-integrins (adhesion molecules), expression is highly regulated in normal macrophages and DCs
  • CD11b = macrophages
  • CD 11c = Langerhans cells and interstitial cells
  • CD80/CD86: expressed on antigen presenting cells –> ligand for T cell co-stimulation
73
Q

What is reactive histiocytosis?

A

these include the cutaneous histiocytosis and systemic histiocytosis

74
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cutaneous histiocytoma.

A
  • usually solitary, pink, raised mass in the a young dog/ cranial portion of the body
  • rapid onset (1-4 weeks), regresses in 1-2 months
  • CD8+ infiltration thought to help with regression
  • will express E-cadherin = unique to cutaneous histiocytoma (can be used to differentiate from reactive histiocytosis)
75
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cutaneous Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A
  • very similar to cutaneous histiocytoma but involve multiple masses or diffuse skin involvement
  • can also spread to LNs and internal organs
  • spontaneous regression may happen in about 50% of dogs, may be delayed up to 10m
  • prognosis is poor with diffuse presentation
  • can try CCNU or Griseofulvin
  • if solitary with LN mets, surgery can have good outcome (1-4 y)
76
Q

What’s the typical signalment for dogs with cutaneous histiocytosis?

A
  • tend to be young dogs
  • Golden, Great Dane, Bouvier may be predisposed
  • most dogs have previous derm issues
77
Q

What’s the distribution pattern for cutaneous histiocytosis?

A
  • restricted to skin, subcutis
  • head, ear, nose, limbs, scrotum
  • benign condition
78
Q

Which IHC markers are helpful for cutaneous histiocytosis?

A
  • E-cadherin negative (positive with cutaneous histiocytoma)
  • Thy-4 and CD4 = activated interstitial dendritic cells
  • CD1a, CD1b, CD11c, MHC II
79
Q

What’s the treatment for cutaneous histiocytosis?

A
  • spontaneous regression is still possible
  • usually with prednisone (partial response in most dogs)/ immuno-suppressants
  • long term maintenance may be required
80
Q

How can one distinguish between cutaneous histiocytosis and systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • the IHC markers are the same
  • will have same distribution patterns for the peripheral lesions
  • but, will also involve other sites like LN, internal organs, eyes, bone marrow, etc
81
Q

Which breeds are over-represented in systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • Bernese mountain dogs (may be familial)
  • Golden, Rottie and Irish Wolfhound
82
Q

What are some common clinical signs of systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • depression
  • weight loss/ anorexia
  • conjunctivitis
  • harsh respiration
83
Q

What are some common CBC abnormalities for dogs with systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • monocytosis
  • lymphopenia
  • anemia

occasionally see hypercalcemia

84
Q

What’s the treatment for systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • tend not to spontaneous regress
  • steroids alone may not be enough
  • immunosuppressants: azathioprine, cyclosporine A, leflunomide
85
Q

What’s the prognosis of systemic histiocytosis?

A
  • treatment can often have episodes of response then recrudescence
  • euthanasia generally due to repeated relapses or failure to respond to tx
86
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • Bernese mountain dog
  • Flat coated retriever
  • Rottie, mini Schnauzer
  • Corgis in Japan
87
Q

Which gene mutations have been identified for dogs with histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • CDKN2A/B, RB1, PTEN
  • PTPN11
88
Q

What could be a predisposing factor for periarticular histiocytic sarcoma in Berners?

A

previous injury to the joints

89
Q

What are some differences in the histiocytic sarcoma in Berners vs. flat-coated retrivers?

A
  • location: Berners = systemic, Flat-coated = periarticular (7x more likely to have localized HS)
  • age: Berners are younger than Flat-coated retrievers at diagnosis
  • histological differences also reported
90
Q

Which IHC can be used to differentiate between periarticular histiocytic sarcoma and synovial cell sarcoma?

A
  • CD18, cytokeratin, smooth muscle actin
91
Q

What are some useful markers for diagnosing histiocytic sarcoma?

A

CD204, IBA-1
There is a CADET histiocytic malignancy assay –> sensitivity = 78%, specificity = 98%

92
Q

What CBC abnormalities are common in dogs with histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • anemia, often regenerative
  • thrombocytopenia
  • leukocytosis
    it’s this 2nd most common cause of pancytopenia
93
Q

What biochem abnormalities are common in dogs with histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • hypocholesteremia
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • increased liver values
  • hypercalcemia has been reported
94
Q

How does ferritin level play a role in diagnosis of histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • Hyperferritinemia is common in dogs with HS (89%)
  • but not so good as a screening tool
95
Q

What diagnostic test can be used to differentiate between neoplastic and non-neoplastic cause of hemophagocytosis?

