Section 3 - Aerodrome Control Flashcards
1
Q
Between 0600-2300, the ATC tower is to operate at least how many positions?
A
- GMC and AIR.
2
Q
Who’s responsibility is it to approve band-boxed operations based on traffic?
A
WM/SCOD.
3
Q
How much notice does GSA require for a runway change and why?
A
15 minutes.
Due to Dunstable gliding.
4
Q
What aircraft are allowed to make an approach to the non-duty runway?
A
CAT A aircraft.
Aircraft carrying out ILS/AGL flight checks.
For any others, full runway change must take place.
5
Q
What are some of the uses of the TC priority line?
8
A
- Missed approaches
- Notification of emergency traffic
- No R/T contact with ADC within 2nm
- No R/T contact with departures
- To issue SRA landing clearance within 4nm
- Emergency VCR evacuation
- Significant erosion of final approach spacing within 10nm of touchdown
- Lateral deviation from final approach track
6
Q
What frequency provides limited traffic information on the Dunstable gliding site?
A
Dunstable Radio - 119.905
7
Q
When can Luton ATC assume Dunstable gliding to be inactive?
A
Never.
8
Q
If a VFR or SVFR departure wishes to route through Dunstable gliding airspace, what should ATC do?
A
Warn them of ‘Intense gliding activity.’
9
Q
If AIR has reason to believe R08 arrivals might conflict with Dunstable Triangle, what should they remind pilots of?
A
‘Intense gliding activity underneath final approach up to altitude 1500ft.’
10
Q
What frequency should the support position monitor when not engaged in duties in the VCR?
A
GMC, 121.755.
ADC (when bandboxed)
11
Q
When active, GMP takes responsibility for what functions?
9
A
- Voice (and auto) DCL
- Transmission of QNH and ATIS info
- Advice aircraft of LVP implementation/cessation
- CTOT negotiation
- Ensuring flights can depart within CTOT tolerance
- Identify and resolve incorrect/duplicate flight plans
- ‘Metering’ of departures to minimise delays at holding points
- Optimising departure sequence based on routeing
- Pre-flight departure coordination (non-airways, inter-LTMA)
12
Q
What will GMP instruct aircraft to do when transferring to GMC?
A
‘(C/S) Hold position, contact ground 121.755’
13
Q
If GMP reports an emergency to RFFS, what coordination should they consider and why?
A
Coordinate all info with GMC.
Because RFFS will call GMC on UHF 1 when responding.
14
Q
R/T warning for a ‘stepped climb’ applies to which routes?
A
Runway 08 = COMPTON
Runway 26 = MATCH, DETLING
15
Q
When must you respond to a movement over R/T using the station identifier (Ground/Tower)?
A
When communicating with vehicle movements + tugs.
16
Q
If a pilot reports they don’t have a marshaller available, are they to be allowed to taxi to stand?
A
No.
17
Q
If an aircraft parks incorrectly, how are they to be moved to the correct position and can they restart engines to do so?
A
They will be towed only.
Engine restarts will not be approved.
18
Q
What should be considered for aircraft parking and pushing back from stand 61?
A
Taxi = From EAST only.
Push back = Face WEST only.
19
Q
Who will inform ATC of aircraft to be detained on the airfield?
A
LLAO.
20
Q
What is the maximum size of aircraft to be allowed to self-manoeuvre on the taxiway?
What areas of the taxiway is this not allowed?
A
Jets = Gulfstream 5 Prop = Dash 8
Areas adjacent to aprons/parking stands.
21
Q
What should you consider when taxiing/towing El Al aircraft on the airfield?
A
NEVER route by B7 and B8 in either direction without approval of AM.
22
Q
When is it not necessary to provide additional phraseology for aircraft taxiing to an intermediate holding point?
(2)
A
- If the aircraft is given onward clearance before original clearance limit.
- If the aircraft is vacating the runway towards an inbound holding point.
23
Q
What are some examples of code E aircraft?
A
B777
B787
A330/340
24
Q
What are some examples of code D aircraft?
A
A300
B757
B767
25
What are some examples of code C aircraft?
```
B737
Gulfstream 550
A319
A320
A321
```
26
What should be considered when holding aircraft at A6 Eastbound?
(2)
1. A6 Eastbound does not have a stop bar.
| 2. A6 Eastbound does not separate aircraft from those taxiing FROM the East to stands 20 and 21L.
