Section 13: Flight Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What must be in the aircraft prior to departure?

A

Airworthiness certificate, Aircraft Registration, AFM including weight and balance data and equipment list, MEL (if authorized), operations manual with latest revision, passenger briefing card for each passenger, extra headset for FAA inspector, normal and emergency checklists

FCC Radio Station license is no longer required for aircraft operating domestically.

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2
Q

What items must be in each pilot’s personal possession?

A

Personal headset with microphone, Pilot and medical certificates, additional photo ID (e.g., driver’s license), flashlight with at least two ‘D’ cells or equivalent for night flight, pen, appropriate VFR/IFR and approach charts and/or Electronic Flight Bag, Airport Security ID badge (if applicable)

FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operator permit is not required for domestic operations using VHF.

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3
Q

What does AFM stand for?

A

Aircraft Flight Manual

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List authorized for the aircraft

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5
Q

What does VFR stand for?

A

Visual Flight Rules

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6
Q

What does IFR stand for?

A

Instrument Flight Rules

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7
Q

What type of flashlight is required for night flight?

A

One flashlight with at least two ‘D’ cells or equivalent

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8
Q

Is an FCC Radio Station license required for domestic operations?

A

No

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9
Q

What must be included in the operations manual?

A

Latest revision incorporated

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10
Q

What is required for a passenger before departure?

A

A passenger briefing card for each passenger

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11
Q

According to FAR 61.3, what additional ID must pilots have?

A

Photo ID such as a driver’s license

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12
Q

What is the function of the extra headset on the aircraft?

A

For an FAA inspector in case of an enroute inspection

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13
Q

What type of checklists are required in the aircraft?

A

Normal and emergency checklists

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14
Q

Who remains the PIC until the conclusion of the flight?

A

The assigned PIC

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15
Q

What must the PIC state clearly when changing from PF to PNF responsibilities?

A

You have this leg

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16
Q

What phrase should the PF use to indicate they are relinquishing control?

A

You have the flight controls

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17
Q

What should the PNF respond when taking control from the PF?

A

I have the flight controls

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18
Q

True or False: There should be any doubt about who the PF and PNF are at any point in flight.

A

False

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: The PIC must state change _______ and unambiguously.

A

clearly

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20
Q

What are the two roles mentioned in aircraft control responsibilities?

A
  • Pilot Flying (PF)
  • Pilot Not Flying (PNF)
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21
Q

What should the PIC arrange regarding checklist items during critical flight times?

A

To minimize checklist items during climb, descent, departures, and arrivals in congested areas

This is to ensure focus on visual scanning outside the aircraft.

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22
Q

Why is visual scanning emphasized during certain phases of flight?

A

Because mid-air collision threats are most likely to occur during climb, descent, and congested arrivals

Visual scanning helps to identify other traffic and avoid potential collisions.

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23
Q

In the presence of a SIC, how should checklists be read?

A

The PNF will read the checklists as a challenge, and the PF will give a verbal response for each item specifying action taken

This method promotes effective communication and ensures checklist items are properly addressed.

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24
Q

What is a potential risk when completing checklists?

A

Becoming so preoccupied with checklist completion that aircraft control becomes secondary

Prioritizing aircraft control is crucial for safety.

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25
Q

Checklist use is also covered in which section?

A

Par. 13.17 Instrument Approach Procedures

This indicates that checklist procedures are important throughout various phases of flight.

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26
Q

What is included in the general briefing prior to takeoff?

A

ATC clearance, settings and configuration of flight instruments, radio and navigation equipment, follow-up configuration for normal departure or malfunction

Follow-up configuration includes procedures for an immediate return to the airfield if necessary.

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27
Q

What are the specific items to be briefed in the standard procedures?

A
  • Power setting (EPR, N1, or Temp)
  • Appropriate flap setting
  • V speeds
  • Acceleration Altitude
  • Transition altitude
  • Level Off Height
  • Departure procedures
  • Immediate return procedures in case of emergency

These items are standardized for the specific type of aircraft being flown.

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28
Q

What critical airspeeds should be identified for single-engine aircraft prior to takeoff?

A

VY, VX, VR, and best glide for current conditions and aircraft configuration

These speeds are essential for effective performance during takeoff and emergencies.

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29
Q

What is the purpose of establishing an abort point during takeoff?

A

To determine the point at which the aircraft hasn’t reached 70% of takeoff speed and may need to abort the takeoff

This is crucial for safety in case of engine failure or other emergencies.

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30
Q

What should the pilot flying brief regarding engine failure during and after takeoff?

A

Plan for engine failure, including options to land straight ahead, turn towards a favorable off-field location, or turn back towards the airport

Considerations should include crosswinds, precipitation, differential power, and anti-icing.

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31
Q

True or False: The PIC can revise the pre-takeoff briefing.

A

True

The PIC may revise the briefing if a different procedure will result in safer or more efficient operation.

32
Q

What should be included on the takeoff/landing card?

A

Vapp, Vref, and max gross weight landing numbers

The TOLD card must be filled out completely before departure or landing.

33
Q

What is the difference between general and standard briefings?

A

General briefing covers ATC clearance and configurations, while standard briefing covers airspeed call-outs and procedures standardized for the aircraft

Standard procedures are specific to the company and type of aircraft.

34
Q

What is a common issue when using a runway as a taxiway?

A

Pilots may mistakenly depart on the runway they are taxiing on instead of the assigned departure runway.