A

based on the scatter plot of flow cytometry

96
Q

What type of lung pattern can be noted on CXR for histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • diffuse/ infiltrative
  • patchy consolidated area
  • focal/ multifocal masses
    Right middle lung lobe!
97
Q

What’s the general outcome of histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • poor
  • localized/ periarticular have significantly better MST (391d vs 128d [1y vs 4m])
  • even metastatic PAHS can do well, but if no mets on presentation, MST = 980d (2.7y) vs 253d (8m)
98
Q

What’s the outcome of histiocytic sarcoma treated with CCNU?

A
  • RR = 46% in gross disease setting
  • median remission duration = 85d (3m)
  • if responded, MST = 175d (8m), if not response, MST = 60d (2m)
99
Q

What’s the response rate of doxorubicin alternating with CCNU very 2 weeks?

A

RR = 58%, median time to progrsesion = 185d (6m)

100
Q

What are some rescue protocols reported for histiocytic sarscoma?

A
  • dacarbazine, RR = 18%, event-free survival = 70d (2m)
  • Epirubicin, RR = 29%
101
Q

What are some outcome of metronomic chemotherapy for histiocytic sarcoma?

A

Lomustine: 2 cases, PR
Chlorambucil: 2 cases, 1 PR 1 SD

102
Q

What’s the role of RT in histiocytic saromca?

A

HS = radioresponsive
- mostly used for periarticular histiocytic sarcoma
- MST 182d (6m)
- with CCNU = 208d (7m)

103
Q

What cytological features can increase suspicion of hemophagocytic histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • atypical macrophages in the spleen with phagocytosis
104
Q

What’s the outcome of hemophagocytic histiocytic sarcoma?

A

there is no effective therapy - euthanasia in 1-2 days

105
Q

What bloodwork abnormalities are common in hemophagocytic histiocytic sarcoma?

A
  • regenerative anemia (94%)
  • thrombocytopenia (88%)
  • hypoalbuminemia (94%)
  • hypocholesterolemia (69%)
106
Q

What are the 3 distinct forms of feline histiocytic disease?

A
  • feline progression histiocytosis
  • feline histiocytic sarcoma
  • pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis
107
Q

Describe feline histiocytic sarcoma.

A
  • both dendritic and macrophage origin have been described
  • solitary lesions = rare; mostly multifocal or disseminated
  • bone marrow involvement is common
  • no effective treatment; use of CCNU. masitinib, and RT has been reported
108
Q

Describe feline progressive histiocytosis.

A
  • dendritic cell
  • multifocal to coalescing skin nodules
  • predilection to head, feet, and legs
  • indolent, but progressive –> eventually go to LNs, lungs, and abdominal viscera
  • doesn’t respond to steroids
  • may spontaneously regress
  • may respond to CCNU, masitinib
109
Q

Describe pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

Small case series of 3 cats
- all presented from respiratory compromise/ distress
- CXR: diffuse, severe broncho interstitial lung pattern with diffuse/ miliary nodules in all lung lobes
- needed extensive IHC for diagnosis (necropsy)
- all had metastasis to pancreas, kidneys, liver, LNs

110
Q

What % of splenic tumours = hemangiosarcoma in dogs?

111
Q

Which breeds are overrepresented for hemangiosarcoma?

A

Goldens, Labs, German Shepherds
-large breeds

112
Q

Which mutation is commonly found in canine hemangiosarcoma?

A

PTEN
- also dysregulation of angiogenic pathways

113
Q

What’s the likelihood of splenic hemangiosarcoma for dogs presenting with nontraumatic hemoabdomen?

114
Q

On necropsy, what % of canine splenic tumours are malignant and what % are hemangiosarcoma?

A

50% are malignant
50-74% are hemangiosarcoma

115
Q

What’s the most common cardiac tumour in dogs?

A

hemangiosarcoma (the 2nd most common site in dogs = heart)

116
Q

Which tumour is the most common secondary tumour to the brain in dogs?

A

hemangiosarcoma

117
Q

Where are the most common sites for feline hemangiosarcoma?

A

skin, and visceral (spleen, liver, and intestines)

118
Q

What are some common metastatic sites for feline hemangiosarcoma?

A

liver, omentum, lungs

119
Q

Which IHC can be used for hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • factor VIII, (von Willebrand’s factor)
  • CD31/ platelet endothelial cell-adhesion molecule
120
Q

How often is thrombocytopenia in dogs with visceral hemangiosarcoma?

121
Q

What coagulation parameters can be abnormal in dogs with visceral hemangiosarcoma?

A

seen in 50% of affected patients
- secondary coagulation parameters
- prolonged PT, PTT
- increased fibrin degradation product, fibrinogen, D-dimers
DIC!

122
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome can be noted on CBC of dogs with hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • neutrophilia!
    can also be due to tumour necrosis
123
Q

What bio chem abnormalities can be found in cats with visceral hemangiosarcoma?