27
What should you consider when pushing an aircraft from stands 19, 1, 1R or 18 with an aircraft holding at B8?
Essential aerodrome information to be passed to aircraft pushing from stand 18 always.
If pushing an aircraft larger than a B757 or A321 from stands 1, 1R or 18, you should also give EAI.
28
What is the requirement for taxiing code D aircraft between B8-E1?
Must be escorted by an AOD vehicle.
29
What should be considered when taxiing a HEAVY wake turbulence aircraft from B8 through the main apron?
From B8 to 15/15L it requires a follow-me.
If further than 15/15L it should shut down and be towed to stand, coordinate with AOD where to stop aircraft.
30
What should be considered for outbound HEAVY wake turbulence aircraft from the main apron?
Push facing south and towed with follow-me abeam stand 15.
From stand 15 they can taxi out with a follow-me.
31
When code E movements are to occur through the main apron, what should ATC do?
Contact AOD for guidance.
32
Which aircraft is NOT permitted to use taxiway Charlie?
B777
33
With a code C aircraft holding at C1, what is the maximum size aircraft permitted to taxi behind?
Code D
34
With a code A aircraft holding at C1, what is the maximum size aircraft permitted to taxi behind?
Code E
35
What are some of the aircraft that can hold at C2 Northbound and remain outside runway AND alpha strip?
```
BE20/BE30
Gulfstream 4
Citation (all)
CRJ-200
E135/E145
```
36
Are code E aircraft permitted to taxi to stand on the cargo apron?
They require a follow-me from D4 to stand.
37
How should a HEAVY wake turbulence aircraft route via E1?
Must be towed and marshalled.
38
What should be considered when taxiing a B757 Westbound from the North Apron?
(3)
Shall not do so while any aircraft/ground crew/vehicle is East of E1 OR light aircraft routeing behind via Delta.
Follow-me through the main apron.
Aircraft on North apron not to be instructed to push until B757 is clear of E1 and Westbound.
39
How would you route a aircraft holding at H1 to turn through the nearby tarmac to route to B1?
(3)
Coordinate with ODM.
Marshalling surface required to cross stopbar (MATS 1).
Considered a runway movement.
40
With a vehicle holding at H1, can a code D aircraft transit behind?
No. Maximum size is code C.
Code D can do so with a follow-me.
41
What is required for an aircraft movement between B5-H1 in either direction?
Follow-me, due to lack of taxiway markings.
42
What document specifies push-back directions at Luton?
AIP.
43
When pushed back from the EAP onto Delta, where must an aircraft be positioned before taxiing any other aircraft via Delta?
Taxiing North = D2
| Taxiing South = D3
44
If ATC are informed that an aircraft does not have headet comms to their ground crew, what should you do differently during pushback?
Standard pushes only.
| In exceptional circumstances advanced instruction can be given directly to ground crew via radio.
45
Are simultaneous pushbacks permitted and if so what requirements are there?
Yes.
Simultaneous pushbacks can happen permitted they are atleast 2 stand widths apart UPON DISCONNECTION on the centreline.
EAI should be passed where necessary.
46
Are aircraft 'power-back' procedures allowed when parked?
No, unless approved by LLAO.
47
What are the requirements for cross-bleed starts in the main apron?
Cross bleed start can only be approved on the taxiway centreline.
EAI should be passed where necessary.
48
What are the requirements for cross-bleed starts in the East Apron?
Aircraft should be towed abeam stand 45/49 before commencing crossbleed.
49
What are the callsigns of the Harrods and Signature marshallers?
What frequency can they be contacted on?
Harrods 1.
Signature 1.
UHF 1
50
Where can aircraft be pushed back for start from stands 30, 31 or 71?
D4 facing South
D3 facing North
E2 facing East
51
Where should ATP aircraft from stands 30 or 31 be pushed?
Echo to face East.
52
Where are the standard remote holding areas on the airfield?
A4E
SAP
Must check with ops before use.
53
What is the maximum sized aircraft to use A4E?
B737 / A321
54
When should A4E not be used by vehicles or aircraft?
When Code E/F aircraft are routeing past.
55
When should ATC refuse tow movements at night?
If the tow has no lights.
| If after approval you notice it has no lights, it may be permitted to continue with a warning.
56
What R/T indicates that a tow has a higher priority than normal?