35
Q

What psychological factors can affect pilots during taxiing and takeoff?

A

Company procedures, passengers, running late, personal issues.

36
Q

Which airports have been noted to have higher runway events?

A
  • CLE
  • HOU
  • SLC
  • MIA
  • LAS
37
Q

What does the FAA recommend to avoid mistakes during taxiing?

A
  • Review airport layouts
  • Review NOTAMs
  • Have a current airport diagram
  • Write down complex taxi instructions
  • Ensure both crew members understand taxi clearances
  • Maintain situational awareness
38
Q

What is a key function of Crew Resource Management (CRM) in flight operations?

A

Identify and resolve conflicting perceptions of ATC instructions.

39
Q

What accident occurred involving an MD-88 and approach lights?

A

The MD-88 struck an approach light structure due to inaccurate vertical speed information.

40
Q

What was the NTSB’s conclusion regarding the vertical speed indicator (VSI) in the MD-88 accident?

A

The flight crew was unaware that the aircraft had a VSI rather than an IVSI.

41
Q

True or False: Specific read back of altitude in the approach clearance is mandatory.

42
Q

What should pilots do if they omit altitude read back?

A

Expect verification from the controller regarding assigned altitude.

43
Q

What is the purpose of a post-flight after landing check?

A

To discover items that might delay the aircraft’s next departure.

44
Q

What FAR requires pilots to be familiar with minimum altitudes for autopilot use?

A

FAR 135.93.

45
Q

What is the requirement for aircraft operating over water in the event of engine failure?

A

Must operate at an altitude allowing return to land.

46
Q

What altitude minimums are outlined in FAR 135.203?

A

More restrictive VFR minimums compared to FAR 91.119.

47
Q

What is RVSM and when was it implemented?

A

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums, implemented on January 20, 2005.

48
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM operations?

A
  • Two primary altitude measurement systems
  • One automatic altitude-control system
  • One altitude-alerting device
  • ATCRBS Transponder
49
Q

What must pilots do if required RVSM equipment fails prior to entering RVSM airspace?

A

Request a new clearance to avoid flight in RVSM airspace.

50
Q

What altitude assignment scheme is followed for RVSM airspace?

A

Odd altitudes for magnetic courses 000-179 degrees, even altitudes for courses 180-359 degrees.

51
Q

What actions should pilots take during flight planning for RVSM airspace?

A
  • Review maintenance logs
  • Inform ATC of RVSM authorization
  • Report weather conditions
  • Check equipment requirements
52
Q

What should be done before takeoff regarding altimeters in RVSM operations?

A

Set altimeters to the local altimeter setting and ensure they display known elevations within specified limits.

53
Q

What is the required action regarding altimeter settings when transitioning altitudes?

A

Set sub-scale to 29.92 in. Hg/1013.2 hPa when passing transition altitude.

54
Q

How much can an aircraft overshoot or undershoot the cleared flight level during transitions?

A

Not more than 150 ft (45 m).

55
Q

What must be fully understood and followed regarding ATC clearances?

A

ATC clearances must be fully understood and followed.

56
Q

Under what conditions will an aircraft intentionally depart from CFL?

A

Only in contingency or emergency situations.

57
Q

What is the maximum allowed overshoot or undershoot of the cleared flight level during transitions?

A

150 ft (45 m).

58
Q

What feature is recommended for leveling off at a cleared flight level?

A

Altitude capture feature of the automatic altitude-control system.

59
Q

When must the automatic altitude-control system be operative?

A

During level cruise, except in certain circumstances.

60
Q

What should be used to reference adherence to cruise altitude?

A

One of the two primary altimeters.

61
Q

How often should cross-checks between primary and standby altimeters occur?

A

Approximately every hour.

62
Q

What is the acceptable difference between two primary altimeters?

A

Within 200 feet (60 m).

63
Q

What should be done if the altimetry system does not meet the cross-check condition?

A

Report the altimetry system as defective and notify ATC.

64
Q

What should the pilot record during the initial altimeter cross-check?

A

Readings of the primary and standby altimeters.

65
Q

What must be selected for the altitude-reporting transponder?

A

The altimetry system being used to control the aircraft.

66
Q

What action should a pilot take if notified by ATC of an AAD error exceeding 300 feet?

A

Return to CFL as quickly as possible.

67
Q

What should a pilot notify ATC about after entering RVSM airspace?

A

Contingencies affecting the ability to maintain CFL.

68
Q

What information should be detailed in maintenance log book entries regarding height keeping system malfunctions?

A

Sufficient detail to enable effective troubleshooting and repair.

69
Q

What should be noted regarding primary and standby altimeter readings?

A

Actual readings and any differences between them.

70
Q

What is the vertical separation standard for Non-RVSM aircraft in RVSM airspace?

A

2,000 feet.

71
Q

What must the pilot of a Non-RVSM aircraft inform the controller of?

A

The lack of RVSM approval.

72
Q

What is the purpose of the RVSM mandate?

A

Only RVSM authorized aircraft/operators may fly in designated RVSM airspace.

73
Q

What is the standard phraseology used for communication in domestic RVSM flight operations?

A

Refer to the provided table in the Operations Program.

74
Q

Fill in the blank: The altitude-alerting system must be ______.

A

operational.

75
Q

Fill in the blank: The difference between the primary and standby altimeters should be noted for use in ______ situations.

A

contingency.

76
Q

True or False: Non-RVSM aircraft can be accommodated in RVSM airspace without any prior approval.