A

50% will have elevated AST

124
Q

Describe the staging scheme for canine hemangiosarcoma.

125
Q

What are some biomarkers used for diagnosis of hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • cardiac tropnin 1
  • VEGF, urine bFGF
  • thymidine kinase
  • serum collagen XXVII –> can be used for monitoring!
126
Q

How often are multiple and/or dark red/ black lesions in the liver actually been benign in dogs with visceral hemangiosarcoima?

A
  • 50%!
  • almost 60% of histologically benign lesions were obtained from grossly abnormal livers
127
Q

What are some single agent chemo that has shown effectiveness in hemangiosarcoma?

A

1 = doxorubicin

  • ifosfamide
  • epirubicin
  • liposomal-encapsulated DOX
128
Q

What’s the outcome of metronomic chemotherapy for hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • can be used in post-op or as maintenance after MTD
  • likely no survival advantage
  • one study had thalidomide and that significantly increased the ST
129
Q

How responsive is immunotherapy for canine hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • mixed killed bacteria vaccine + doxorubicin had some improvement (no significant difference)
  • allergenic cell lysate vaccine didn’t show difference
  • adjuvant chemo + liposome-encapsulated muramyl tripeptide-phosphatidylethanolamine (L-MTP-PE) had MST of 9.1m - but not commercially available
130
Q

What’s the role of RT in hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • can palliate cardiac hemangiosarcoma –> reduces the incidence of pericardial effusion
  • they are radioresponsive, but not shown to have a significant improvement
131
Q

What’s the outcome of RT for retroperitoneal hemangiosasrcoma?

A

~ 400d (1y)

132
Q

How effective is tyrosine kinase inhibitors for hemangiosarcoma?

A

imatinib, masitinib, dasatinib:
- they have demonstrated in vitro effectiveness, but the concentration needed for in vivo benefit would be too high (too toxic)

Toceranib
- tried in combi with doxorubicin and had no difference

133
Q

Which targeted therapy for hemangiosarcoma shown improvement in ST?

A

eBAT
MST = 8.5m with 70% survival rate @ 6m

134
Q

What are some alternative therapies for hemangiosarcoma and how effective are they?

A
  • Yunnan Baiyao –> maybe in vitro effectiveness, no in vivo changes noted
  • Polysaccharopeptide (PSP) –> modest improvement in MST
135
Q

What’s the overall prognosis of dogs with splenic hemangiosarcoma treated with splenectomy only?

A

19-86d ( <3m)

136
Q

What’s the MST for splenic hemangiosarcoma treated with splenectomy and chemo based on stage?

A
  • Stage 1: MST = 239-355d (8-12m)
  • Stage 2: MST 120-148d (4-5m)
137
Q

What’s the general outcome of splenic hemangiosarcoma treated with splenectomy and chemo?

A

with doxorubicin based chemo, MST = 5-7m

138
Q

What’s the MST of primary renal hemangiosarcoma treated with nephrectomy +/- chemo?

139
Q

What’s the MST of primary retroperitoneal hemangiosarcoma treated with nephrectomy +/- chemo?

A

MST = 37.5d

140
Q

What’s the outcome of true cutaneous canine hemangiosarcoma treated with surgery?

A

overall MST = 780-987d ; 1570d (2-2.7y; 4.3y)
- ventral tumour location MST = 1085d (~3y)
- solar induced MST = 1549d (4.2y)

141
Q

What’s the outcome of cutaneous canine hemangiosarcoma with SQ infiltration or SQ/IM HSA treated with surgery?

A
  • Cutaneous with SQ invasion, MST = 539d (~1.5y)
  • SQ/ IM MST = 9m - 3y (with chemo)
142
Q

What’s the outcome for cardiac hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • no treatment = 2 weeks
  • with surgery, MST = 1-3m
  • surgery + chemo MST = 2.7 - 4m
143
Q

What’s the responsive rate and MST of doxorubicin for cardiac hemangiosarcoma in dogs?

A

RR = 41%
MST = 4m

144
Q

What’s the outcome of stage III splenic hemangiosarcoma treated with doxorubicin and deracoxib?

A

MST = 149d, similar to MST of 150d for all stages combined (5m)

145
Q

What’s the outcome of stage III splenic hemangiosarcoma treated with the DAV protocol or the VAC protocol?

A

-DAV: RR = 47%, MST - 101d (3.5m)
- VAC: MST = 195d (6.5m), similar to stage I/II (MST = 189d)

146
Q

What’s the outcome of feline visceral hemangiosarcoma?

A

poor, due to high metastatic rate
MST = 77-197d (2-6.5m)

147
Q

What’s the outcome of feline cutaneous hemangiosarcoma?

148
Q

What’s the outcome of feline cutaneous with SQ invovlement hemangiosarcoma?

A
  • with surgery, 50-94% will be incompletely removed
  • 50-80% recurrence