When they use the last two letters of the callsign.
| 'EZY-TUG JE'
57
When should TC Luton pass AIR a range check?
| 7
1. When an aircraft will intercept final approach within 7nm.
2. Prior to an aircraft being authorised for a visual approach (unless it's 'straight-in').
3. When an aircraft is training.
4. If requested by AIR.
5. If ATM is unserviceable.
6. If SSR data is not displayed.
7. When not landing on runway in use.
58
When is a range check not necessary?
| 3
Subject to the following:
1. Flight is IFR or VFR.
2. Landing order is clearly apparent to AIR via ATM.
3. AIR has details including ETA and squawk.
59
Where should current final approach spacing be logged?
'GAPS' information bar message on EFPS.
60
When using RSVA, when can AIR transfer the aircraft onwards?
When standard IFR separation has been achieved.
| OR aircraft on diverging tracks and will continue to diverge.
61
When using a 1-minute or 3-mile split between departures on R26, what is the requirement before you can transfer the preceding aircraft?
First aircraft is confirmed turning towards BNN either visually or by ATM.
62
What should pilots wishing to perform an auto-land be warned?
'ILS protected to CAT I only.'
63
What speed restriction will TC Luton apply to inbounds unless otherwise coordinated?
165kts from 7 to 5 DME.
| +/- 5kts
64
When can AIR alter the speed of an inbound IFR aircraft?
Only AFTER coordinating with TC Luton.
65
What is the phraseology for warning aircraft of wake turbulence separation requirements?
'(C/S) caution wake turbulence, recommended distrance is (X) miles.'
66
What are your actions should an erosion of wake turbulence up to 0.5nm occurs with both aircraft outside 4DME?
Apply techniques to establish required separation.
No reporting action required.
67
What are your actions should an erosion of wake turbulence GREATER than 0.5nm occurs with both aircraft outside 4DME?
Aircraft should be broken off approach.
STAR report should be filed.
68
When can GMC take 'control' of arrival FDEs?
When the aircraft has established 2-way communication with GMC.
69
What is the missed approach procedure for Runway 26?
Climb to altitude 3000ft.
Straight ahead to I-LJ DME 1.5 outbound or altitude 1500ftm whichever is later.
Then turn left onto track 088 degrees.
Continue climb to alt 3000ft then continue as directed.
70
What is the missed approach procedure for Runway 08?
Climb straight ahead to NDB LUT to hold at altitude 3000ft.
Aircraft which achieve altitude 2000ft by NDB LUT continue to climb in the hold.
Aircraft unable to achieve altitude 2000ft by NDB LUT inform ATC and continue climb on LUT QDR 075 degrees to 2000ft, then turn right back to hold at NDB altitude 3000ft.
71
After how long does a release received from TC expire?
5 minutes.
72
Can GMC instruct any movement to enter the runway?
No, only AIR can do so.
73
If AIR is unable to confirm that the initial track of an aircraft matches the clearance, what separation should be applied for the next departure?
Four minutes for the same speed group.
| OR radar release from TC.
74
When can you apply RSVA?
Runway 08 only.
| Runway 26 is not allowed due to 45 degree turn after departure.
75
If the ATM is unserviceable, what is the minimum time interval to be applied between departures?
2 minutes.
76
On Runway 08, with the exception of CPT departures, when may departure separation between aircraft on the same route be reduced to one minute?
When the following aircraft is 2 or more speed groups slower than the aircraft it is following.
77
What is the distance equivalent for a 2 minute departure separation?
5 miles.
78
What is the distance equivalent for a 1 minute departure separation?
3 miles.
79
What is the minimum separation between a MATCH/DET departure and a following CPT on R08?
1 minute AND 3 miles.
80
What SID(s) are effected by a check North?
Olney
81
What SID(s) are effected by a check East?
Match + Detling
82
What SID(s) are effected by a check West?
Compton
83
When must AIR obtain a departure release from TC Luton?
| 13, sorry
1. When required by TC Luton
2. SDR
3. IFR departures less than 4 mins behind SDR
4. Departure after SDR J, until SDR J is east of airfield
5. IFR departures not following NPR
6. IFR departures less than 10 mins behind IFR non-NPR departures.
7. First departure after runway change.
8. IFR aircraft not included in speed table.
9. IFR departures less than 10 mins after non-speed group aircraft.
10. Departing aircraft with less than required departure separation.
11. When AIR believes standard separation would not provide adequate separation.
12. SVFR departures.
13. VFR departures not following SE/SW/SL/NL route.
84
What initial altitude is to be given to Olney departures for R08?
Altitude 4000ft
85
What initial altitude is to be given to Olney departures from R26?
Altitude 5000ft
86
When may more than one aircraft occupy a runway for the purposes of landing or taking-off?
(5)
1. Aircraft lining up prior to the departure of a previous movement.
2. Multiple line-ups.
3. Land-after clearances.
4. Using the helicopter aiming point procedure.
5. Missed approaches.
87
From what point is an aircraft or vehicle entering the runway to be considered occupying the runway?
When they have crossed the holding point.
88
If an aircraft infringes the runway behind one lined up for departure, can that departure be permitted to take off?
Yes, ONLY when the infringer is behind the direction of travel of the departure.
89
Using the SMR, when is an aircraft to be considered vacated from the runway?
When the whole contact is outside the OFZ.
| LSA during LVPs
90
If the SMR is unavailable, when are aircraft to be considered clear of the OFZ?
A: Passed A1
C: Passed C1
H: When the whole aircraft is facing Northeast on taxiway centreline.
B: Passed B1
91
What must all FDEs transferred to AIR from GMC display?
1. Intersection / full-length
| 2. QNH
92
On R08, what restriction exists for multiple line-ups when one is a full-length departure?
You cannot line up a Bravo departure ahead of a full-length.
93
What is the phraseology to be used when clearing a departure for take-off from Alpha, with another aircraft lined up full-length?
"(C/S) from the ALPHA intersection, runway 26, cleared for take-off, surface wind..."
94
When instructing a vehicle to enter the runway, what needs to be included in the entry clearance?
'Via' (runway access point)
95
When may conditional clearances be given to vehicles to enter the runway?
1. To AOD vehicles undertaking runway inspections.
| 2. RFFS vehicles responding to emergencies.
96
What aircraft are NOT to be given conditional runway entry clearances at Luton?
'Private' or 'business' jets.
97
From which runway access points can conditional entry clearances NOT be given to AOD vehicles?
Red 1.
Yellow 1.
Neither are visible from VCR.
98
On R08, what is the latest you can instruct an aircraft to abort take-off for each intersection and full-length?
```
H = Charlie
B = Hotel
F/L = Hotel
```
99
On R26, what is the latest you can instruct an aircraft to abort take-off for A intersection and full-length?
```
A = Charlie
F/L = Alpha
```
100
(Not MATS 2) What is the phraseology for instructing aircraft to...
1. Abandon take-off, following start of take-off roll.
2. Cancel take-off clearance while stationary/lining up.
1. 'EZY123 stop immediately, I say again EZY123 stop immediately, acknowledge.'
2. 'EZY123 hold position, cancel take-off clearance, I say again cancel take-off clearance, acknowledge.'
101
In the summer, at what temperature will the runway need to be inspected more frequently?
35 degrees C
102
In high temperatures, what is the maximum size aircraft to be allowed/instructed to turn on the runway outside of the turning circles?
B737-800
103
If LLAO determines it is necessary to reduce any declared distances, who is to be contacted for guidance?
Airport manager.
104
When FOD is sighted or reported on the runway, are DEPARTURES permitted to depart if given appropriate warning?
No departures may take place until an inspection has taken place and the runway declared serviceable.
105
When FOD is sighted or reported on the runway, are ARRIVALS permitted to land?
Yes, the pilot is to be warned and may elect to go-around.
106
If a pilot or driver reports being lost and their position cannot be ascertained, where are they assumed to be?
How does this hinder operations?
On the runway.
No further runway movements can occur until it is confirmed the aircraft/vehicle is not a hazard.
107
After a movement by which type of aircraft will a FOD inspection of the runway and manoeuvring are take place?
B747
108
When are the supplementary approach lights required?
1. For CAT II/III approaches.
| 2. When IRVR is below 1100m.
109
How long in advance must aerodrome lights be displayed before an inbound ETA?
15 minutes.
110
How long after an outbound ATD are aerodrome lights to be displayed?
15 minutes.
111
If a pilot reports the PAPI settings are inaccurate, who should this be passed to?
Airport manager.
112
Who are AGL (lighting) fault reports to be passed to?
Airport manager.
| Lighting can be informed over R/T, but AM still needs to be told.
